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1472
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Topic
#5190

The Founder of Islam (Muhammed) was not a real Prophet.

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Finished

The debate is finished. The distribution of the voting points and the winner are presented below.

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After not so many votes...

It's a tie!
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4
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1500
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Description

This debate is on the topic of whether the Prophet of Islam was a true Prophet.

Definitions:
Prophet - a person who is an inspired teacher or proclaimer of the will of God.
(We will accept the notion that a God exist, therefore that is included with the definitions)

That is the only definition I feel I need to define for myself as of right now.

Format:
PRO Introductory Argument
CON Introductory Argument/Rebuttal

PRO Rebuttal
CON Rebuttal

PRO Rebuttal
CON Rebuttal

PRO Conclusionary Argument
CON Conclusionary Argument
(The conclusionary arguments WILL NOT be allowed any Rebuttals of any previous argument, simply a summary of your points, and arguments from both sides)

1 forfeit is allowed for both sides NOT INCLUDING the PRO Introductory Argument.

Round 1
Pro
#1
Thank you to my opponent aql_reason for accepting this debate.
I am hoping this will be a thought provoking and in-depth discussion. 

Introduction
The so called "Prophet" of Islam named Muhammed, claimed to have been given revelations from Allah (God) and decided to combine all of these revelations as what we know today as the Qur'an. 

I will be testing the "Prophet" of Islam on one simple possibility that we should consider. Now there are more possibilities than this, but for the sake of writing space, and time, I will be using only one. 




1. Human Origin
This revelation from the Prophet Muhammed could have gotten these revelations purely from himself and environmental situations. 
A lot of people throughout history claim to be getting revelations from God (Allah), when the messages are actually coming from their own minds. 

Now this doesn't mean that all people proven to be getting revelations from themselves, are intentionally making up revelations. They might actually believe they are Prophets, but the true origin doesn't go farther than their own imagination, their own desires, and their own beliefs and cultures. 

In many ways, Islam looks like a religion that came from the mind of a 7th century caravan trader (which was what Muhammed worked as). 
We can find the building blocks of Islam in the teachings and the practices of the people of and around Mecca, during the time of Muhammed.

1. Jewish Monotheism  
Jewish Monotheism (during the time of Muhammed) had already spread to Arabia. 
As well as this, Jews during this time had written story's that appear in the Talmud, such as Abraham being delivered from a fire, and a bird teaching Cane how to bury his brother. 
But now these stories appear in the Qur'an as "revelations from God"........... 

Christian Sources:
In the Qur'an there were also various teachings about Jesus and Mary that certain...........let's say interesting Christian groups believed things like:
Jesus speaking at Birth.
Jesus giving life to clay birds.
Mary giving birth under a palm tree.
Etc.

No historian on the planet believes that these late apocryphal stories are authentic, but we know that some Christians in Arabia were teaching these stories which ended up in the Qur'an.

Sabian Sources:
The Sabian's who are mentioned in the Qur'an prayed before dawn, before noon, before afternoon, and before sunset. After sunset they prayed at two additional times but five of their prayer times are now part of Islam.

Persian Sources:
Some of the Persians believed that after death a paradise of sensual delights awaited them complete with Houri (virgins in paradise). 
The virgins of the garden became the Muslim view of paradise.

Pagan Sources:
The pagans of Arabia (the polytheists) performed ablutions (ceremonial washings). They took the pilgrimage to Mecca and circled the Kaaba, and they kissed the black stone. These were all Pagan practices that were very dear to the polytheistic, idol worshipping, Arabs. Now they're part of Islam.


Now, if you take Jewish Monotheism and some fictitious tales from Jewish sources. The false (and sometimes heretical) stories of certain Christian groups. The Persian view of the afterlife. Some of the prayer times of the Sabian's, and the practices of the pagans and you mix it all together........you get Islam.

This doesn't look like something that came down from heaven. This is actually exactly the sort of religion we would expect to arise in 7th century Mecca. 




Self-serving Revelations:
Muhammed had many "revelations from God (Allah)" that seemed self-serving, almost as if he was getting these revelations, from his own twisted wants and desires. 


More Wives:
In Surah 4:3 it says:  
"And if you fear that you will not deal justly with the orphan girls, then marry those that please you of [other] women, two or three or four. But if you fear that you will not be just, then [marry only] one or those your right hands possess [i.e., slaves]. That is more suitable that you may not incline [to injustice]."
It says that Muslims can marry up to four women, but we know from history that Muhammad had a lot more than four wives.

