This house believes: Motion in the universe points to the existence of God.
The debate is finished. The distribution of the voting points and the winner are presented below.
After 3 votes and with 6 points ahead, the winner is...
- Publication date
- Last updated date
- Type
- Standard
- Number of rounds
- 3
- Time for argument
- Two weeks
- Max argument characters
- 10,000
- Voting period
- Two weeks
- Point system
- Multiple criterions
- Voting system
- Open
By "exist" I mean to have objective being in reality.
By God I mean an omnipotent, eternal being.
By motion, I mean the actualization of a potential, in other words, change.
"1. There exist in the world entities in motion (i.e. things which have potentials actualized)2. Whatever is in motion is set in motion by another. (i.e. whatever potential becomes actual is actualized by another, that "another" is something itself actual, as mere potential cannot actualize anything.)3. An infinite regress of movers carries with it no explanatory power for how any entity was set in motion. Therefore this chain of movers must terminate with a prime mover, in other words, an entity with the principle of motion in itself. An unmoved mover, or, more specifically, an unactualized actualizer. "
"A being that is pure actuality is, as we saw, eternal and omnipotent. We may call this being God."
" One does not arrive at an explanation for their motion unless one appeals outside the chain. "
"To put it another way, suppose I have a chain of mirrors all with the reflection of a bear in them. The mirrors have no power in themselves to produce the image of the bear, no matter how long the chain. Therefore there must be a "principle of bearness" which actualizes the mirror's potential to reflect a bear. "
" The atoms and the subatomic particles of said entity could have been arranged in another fashion, or simply not have existed at all. Their potential to exist however, was actualized by something actual, as we saw in premise two. "
" A being with no potentiality to actualize is to say that such a being cannot change (immutable)"
The first glaring problem is that this syllogism alone is not an argument for a god, only an unactualized actualizer at best. Even if we accept the premises, it makes no suggestions that this actualizer is a being, let alone omnipotent or eternal.
The current scientific understanding for the Universe as it exists is that it began expanding from a hot, dense state a few Billion years ago, and is expanding uniformly in all directions [5]. I'm assuming that for the purposes of this debate, my opponent does not dispute these well established facts of the universe. My opponent claims that this initial expansion was started by an omnipotent being, and that he calls this being "God."
Now, my opponent's claim is that an "unactualized actualizer" started the initial expansion of the Universe. This is a claim that flies in the face of our current breadth of human knowledge, for the simple fact that nobody actually knows what started the initial expansion. Furthermore, his idea of causes and effects (actualizers and actualizations) is a temporal concept. Since time didn't exist before the initial expansion, my opponent must demonstrate how his temporal argument makes sense when time words don't necessarily mean anything. Essentially, asking what came before the initial expansion is like asking what is North of the North Pole: the question is meaningless. And unless my opponent can demonstrate that time existed before time existed, then his core concept is meaningless in the context of how he is applying it. Spatial-temporal concepts are necessarily within the scope of the Universe, and without space-time (the universe), these concepts are incoherent.
This argument also refutes my opponent simply because, If god is outside the universe, then he does not have objective being in reality.
This is patently false. It is not the "principle of bearness" that is reflected in a mirror, it is whole bunch of photons [6]. Aquinas was not aware of the existence of photons, and so could not have known this. The ignorance of the Middle Ages of the nature of the world around us bleeds through the cracks of this argument. The mirror is simply a reflective medium, that bounces photons back, allowing for reflections.
In other words, the initial energy for all the matter in the Universe was already existent at the moment of initial expansion. Therefore, our atoms do not have the potential to not exist, they must necessarily always exist in some form of matter or energy.
There is no difference between a being with no potentiality and a being that doesn't exist. Being unable to change, this being would be unable to make a decision to create the Universe. Furthermore, if it cannot change, then it is not omnipotent.
"Goodness me! the argument simply doesn't deal with the specifics of big bang cosmology! I claimed nothing of the sort, and Aquinas himself knew nothing of an expanding universe.""...my opponent mistakenly misunderstood the argument as dealing with the expansion of the universe."
"A hierarchical series is independent on time. Example, my ceiling fan is being held up by a chain. The chain is being held up by a rope, the rope by the roof, so on. In the latter series, time is not relevant, what is relevant is dependence."
