and was horrified by what it says just regarding definition of pedophilia. They cannot make up their minds and appears professionally incompetent. I separated out one sentence [in italics] that just angered me for the uselessness of the statement in an alleged "professional" atmosphere.
"Defining Pedophilia
"Pedophilia is defined as a persistent and recurrent sexual interest in prepubertal children (Finkelhor,
1984; Schmidt et al.,
2013; Seto,
2018). In the fifth edition of the
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (American Psychiatric Association,
2013) further defines pedophilic disorder as a persistent sexual interest in prepubescent children, which manifests itself in thoughts, fantasies, urges, sexual arousal, or sexual behavior, and is accompanied by either acting on or experiencing distress because of this interest.
"Pedophilia is not synonymous with sexual offending against children, though it is often conflated with child sexual abuse in popular and academic discourses (Feelgood & Hoyer, 2008).
"Seto (
2018) emphasized that most men who sexually abuse children are not pedophiles, nor do all pedophiles sexually abuse children. Empirically, among child sexual abusers across multiple assessment approaches, a subgroup of between 20 and 50% can be classified as pedophilic (Schmidt et al.,
2013)."
There's more, but it's over the top enraging. Worse, it cites a study apparently sponsored by NIH that had a total sample size of about 900 individuals. According to my professional experience in statistical sampling, for a population the size of the U.S., [340M] the sample group must be a minimum 2,401 individuals, who must be drawn from a minimum 12,000 individuals asked to participate. These numbers are derived from a margin of error of ±2%, the maximum number that will hold the statistical data within a desired 6-sigma result. You will note if you're familiar will poll sampling that the typical moe os between ±3 to 4%; sometimes even larger than that. Pathetic.