We know from references in Bukhari that Muhammad had at least nine wives at one time. So, if the Quran says that men are allowed to have no more than four wives why did Muhammed get more? 

Well Muhammed justifies this in Surah 33:50 in which he received another revelation from Allah that gave him and him only special moral privileges. I think it is fair to say that it looks awfully suspicious when a prophet receives revelations that give him more sexual partners than anyone else.



According to the Qur'an (verse 37 of Al-Ahzab) Muhammad had an adopted son named Zayd who was called Zayd bin Muhammad. One day Muhammad went to visit him and was greeted by Zayd's wife, Zaynab who was one of the most beautiful women in Arabia and who was.......let's just say wearing very little clothing at the time.

According to Al-Tabari:
"She jumped up in haste and excited the admiration of the messenger of God so that he turned away murmuring something that could scarcely be understood however he did say overtly glory be to God the almighty glory be to God who causes hearts to turn!"

When Zayd found out that Muhammad was attracted to his wife he decided to divorce her so that Muhammad could have him could have her. Muhammad of course was worried about what people might think. So, he told Zayd to keep his wife, but by that time Zaynab had found out that Muhammad was attracted to her. So she began despising her husband.

Zayd (wanting to give his adopted father whatever he desired) divorced his wife.
Muhammad was still worried about what people might think if he married Zaynab, but then he began "receiving revelations" to justify the marriage
This revelation was received in Surah 33 verse 37, where it says:
"And [remember, O Muhammad], when you said to the one on whom Allah bestowed favor and you bestowed favor, "Keep your wife and fear Allah ," while you concealed within yourself that which Allah is to disclose. And you feared the people, while Allah has more right that you fear Him. So when Zayd had no longer any need for her, We married her to you in order that there not be upon the believers any discomfort concerning the wives of their adopted sons when they no longer have need of them. And ever is the command of Allah accomplished."
This revelation is illustrating that Muhammad had to marry Zaynab, so that other Muslims would understand that it's okay to marry the wives of your adopted son.

This is:
1. Concerningly self-serving.
2. Makes no sense.

2. Makes no sense-
Because, later in the Qur'an, we learn that Allah forbids adoption. So why would Allah give Muhammed a revelation to show people its ok to marry your adopted sons' wives, when in fact that situation will never come about again? Seems pretty self-serving to me. 




And there are many more examples I can elaborate on further in the debate. 
When it comes down to it, it sounds like the silly folk teachings of someone living in 7th Century Arabia. When we combine this with the fact that Muhammad plagiarized practically everything in his religion from Judaism, Christianity, and so on. As well as the fact that some of Muhammad's "revelations" have no purpose other than satisfying his desires.

I can't help but think that these so called "revelations" are all too human.



So therefore, we have more than enough evidence to prove that Muhammed's message/"revelations" was of his own 7th Century Meccan mind, not the words of God. Therefore, we can assume Muhammed is definitely not a Prophet of any religion. 
Con
#2
1. Jewish Monotheism  
Jewish Monotheism (during the time of Muhammed) had already spread to Arabia. 
As well as this, Jews during this time had written story's that appear in the Talmud, such as Abraham being delivered from a fire, and a bird teaching Cane how to bury his brother. 
But now these stories appear in the Qur'an as "revelations from God"........... 
Yes surprise. Ideas are spread across the globe. The same argument can be used to show that Judaism is not unique and borrowed from Zoroastrianism like the ideas of angels, heaven/hell, free will, etc. So what can we deduce about Judaism based on this argument? Is it the copy past of Zoroastrianism? 

Christian Sources:
No historian on the planet believes that these late apocryphal stories are authentic, but we know that some Christians in Arabia were teaching these stories which ended up in the Qur'an.
Yes we also know that there were Persians, Jews, pagans trading in Arabia influencing their ideas. Can we also then conclude that Christianity is copy past of all these ideas. Well it certainly seems so since Christianity also has pagan roots in its holidays. 