"If the cause is sufficient to bring about the effect, yet the effect did not exist with it from all eternity (all potentials were not actualized from eternity, obviously) then, at some point, the effect was brought into being from the cause, that bringing the effect into being must have been the result of either 1. A change in the cause. 2. A choice by the cause. Since a being lacking potentiality cannot change, it must have been the latter. "
"Gracious! What circularity! You have defined the universe as "all that exists" and then concluded that God cannot exist because He is "outside all that exists!" "
"Physically, yes, photons are in view. We are not speaking strictly physically though. I am using the analogy metaphysically. By principle of bearness I mean the agent that the mirrors derive their reflections from. "
"1. The energy that existed in the singularity had the potential to exist as matter2. That potential was actualized.3. Whatever is actualized is actualized by another, something already actual.4. An infinite regress cannot explain the actualization of any potential....so onEven with an eternal universe, which Aquinas never argued against, we can still run the argument successfully. "
"Choosing to perform a creative act does not entail a change in essence or nature. Which is what is in view here. My opponent has merely asserted that there is no difference between a being with no potentiality, and a being that does not exist. My opponent has not provided any evidence for this claim. "
"Number one, he has simply appealed to ignorance, claiming he does not know what caused the expansion of the universe. He has rejected the sound metaphysical proof laid out in my opening case in favor or a generic agnosticism."
"All transitions from potency to act require an actualizer, and this chain must terminate at something that itself was not actualized by anything temporally or logically prior. "
Conduct for forfeiture. There was also a mild bit with the sarcastic over reactions.
Legibility took a minor hit with formatting issues highlighted by an all bold and underlined paragraph, but it’s not bad enough to cost the point.
I suspect con has earned sources, but I’m on my cellphone right not waiting on something, so can’t review those properly for their impacts right now.
This is kinda falling down to definitions. We have two definitions for being immediately offered by con, which clearly pro does not want his God to fall within the first (existing, at least in the usual sense within time and such), but does not seek to show why there’s a personal intelligence to make God a being as opposed to something akin to a force of nature.
While CON managed to cast serious doubt on the properties of God, the Thomistic argument was simply utilized in a way more flexible way than CON could deny. CON's entire argument was based on science, more specifically strict naturalism. These specific conditions under which the resolution might be negated are vastly inferior to the grand philosophical evidence by PRO. With regards to arguments, I have studied them and written an analysis of them. But the important part to remember is that the definition of God is flexible enough to survive the scientific critique from CON. While other first causes might exist, CON failed to debunk the existence of such a thing, and could not completely disprove that God is one of the very few valid explanations for motion in the universe. Therefore, motion in the universe points towards God. PRO doesn't need overwhelming evidence to affirm the resolution, he only needs it to point towards God.
Conduct: PRO forfeited
Arguments: https://docs.google.com/document/d/10EevM5KyL9S0m_uWuu55qXkPeyKr64YLNFP--QDy0Ac/edit?usp=sharing
THBT: This house believes: Motion in the universe points to the existence of God.
ARG:
This is crucial - Pro must demonstrate that motion (as was defined by himself) points to the existence of the entity "god" - Con must demonstrate the opposite, that this defined motion does not. Pro, therefore, MUST demonstrate that the "actualizer" was an entity - which Con points out. I simply do not buy the notion that the actualizer was a being without further evidence - it is simply assumed in the syllogism, as Con also points out.
Usually, I would require that Con have a constructive, asserting why god doesn't exist; however, that isn't the BoP that Con must defend, Con is arguing that motion does not point to God, and argues this successfully. Pro's entire argument relies on A) Accepting the terms provided, that's done, and B) Accepting the syllogism. The problem is that Con successfully points out many reasons for the syllogisms falaciousness.
Such as: A temporal view on causal relationships is nonsensical without time, The example of "The dominos being pushed over by an outside force" is reliant on the precursory knowledge that Dominos are pushed over (the same goes for the ceiling fan example as Con points out), that nowhere did Pro demonstrate that the cause would be an entity. I'm sorry, but Pro simply does not put in the leg work to demonstrate his claim, EVEN if we didn't buy Con's argument.
Conduct: Pro forfeited final round
First of all, way to drop the main point, second off no that example isn't analogous, why not? I do not claim that the universe as we know it is infinite, I claimed that is is possible that the universe prior to time is infinite... except, you should notice something, how can something without time be infinite, as in exist infinitely? It couldn't because there would be no time for it to exist in - you see- before the big bang our understanding of physics breaks down, you cannot apply logic to that pre-big bang or whatever you want to claim caused spacetime to exist, as you can now - it is simply not valid.
Thank you for voting.
A god of the gaps argument is any argument that attempts to answer a question we don't know the answer to, like, "what caused the big bang," or "what causes lightning." We used to say it was zeus that caused lightning. If your claim is that god caused either, then that is a god of the gaps since there is no evidence to suggest that corresponds to reality. The fact that we know what causes rain replaces the former gods of rain that we would pray and sacrifice to in order to bring the rain. You're just substantiating the point that it's a god of the gaps fallacy.
God was defined as a being. You can't prove that the universe was put into motion by a being. And my opponent failed to prove that.
