The text refers to God as many things including the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. I hope you don't think that that means that he was the exclusive God of those 3 characters and no one else.
The text distinguishes God from all sorts of other conceptions of God. The Egyptians had their own idea of God so when Moses speaks on God's behalf to Par'oh (Ex 5:1), Moses talks about the "God of the Israelites" not because there is more than one, but in order to endorse the distinct idea of God worshiped by the slaves to be set free.
So unless you are saying that there are many Gods (which you can say if you want), the label identifying a monotheistic God concept with one group can't be an exclusive label. How, if there is only one, can there be a different one for anyone else?
Deut 4:19 explains that God apportioned the sun. moon and stars to all the nations (so he isn't just setting things up for the Israeliets).
Isaiah 25:6 indicates that God will set up a future party for ALL people as soon as they recognize his rulership.
Isaiah 56:7 reports that the temple in Jerusalem is for sacrifices and prayers for people of ALL nations
I Kings 8:41-43 says that prayer to God by non-Jews is a good thing. If God was only the God of Israel, this wouldn't be true.
The claim was made, "The God of Israel is The God of All."
Your responses was "Get a Jew and a Hindu to support you."
I have covered the Jew part. Consider the claim supported.