The Sabian's who are mentioned in the Qur'an prayed before dawn, before noon, before afternoon, and before sunset. After sunset they prayed at two additional times but five of their prayer times are now part of Islam.
Prayer predates Islam, Christianity, and Judaism. So I guess they all copied Sabians too. 
Some of the Persians believed that after death a paradise of sensual delights awaited them complete with Houri (virgins in paradise). 
The virgins of the garden became the Muslim view of paradise.
Persians also believed in Zoroastrianism which was the first prophet to introduce the concept of heaven/hell. This is similar to the Christian view of having afterlife. 
The pagans of Arabia (the polytheists) performed ablutions (ceremonial washings). They took the pilgrimage to Mecca and circled the Kaaba, and they kissed the black stone. These were all Pagan practices that were very dear to the polytheistic, idol worshipping, Arabs. Now they're part of Islam.
Yes the Kaaba had idols. Pagans circled the Kaaba. Now Muslims do it. What changed? The intention. Every religion has pagan undertones because pagans were present (a majority) and their customs were the norm. It's not specific to Islam. 
Now, if you take Jewish Monotheism and some fictitious tales from Jewish sources. The false (and sometimes heretical) stories of certain Christian groups. The Persian view of the afterlife. Some of the prayer times of the Sabian's, and the practices of the pagans and you mix it all together........you get Islam.

This doesn't look like something that came down from heaven. This is actually exactly the sort of religion we would expect to arise in 7th century Mecca. 
Now if you take Zoroastrian Monotheism and some fictatious tales about angels and demons. The false (and sometimes heretical) stories of certain pagan groups. The Persian view of after. Some of the prayers of zoroastrianism, and the practices of pagans and you mix it all together....you get religion (Judaism, Zoroastrianism, Chrisanity, and Islam) 

This is actually exactly the sort of religion we would except to arise in 1st century Bethelem. 

Your arguments can easily be used to argue the opposite, hence they are weak. 
Well Muhammed justifies this in Surah 33:50 in which he received another revelation from Allah that gave him and him only special moral privileges. I think it is fair to say that it looks awfully suspicious when a prophet receives revelations that give him more sexual partners than anyone else.
His marriages were for political gain i.e to gain favor with other tribes. Is there something immoral about that? Should Muhammad have been a monk? 
Because, later in the Qur'an, we learn that Allah forbids adoption. So why would Allah give Muhammed a revelation to show people its ok to marry your adopted sons' wives, when in fact that situation will never come about again? Seems pretty self-serving to me. 
Your assumptions are wrong hence conclusion doesn't follow. Adoption is allowed in Islam but not legal status of adoption (changing ones original name). The story (him being shocked by her beauty or wearing little clothing) you mentioned is rejected by many Muslim scholars because of lack of chain of narrations and its not an authentic hadith. Take historical sources seriously in debate. 

I can't help but think that these so called "revelations" are all too human.
In the start you say how Muhammad was trying to fulfill his desires. Now lets see some of these impermissble manly desires. He banned alcohol. Pagans of Arabia loved alchohol and that's the one thing they took from Christian arabs. He banned usury. Not all men love this especially powerful men (Muhammad was a powerful man). He banned masturbation. Another desire. He banned gambling. Another desire loved by men in power. He told all women (slave and nonslave) to observe Hijab. People of that time and this time do not like this ruling. They love the lack of hijab and ability to see women not married to them how they please. There are many more things. So your arguments don't hold. 


So therefore, we have more than enough evidence to prove that Muhammed's message/"revelations" was of his own 7th Century Meccan mind, not the words of God. Therefore, we can assume Muhammed is definitely not a Prophet of any religion. 
Half of your evidence is being used against your own religion (Christianity). The other half is not even considered "evidence". The last part about "desires" that's not a strong argument either. Try again. 
Round 2
Pro
#3
Thank you CON for making a fascinating case against my introduction. 
This is my rebuttal round, so I will not be making any "new" arguments unprovoked.


Rebuttals:
This is CONS response to my contention, that Islamic tradition and scripture derives from Judeo-Christian practices: 
Yes surprise. Ideas are spread across the globe. The same argument can be used to show that Judaism is not unique and borrowed from Zoroastrianism like the ideas of angels, heaven/hell, free will, etc. So what can we deduce about Judaism based on this argument? Is it the copy past of Zoroastrianism? 
Fair point, however, I am not obliged to defend Judaism, or Christianity in this debate. My only job is to point out Islams flaws, and it's "prophets claims." 
So, to be fair, you could say the same for Judaism, and Christianity, but it doesn't negate my point. 