Your categories are just incoherent. You can't prove god exists, or that the supernatural is even possible, therefore you can't use god as a category of things that exist. It's a non-starter if you can't indicate it even exists.
You contest that unicorns are post hoc but cede that FSM is also equally post hoc as saying it was god that started the expansion. I should've specified, magical unicorns, who necessarily exist to create the universe. It's the exact same argument. It's just a unicorn of the gaps.
Imagine you have a hotel with an infinite number of rooms. All of the rooms are occupied.
From every room with an odd number, the inhabitant leaves. Now, you have an actual infinity minus an actual infinity. The result? infinity-infinity=infinity.
Another scenario is that all rooms with a higher number than 3 are left by their inhabitants. In this case, infinity-infinity=3
In other words, such a hotel can never exist, because the same equation (infinity-infinity) gives us different results (infinity or 3 or any number)
This clearly is logically absurd. An infinite hotel with an infinite number of rooms could never exist.
Now, swap the hotel with spacetime instances, and the same problem emerges: if infinite, a universe becomes logically absurd.
We already have a definition for both words: God and a universe - a god is always a being - a universe is evidently not - therefore even if we were to subject that definition to the universe it would necessarily require you to assert that the universe is sentient, is an agent - that is evidently not the case - therefore you are either ad hoc claiming it is, or you are using an insufficient definition. Furthermore, if you do not make the argument yourself, I don't find it worth my time to check it
I assure you that my definition is correct.
If the universe is the word for God, then matter warps God, and God is expanding, and God is composed of other things.
Honestly, asserting that the universe has innate existence contradicts all logic, as an eternal universe is ABSURD.
Watch this video to learn why a universe cannot be infinite: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vybNvc6mxMo
My definition of God is sound. You claim it to be nonsense, please elaborate.
The problem with that argument is that you are defining god into existence, if I were to define a unicorn as a "Mammal on four legs with a horn", then of course I could prove the existence of a Unicorn, we have all sorts of animals with those properties. The same goes for god, you are asserting a definition arbitrarily that way, "Of course he exists" the problem is we already have a word for it - the universe, your definition is nonsense.
Just the part of the vote that is written directly is enough to make the vote valid, on par with your vote.
Please elaborate on what went wrong in my vote, I thought the entire point of voting was using your own reasoning to analyse the debate.
Regardless, my vote still fits the criteria, and I analyse it thoroughly. I
Wrong. God of the gaps is using God to satisfy our seeking for knowledge when in reality God did not fill those holes. For example, I could claim "God sends the rain", but we know the sun drives the rain, not God. It is a God of the gaps theory, it contradicts rather than being supported by, loci. With creation it is different. God can be defined as "the thing that exists by necessity rather than contingency". Therefore, God existed eternally by definition. And anything that starts to exist has a cause. Therefore, the only logical conclusion I will now present.
Any existing thing falls into the following categories:
1. God
2. Things caused by God
3. Things caused by things from category 2 or category 3
Therefore, if something starts to exist, it must by definition exist BECAUSE of God.
Now, one can complain about the religious view of God, but his logically necessary nature makes "IT" an unavoidable conclusion.
The fallacy of comparing God to unicorns is that they, by definition, fit into categories 2 or 3, not category 1. If they truly fit into category 1, they would not have the properties of what we popularly attribute to a unicorn, it would just be to exchange the WORD God with unicorn.
In other words, a better wording of you complaint is this:
"Calling the immaterial creator God is equally uninformative as calling him Zeus, Allah, or even ofajieojfaoifmdwcqoiqoiwqeoicewuq"
God's nature is up for dispute. His existence is not.
It is evident that your vote is employing your own reasoning, not the reasoning of the debater, which is reportable - why not just have a debate - you and Sum1hugme?
Claiming it's an immaterial creator is equally post hoc as claiming it was unicorns or the flying spaghetti monster.
Spacetime came into existence at the moment of initial expansion.
In this debate, it was more my claim that my opponent had not touched his bop with any empirical data to suggest his proposition is correspondent to reality. He accepted the framework of cosmic origins being big bang inflation by not contesting that framework, and therefore he has to prove a creator initiated the first movement. He couldn't do that, and I drilled that point over and over.
Personally, I reject the idea because it's a post hoc rationalization that makes no testable predictions and is the definition of a god of the gaps.
If time didn't exist before BB, then why do you reject the existence of an immaterial creator? Nothing else could create the universe.
If the universe is not created, it must have existed before the BB. In other words, spacetime is either infinite or it has an external cause.
The geodesics coming out the back are part of the hypothetical model of cyclic cosmology.
