Since people seem confused

Author: Polytheist-Witch ,

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Polytheist-Witch
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The Torah = Jewish holy book
The Bible = Christian holy book

The Torah is the first five books of the Bible. That's it. No other shared holy text. Please people, get educated. 
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What is your source of spirituality in literature if I may ask?
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Have to keep in mind much of the literature for the Heathen faiths was adapted by Christians. The Norse sources are The Eddas and Sagas. Snorri Sturluson was the first to really translate the poems and he assigned Odin as All Father, Loki as Satan and made Baldr a Christ figure. The parts about Odin are mostly made up taking Wodan myths and making Odin more king like to endorse the new rules who were Christian. 

While the same religion there are local and regional gods in all the areas where the Heathen religion is practices. Anglo Saxons, Germans, Baltic regions and the Norse have regional gods, local stories and hero worship. Grimm's tales contain myth and practices. Hexeri and Braucherei and Pow Wow are specifically German as are goddesses like Holle and Perchta. The Baltics are a closed practice and much of their lore is still private with goddesses like Baba Yaga being regional to them. Loki is not a German deity. 

So I look to the Edda/ Sagas, folk lore, Grimm, fairy tales, current practices preserved but Christianized. I also practice solitary so if I get a feeling about something when working with a god or spirit I do it. 
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Interesting, what do you think about non-dual Vedanta? or Vedic literature?
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The Old Testament (also known as the Jewish Tanakh) is the first 39 books in most Christian Bibles.



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So if i get a feeling about something when working with a god or a spirit I do it.
10.
And a 9
And 8
And a 7
And a 6 
And a 5 
And 4
And 3
And a 2
1

Since people seem confused. 


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What's it like to be worthless.
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The Hebrew Bible, also called the Tanakh (/tɑːˈnɑːx/;[1] תַּנַ"ךְ‬, pronounced [taˈnaχ] or [təˈnax]; also TenakhTenakTanach) or Mikra, is the canonical collection of Jewish texts, which is also the textual source for the Christian Old Testament. These texts are composed mainly in Biblical Hebrew, with some passages in Biblical Aramaic (in the books of DanielEzraand a few others). The form of this text that is authoritative for Rabbinic Judaism is known as the Masoretic Text (MT), and is divided into 24 books, while the Protestant Bible translations divide the same material into 39 books.
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The Jewish holy text is the TORAH five books given to Moses by God. The rest is law.
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Torah (/ˈtɔːrə, ˈtoʊrə/; Hebrew: תּוֹרָה‬, "Instruction", "Teaching" or "Law") has a range of meanings. It can most specifically mean the first five books (Pentateuch) of the 24 books of the Tanakh, and is usually printed with the rabbinic commentaries (perushim). It can mean the continued narrative from the Book of Genesis to the end of the Tanakh (Malachi), and it can even mean the totality of Jewish teaching, culture and practice, whether derived from biblical texts or later rabbinic writings.
It seems to be a versatile term.
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It seems the OP adds to the confusion rather than clearing it up.

It's probably best to avoid Judaic terms, unless you are Jewish or referencing material that is specific to Judaism such as Midrash, which is damn rare on DArt.

People generally get original sin and immacuate conception wrong too.

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No one asked you 
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Right lets not discuss a religion unless we are in it. Bye bye atheists. If you post here again your a liar. 
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I didn't want to say that your OP is flat out wrong but you forced me into it!

Later you compound the OP's error by saying "The Jewish holy text is the TORAH five books given to Moses by God. The rest is law."

The Torah is the law part of the jewish holy text  - the other parts being 'Prophets' and'Writings'.

When it comes to world scriptures, I don't think you know your Azvesta from your Edda.

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Liar and troll. Thanks for not taking your own advice. 
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People generally get original sin and immacuate conception wrong too.
Please explain.

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He's lying. 
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A lot of people think 'original sin' refers to Adam and Eve being disobedient, but it actually refers to each of us being a sinner from our origin (ie conception) in our mother's womb so we are born as sinners right from our origin.   We are all of us born already tainted with 'original sin'.

That is all but one of us - Mary.  Mary was uniquely not tainted with original sin in order she was fit to bear Jesus.  Mary was conceived sinless (ie imacculate) in her mother's womb.   Hence it was Mary who was immmaculately conceived, not Jesus.  'Imaculate conception' is not the same thing as the 'virgin birth'.

Good Catholics are taught all that, but many Protestants aren't taught Catholic theology!


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He's lying. 
Please explain.
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He just did. He's also said no one should discuss a religion they aren't in. He is an atheist. Making every post a hypocritical statement. 
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A lot of people think 'original sin' refers to Adam and Eve being disobedient, but it actually refers to each of us being a sinner from our origin (ie conception) in our mother's womb so we are born as sinners right from our origin.   We are all of us born already tainted with 'original sin'.

That is all but one of us - Mary.  Mary was uniquely not tainted with original sin in order she was fit to bear Jesus.  Mary was conceived sinless (ie imacculate) in her mother's womb.   Hence it was Mary who was immmaculately conceived, not Jesus.  'Imaculate conception' is not the same thing as the 'virgin birth'. 

Good Catholics are taught all that, but many Protestants aren't taught Catholic theology!
Holy mother of Mary!!

So if Mary was "born without original sin" (BWOS) without her mother having to be "born without original sin" (BWOS), then why couldn't the Jesus have been born to Mary's mother and avoid this whole "two step process"?

Or, better yet, why didn't the "YHWH" just immaculately conceive an entire generation of children, so they could be free from Adam and Eve's blood curse (original sin)?

Or better yet, why didn't the "YHWH" just curse Eve's womb (or Adam's walnuts) so they wouldn't have any children, and then make a new perfect couple that would, could, should obey it properly.

I mean, if the thing is really and truly omniscient, it really seems like it should have foreseen how all this would all play out, right?

Wait a minute, doesn't this mean that BOTH the Jesus and the Mary were "immaculately conceived" (AND) "born of a virgin"?
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He just did. He's also said no one should discuss a religion they aren't in. He is an atheist. Making every post a hypocritical statement. 
I think keithprosser was simply suggesting that, if you are not a member of a specific religion, you should carefully check your reference material.

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I said its best to avoid judaic terms because they are often misused or misunderstood, especialy by non Jews.

Torah
Tanakh
Neviim
Ketuvim
Midrash
Gemara
Kablah
Targum
Nach
etc etc...

Do you know your Targums from your Gemara?

Obviousy there are times you have to use those terms, but if so at least try to use the right one!  As my post on original sin and imacculate conception shows, it's hard to get it right in a religion we think we know fairly well!



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Atheist discussion religions they aren't in. Hypocrite.