Yes we also know that there were Persians, Jews, pagans trading in Arabia influencing their ideas. Can we also then conclude that Christianity is copy past of all these ideas. Well it certainly seems so since Christianity also has pagan roots in its holidays. 
Pagan traditions being used in Christianity is another debate for another time, that I would happily accept. 
However, as I stated above, this does not negate my point. 
We are discussing Islam's roots. And I am making the point that Islams roots are highly rooted in Christain, Judeo, Pagan, and Sabian traditions. 

Prayer predates Islam, Christianity, and Judaism. So I guess they all copied Sabians too. 
This is a clear example of you taking what I said out of context. I am not making the claim that prayer as a practice is something that Islam has taken from other cultures or religions. 

I am pointing out the fact that the specific prayer times used by the Sabian in Arabia, around the time of Muhammed, is now used in the religion that Muhammed founded. 
And Muhammed clearly in the Qur'an is claiming these specific prayer times were given to Muhammed by origin of Allah (God), but we see very compelling evidence otherwise. 

Persians also believed in Zoroastrianism which was the first prophet to introduce the concept of heaven/hell. This is similar to the Christian view of having afterlife. 
Cool. Again, doesn't negate my point. 

Yes the Kaaba had idols. Pagans circled the Kaaba. Now Muslims do it. What changed? The intention. Every religion has pagan undertones because pagans were present (a majority) and their customs were the norm. It's not specific to Islam. 
Ok. I am not arguing that only the Islamic "prophet" is not a real prophet. I am only talking about Muhammed, simply because of the context of the debate's description and title. 

So, you actually conceded to my point in this response. 

Now if you take Zoroastrian Monotheism and some fictatious tales about angels and demons. The false (and sometimes heretical) stories of certain pagan groups. The Persian view of after. Some of the prayers of zoroastrianism, and the practices of pagans and you mix it all together....you get religion (Judaism, Zoroastrianism, Chrisanity, and Islam) 

This is actually exactly the sort of religion we would except to arise in 1st century Bethelem. 

Your arguments can easily be used to argue the opposite, hence they are weak. 
But it is not my BOP to defend the opposite religions, nor is it yours to accuse the opposite religions. 
So, while you may be making a fair point, it serves no purpose to your argument. 


This is CONS response to my contention, that Muhammeds actions in the Qur'an were more self-serving than revelations:
His marriages were for political gain i.e to gain favor with other tribes.  Is there something immoral about that?
Debatable, but:
Thats not my point on whether it is immoral or not. 

I am simply laying out the fact that Muhammed's "revelations from Allah (God)" are clearly shown as self-serving, so why should we conclude that Muhammed is a "Prophet of God" if his "revelations" clearly serve obvious human desires.

Again, like I said in my introduction: 
"A lot of people throughout history claim to be getting revelations from God (Allah), when the messages are actually coming from their own minds."

Should Muhammad have been a monk? 
Well, Muhammed is (according to Islam) supposed to be the pattern of conduct for all Muslims, so if he were to do something immoral, that would contradict his teachings. 

Your assumptions are wrong hence conclusion doesn't follow. Adoption is allowed in Islam but not legal status of adoption (changing ones original name).
Ok good point. And again, I apologize for any assumption about adoption in Islam.
But don't you think it is strange that Allah "gives Muhammed" a "revelation" in order to show any other Muslims that marrying your adopted sons, wives is permissible, when that situation is not a likely scenario? 

The story (him being shocked by her beauty or wearing little clothing) you mentioned is rejected by many Muslim scholars because of lack of chain of narrations and its not an authentic hadith. Take historical sources seriously in debate. 
Ok, that's a fair point, but whether or not she was legitimately wearing little clothing, my point still holds its purpose. 

In the start you say how Muhammad was trying to fulfill his desires. Now lets see some of these impermissble manly desires. He banned alcohol. Pagans of Arabia loved alchohol and that's the one thing they took from Christian arabs. He banned usury. Not all men love this especially powerful men (Muhammad was a powerful man). He banned masturbation. Another desire. He banned gambling. Another desire loved by men in power. He told all women (slave and nonslave) to observe Hijab. People of that time and this time do not like this ruling. They love the lack of hijab and ability to see women not married to them how they please. There are many more things. So your arguments don't hold. 
Muhammed also:
Made violence permissible (human sinful desire).
Made pedophilia permissible (human sinful desire).
Made sex slavery permissible (human sinful desire).
Made polygamy permissible (human sinful desire).
Made violence against women permissible (not necessarily a human desire, but a sin).