It's not baseless. We are talking about temporal causality in a unidirectional time geodesic. Time is relative to the observer, which we know from general relatuvity. Following back the geodesics that represent relative timelines, then they will converge to a point where they do not go past; where Time=0. At which point, causality as we understand it, breaks down. Time didn't exist before time existed. Your objections are mute.
The video you sent me, that I also watched yesterday, says that the geodesics come out on another side, in an earlier universe. This continues the impossibly long chain of causes that my video debunks as logically possible.
The inflation model goes like this:
1. Energy exists very densely
2. Spacetime starts to expand rapidly, then slowly
3. Current physical laws starts explaining the universe
I see no reason to baselessly assert that causality didn't exist before BB simply because our perception of time falls short of describing it.
Tell me, if we define "time" as the rate at which change occurs, did time exist before BB?
No, in the Big Bang Theory, the Big Bang is the initial expansion. There is no claim as to what the cause was, but it is evidently incoherent to ask "what came before the Big Bang." There is no evidence to suggest that this or that "caused" cosmic inflation. Inflation is when time began. Energy isn't a "cause". It would've been just compressed where all energy is in the same point.
How can something whose existence is independent, have a beginning? In BB, you claim spacetime started to exist so that expansion and causality could happen. Doesn't that mean that the existence of spacetime is dependent on a real event, BB, and a real cause, energy?
I replied the dependency argument by pointing out that there is no precedent for a dependent universe like there is for dependent ceiling fans.
Logic doesn't govern the Universe. We use logic to describe aspects of it. You can't apply temporal causality where time doesn't exist.
I have already watched that video. It doesn't account for the problem of infinity. Even a cyclic universe breaks basic logical laws by proposing infinite change.
If the fan doesn’t need any external support but can support other things, then that fan is indistinguishable from the roof. However, if the universe can change and be altered by its environment then it cannot have this property of being eternal, as PRO proved. Thus, any objection against the "illogic" of God/first cause would apply even more so to a universe that doesn’t need God.
This is a better video : https://youtu.be/K8gV05nS7mc
And no, I didn't say the energy compressed into the "singularity" caused the universe. I didn't call anything god, you're just applying that term post hoc
The law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created only changes from one form to another. Any closed system would be eternal.
If something like a multiverse is where the energy before BB comes from, then that only widens our closed system.
To truly create energy out of nothing, aka initiating a closed system, one would need a cause that could release energy while still not changing.
Theists believe that thing to be God, but one cannot simply discard the idea as absurd because of the association with religion.
Where do you get your assumption from? Nothing cannot create something. Only something can create something.
You assume that the only way something can happen is by causality.... the problem there is that before causality, something necessarily would have to be for something esle to happen, in this case, that something else could be nothing. Nothing could cause something. This is unintuitive yes; however, that is where our case leads us logically.
IF there was no causality, THEN the big bang could have popped into existence, randomly began, a number of things - see that's where "we don't know" comes in handy. Asserting that it is a god, is literally a textbook god of the gaps fallacy.
Any future voters, I implore you to ignore this comment section in its entirety, only use the debate itself to inform your views.
But,,, isn't that realm the same as "god", in that it is
1) timeless,
2) unchanging,
3) causes the universe
You are merely asserting God is the energy before BB.
You can't apply temporal causality to a realm where time doesn't exist and doesn't apply. So eternal universe models are compatible with the big bang inflationary model. My opponent implicitly agreed to the framework by not contesting that we can extrapolate back the first movement, cosmic inflation. In the framework of inflationary cosmology, the above statements are true.
Reading your debate led me to watch this video.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vybNvc6mxMo
It claims that an infinite number of events cannot possibly have happened.
Ok, you assume time doesn't exist, neither does causality, before BB.
In other words, nothing *happened* before BB?
"I find it strange and meaningless to assume that energy is eternal, but then also reject causality and time before the BB. Is energy older than spacetime itself?"
Classical time is not applicable when particles become massless. When the universe is condensed into a point of infinite curvature, then all the matter would be just energy. So classical time doesn't apply. So I was not contradicting myself.
"CON’s last statement on this matter was that “An important objection to raise is that there is precedent that ceiling fans need support to hang on the ceiling” This argument is counterintuitive, but also not evidently true or logical. If the universe is not reliant on god for its existence, and “all that exists” exists BECAUSE of the universe, isn’t CON making the argument that the universe is the same as God? Indeed that is the case."
No I was not arguing that the universe is god lol.
Thank you for a brilliant debate.
Thank you for voting
Thank you for voting.
your bump has been answered
Very interesting debate indeed. I think of voting in the near future.
Vote bump
Vote bump
Hope you didn't quit the site.
Yeah np
Huge thank you for the debate, looking forward to your rejoinders!