In conclusion:
Many of Muhammed's actions and "revelations from Allah (God)" were very reminiscing of sinful desires that you would see in any type of person, especially a person living in Arabia during that time. 

Yes, Muhammed instated some good rules and morals for Islam, but the good don't outweigh the bad. Even fake Prophets can say good things. 

In order to conclude if Muhammed was a Prophet or not, we need to look into his life, his teachings, his surroundings, what influenced him etc. 
And I have concluded that according to Islamic sources, and historical sources:
According to the culture and region of Arabia, Muhammed was a man, influenced by Judeo-Christain, Pagan, and Serbian cultures and traditions, and in order to gain some sort of "power" or "acknowledgement", he took a bunch of these traditions, and claimed them to be Islamic, while they had no tie to anything other than their original owners. This is exactly the type of thing we could expect to originate from Arabia Durgin this time. So, how does CON rebuttal this fact?

If we are to believe that someone gets special incite, rules, regulations, and traditions from God and God commands this person to lead others, it should follow logically that God gives this anointed person special divine original revelations. 

My Opponent only has combated some of my points but has conceded to my points about Islams traditions origins.  
He has tried to use my faith and others faith as a defense tool against these attacks, but I will remind him that we are not talking about Islam v.s. other Religions. I am only critiquing Islam. It is CONS job to defend against these claims.
Con
#4
Fair point, however, I am not obliged to defend Judaism, or Christianity in this debate. My only job is to point out Islams flaws, and it's "prophets claims." 
So, to be fair, you could say the same for Judaism, and Christianity, but it doesn't negate my point. 
It shows that your argument lies on false assumptions.
This is your argument,
- A true religion doesn't borrow ideas from others
- Muhammad, the founder of the religion borrowed ideas
- Therefore, Muhammad did not have a true religion

Your assumption is wrong. Borrowing ideas doesn't negate of truth.

Quran affirms all past religions come from one source i.e God which is why were are the same. When Quran refers to Islam it doesn't mean the Islam followed today so the Jews, Christians, Sabians, Zoroastrians were all followers of Islam (submission to One God). If that was not the case it would contradict God being all-good and just meaning all people before Islam would have been with a lost message or in hell. 

We are discussing Islam's roots. And I am making the point that Islams roots are highly rooted in Christain, Judeo, Pagan, and Sabian traditions. 
Islam has no problem with such claims. Neither do those claims contradict Islam. Above. 
I am pointing out the fact that the specific prayer times used by the Sabian in Arabia, around the time of Muhammed, is now used in the religion that Muhammed founded. 
And Muhammed clearly in the Qur'an is claiming these specific prayer times were given to Muhammed by origin of Allah (God), but we see very compelling evidence otherwise. 
What is the problem with the evidence? The Sabians are accepted in Islam. There is no contradiction here. Quran says God sent 124,000 prophets for all communities and nations so not a single person would leave the earth without hearing the belief of one God. God favored all people not just Muslims. He favored the Jews first, then the Christians, then the Muslims to preserve his message. 

Ok. I am not arguing that only the Islamic "prophet" is not a real prophet. I am only talking about Muhammed, simply because of the context of the debate's description and title. 
It doesn't negate prophethood. We don't use the arguments you are posing to show anyone is a valid prophet or not. Plus, it is not 100% copy paste. Islam added its own ideas like showing how all prophets are infallible. Unlike the Bible where prophets are shown to make mistakes. So event that point doesn't hold. 

But it is not my BOP to defend the opposite religions, nor is it yours to accuse the opposite religions. 
So, while you may be making a fair point, it serves no purpose to your argument. 
The purpose it serves is to a) show the assumption is invalid as above b) Quran i.e Muhammad affirms it himself that this is the case and b) it doesnt negate prophethood of any X religion 

I am simply laying out the fact that Muhammed's "revelations from Allah (God)" are clearly shown as self-serving, so why should we conclude that Muhammed is a "Prophet of God" if his "revelations" clearly serve obvious human desires.
Again, like I said in my introduction: 
"A lot of people throughout history claim to be getting revelations from God (Allah), when the messages are actually coming from their own minds."
Sure but  "coming from desires" is not a good argument because you can be disproven by counter-example. If Muhammad was a regular man and he did everything based on desires then your point would hold more. Desires are common among all men so why did he go against desires that were not common (like banning alcohol) which all other religions were ok with it. So this is not a good argument.
Why did he show in the Quran that all prophets have to be infallible. Muhammad should have went the route of the Bible and Torah and say "no actually they can make a few sins here and there". That would have made his life easier. Why set such high standards for himself when he clearly would not have been objected too if he did otherwise? 

Well, Muhammed is (according to Islam) supposed to be the pattern of conduct for all Muslims, so if he were to do something immoral, that would contradict his teachings. 
Right he set the standard way too high for himself if he was a false prophet. 

But don't you think it is strange that Allah "gives Muhammed" a "revelation" in order to show any other Muslims that marrying your adopted sons, wives is permissible, when that situation is not a likely scenario? 
It is a likely scenario because it was the custom of that time. If you read the link on Zaynab it shows how Muhammad rejected the custom of his time.

Pre-Islamic custom disapproved of marriage between a man and his adopted son's former wife. (Zaynab bint Jahsh, wikipedia)
Arab society would have viewed this union as profoundly wrong, because it was considered an adopted son was truly a "son".

After marriage the sponsored children lost their inheritance rights and were known as the children of biological parents. The sponsored children after attaining puberty could not live with the sponsor family. The sponsored children were funded after puberty. The purpose was to reduce enmity of biological children towards sponsored children and to prevent mingling of a male sponsor with an adult sponsored female.

Another point of contention to the "desires" argument is why did make a religion which rejected many of his own tribes teachings: Quraysh. He rejected the burial of female infants. It was not common but Arabs of the time did not say much against it. These things along others made him an outcast for the majority of his life until he was eventually able to fight back. 


Muhammed also:
Made violence permissible (human sinful desire).
Made pedophilia permissible (human sinful desire).
Made sex slavery permissible (human sinful desire).
Made polygamy permissible (human sinful desire).
Made violence against women permissible (not necessarily a human desire, but a sin).
You say you are not here to defend Christianity yet you put "sinful" as criteria. I don't care what religion you are defending whether it be one made up now or Christianity but you are holding Christian apologetics i.e western/liberal moral framework here. 

- What human desires to be violent? Violence is allowed when necessary. It's inhuman to be a pacifist. 
- I already made my argument for this in another debate showing how child marriage is beneficial. Making children wait until an arbitary age of consent (perhaps up to 7 years) is against basic desires. Allowing children to marry (both boys and girls) is better than engaging in sex outside marriage (sinful) 
- Slavery was common for all times. Islam wasn't there to abolish it. It did recommend freeing slaves. It came there to regulate slavery.
- Polygamy is not a "sinful" desire it is beneficial for both parties not just men. The Quran recommends to marry one wife and if they want to marry more, men have to provide each wife a roof over their head. This is only the case for a few men. Also, polygamy was the norm because life expectancy was low and many men died in wars. On top of that, women in Islam can put in their marriage contract whether they will allow another wife. This goes against your idea that polygamy only gives favor to men or average Arab in pagan Arabia. 
- Violence against men is also permissible. Women can hit men too. This is not a sin.Idk understand your argument here. 

If we are to believe that someone gets special incite, rules, regulations, and traditions from God and God commands this person to lead others, it should follow logically that God gives this anointed person special divine original revelations. 
Original ideas are all from God. God is the source of all "true" religions. So this is not a point of contention. Islams originality is that its consistent and contains no contradictions unlike other past religions.
He has tried to use my faith and others faith as a defense tool against these attacks, but I will remind him that we are not talking about Islam v.s. other Religions. I am only critiquing Islam. It is CONS job to defend against these claims.
I have defended all of them. Your assumptions are false about Gods message so the conclusion does not follow. You have two arguments
a) copy pasting is not good -> I proved that his is necessarily bad, and Islam did have its original ideas so its not purely copy paste. Neither is borrowing ideas good
b) you talked about "desires" -> I showed most of the things that Muhammad did were against desires of his time. However not against all desires becauseIslam is a moderate religion and compromises on desires. It doesnt go the extreme route and claim that desires are all bad. 
Round 3
Pro
#5
Thank you to my opponent for responding to my previous argument.
Let's continue with our rebuttal

Rebuttal:
It shows that your argument lies on false assumptions.
This is your argument,
- A true religion doesn't borrow ideas from others
- Muhammad, the founder of the religion borrowed ideas
- Therefore, Muhammad did not have a true religion

Your assumption is wrong. Borrowing ideas doesn't negate of truth.
1. You are making a false assumption (straw man).
I never said that "a true religion doesn't borrow ideas from others." That is not what I am claiming at all.
I am not making the claim that Islam is not a true religion of the world. 

I am making the claim that The "Prophet" Muhammad is not a true prophet. 
Again, let me restate the definition of prophet I provided, that you conceded to:
"Prophet - a person who is an inspired teacher or pro-claimer of the will of God."

We already agree that there is a God. So that isn't where the conflict arises. 
I am claiming that he is not an inspired teacher of the will or pro-claimer of the will of God.

I am making the argument that based upon cultural influences, and personal gain, he is not an inspired teacher or pro-claimer of the will of God, but instead a pro-claimer of the will of himself. 

Quran affirms all past religions come from one source i.e God which is why were are the same.
False. The Bible and the Qur'an contradict each other in many ways. We are not the same in the slightest. We can only agree on the premise of God.

When Quran refers to Islam it doesn't mean the Islam followed today so the Jews, Christians, Sabians, Zoroastrians were all followers of Islam (submission to One God). If that was not the case it would contradict God being all-good and just meaning all people before Islam would have been with a lost message or in hell. 
Really? 
Islam is based off of the Qur'an. 
Islam didn't exist before the Qur'an. 

The actual Arabic translation for the word "Islam" is not "submission to God". It means "submission". 
Even if you wanted to define Islam as "submission to God" you couldn't call Jews, Christians, Sabians, or Zoroastrians follower of Islam because that would mean:
"Followers of submission to God?"

But your definition is wrong. Islam means submission. The "to God" part is added in when talking about the Islamic religion. 
So Jews, Christians, Sabians, or Zoroastrians, are not followers to submission. You are making a false assumption. 

Islam has no problem with such claims. Neither do those claims contradict Islam. Above. 
Well, it kind of does. Maybe not Islam, but your "prophet" definitely. 

If your "prophet" used Judaeo-Christian, Sabian, Pagan, and other religious practices to found his religion, then that is a big problem for someone who claims to be getting these laws from God, when they clearly exist before he got the "revelation". 

What is the problem with the evidence? The Sabians are accepted in Islam. There is no contradiction here. Quran says God sent 124,000 prophets for all communities and nations so not a single person would leave the earth without hearing the belief of one God. God favored all people not just Muslims. He favored the Jews first, then the Christians, then the Muslims to preserve his message. 
Surah Ali 'Imran - 85:
"Whoever seeks a way other than Islam, it will never be accepted from them, and in the Hereafter they will be among the losers."

Again, like we established before, Sabians are not followers of Islam. It doesn't make sense in the slightest.

You are making the claim:
That God sent 124,000 prophets for all communities and nations, so not a single person would leave the earth without hearing the belief of one God. You include Jews and Christians among these people. However the Bible, Torah, and Gospels contradict the Qur'an to a T. 

So that is an illogical claim.

It doesn't negate prophethood. We don't use the arguments you are posing to show anyone is a valid prophet or not. Plus, it is not 100% copy paste. Islam added its own ideas like showing how all prophets are infallible. Unlike the Bible where prophets are shown to make mistakes. So event that point doesn't hold. 
You just made it harder for yourself......
You just claimed that all prophets of Islam are infallible, yet in the Qur'an Muhammad sinned. 


Qur'an 40:55:   
Therefore have patience; God’s promise is surely true. Implore forgiveness for your sins, and celebrate the praise of your Lord evening and morning.
Qur'an 48:2: ... so that God may forgive you your past and future sins, and perfect His goodness to you;
 Quran 47:19: "Know that there is no deity but God. Implore Him to forgive your sins and to forgive the true believers, men and women. God knows your busy haunts and resting places."

So know (O Muhammad) that there is no God save Allah, and ask forgiveness for thy sin and for believing men and believing women. Allah knoweth (both) your place of turmoil and your place of rest."

"Know thou therefore that there is no god but God, and ask forgiveness for thy sin, and for the believers, men and women. God knows your going to and fro, and your lodging."

"Know, then, that there is no god but God; and ask pardon for thy sin, and for believers, both men and women. God knows your busy movements and your final resting places."

"Know therefore that there is no god but Allah and ask forgiveness for the fault and for the men and women who believe: for Allah knows how ye move about and how ye dwell in your homes." 


So........if Islam claims that the prophets are infallible then that means that Islam also concedes that Muhammad was not a prophet. 

Sure but  "coming from desires" is not a good argument because you can be disproven by counter-example. If Muhammad was a regular man and he did everything based on desires then your point would hold more. Desires are common among all men so why did he go against desires that were not common (like banning alcohol) which all other religions were ok with it. So this is not a good argument.
I am not saying that he did everything based on desires. Another straw man. 

I am saying that he used fake"revelations from Allah (God)" to justify certain desires that he had. 

I am not saying that he didn't make rules for Islam that went against the desires of men. 

Why did he show in the Quran that all prophets have to be infallible. Muhammad should have went the route of the Bible and Torah and say "no actually they can make a few sins here and there". That would have made his life easier. Why set such high standards for himself when he clearly would not have been objected too if he did otherwise? 
But he did sin. 

Right he set the standard way too high for himself if he was a false prophet. 
Can you restate this in a more understandable way?

You say you are not here to defend Christianity yet you put "sinful" as criteria. I don't care what religion you are defending whether it be one made up now or Christianity but you are holding Christian apologetics i.e western/liberal moral framework here. 

- What human desires to be violent? Violence is allowed when necessary. It's inhuman to be a pacifist. 
- I already made my argument for this in another debate showing how child marriage is beneficial. Making children wait until an arbitary age of consent (perhaps up to 7 years) is against basic desires. Allowing children to marry (both boys and girls) is better than engaging in sex outside marriage (sinful) 
- Slavery was common for all times. Islam wasn't there to abolish it. It did recommend freeing slaves. It came there to regulate slavery.
- Polygamy is not a "sinful" desire it is beneficial for both parties not just men. The Quran recommends to marry one wife and if they want to marry more, men have to provide each wife a roof over their head. This is only the case for a few men. Also, polygamy was the norm because life expectancy was low and many men died in wars. On top of that, women in Islam can put in their marriage contract whether they will allow another wife. This goes against your idea that polygamy only gives favor to men or average Arab in pagan Arabia. 
Sorry, I should have said it differently:
Murder is permissible in Islam (according to Muhammad's actions).
Pedophilia is permissible in Islam. There is no justification for it and if you want to debate on that, we can do it separately. 
Sex Slavery is permissible in Islam. Not just slavery. Sex Slavery.
Polygamy is debatable.

- Violence against men is also permissible. Women can hit men too. This is not a sin.Idk understand your argument here. 
Yes, because in Islam, everyone is just hitting each other all the time. 

Original ideas are all from God. God is the source of all "true" religions. So this is not a point of contention.
There is no such thing as true religions plural. 
Every religion contradicts each other. Therefore not all religions (ways of interpreting God) is true.

Islams originality is that its consistent and contains no contradictions unlike other past religions.
This is undeniably false. I could show you countless contradictions in the Qur'an, but again, that is a debate for another time.

Either way we so far have not seen a defense for the Prophet Muhammad against these claims against him. Only defense of Islam. 
So CON still needs to address the problem of Muhammad. 





Con
#6
Forfeited
Round 4
Pro
#7
My opponent has decided to exercise their 1 forfeit.
I will now be making my conclusion argument.  

I started off, with 2 main points with many sub-points.
Those include:

Human Origin

Self-serving Revelations


I believe I have represented these points fairly and honestly. 
I even conceded to the adoption argument. 

CON only refuted the fact that other religions also use other influences in their practices and attacked Christain morals (my personal faith). 

This debate has had nothing to do with what other religions do, and my personal morals in my personal faith. 
This was a debate about whether or not the "prophet" Muhammed was an actual Prophet or not. 

According to the definition:
 a person who is an inspired teacher or proclaimer of the will of God.

I believe I have refuted this by showing that the "prophet" Muhammeds "revelations" from God, did not come from God, but came from:
Human Origins
Self-Serving reasons
Con
#8
Forfeited