Instigator / Pro
28
1504
rating
4
debates
62.5%
won
Topic

According to the bible, Is fatalism valid?

Status
Finished

All stages have been completed. The voting points distribution and the result are presented below.

Arguments points
12
3
Sources points
8
4
Spelling and grammar points
4
4
Conduct points
4
2

With 4 votes and 15 points ahead, the winner is ...

Melcharaz
Parameters
More details
Publication date
Last update date
Category
Religion
Time for argument
One day
Voting system
Open voting
Voting period
Two weeks
Point system
Four points
Rating mode
Rated
Characters per argument
30,000
Contender / Con
13
1489
rating
3
debates
33.33%
won
Description
~ 0 / 5,000

No information

Round 1
Pro
This should be interesting!   I'll go ahead and link scripture that supports the idea of fatalism.
Ephesians 1:4-13
Romans 8:28-30  9:10-23
Colossians 1:12-23
1 Peter 1:2
2 Thessalonians 2:12-17

why wasn't it talked about in the old testament by prophets?
Proverbs 16:4
1 Corinthians 2:6-15
1 Peter 1:18-20

Why is this doctrine often misunderstood or disliked?

There are many reasons why its not liked, Most people just don't agree with the bible and its precepts, people that do often don't like the idea that they are going to hell whether they will it or not, but that's a misunderstanding, we all have a choice in whether we serve God or not, Just because God already knows and has predestined that we won't make it doesn't make him the bad guy for you choosing to disobey in the first place. 

Its often misunderstood because there is a difference between prescribed will and God's ultimate Goal.  I however, have a hard time explaining that myself, If any are interested i would suggest watching Dr James white and his videos regarding predestination where he goes into depth about the will of God and its timing.

I invite voters to keep an eye on my spelling, often i misspell things.

I look forward to Contester's rebuttal!
Con
The debate's subject is "Is fatalism valid, according to the Bible".

I will just blanket acknowledge that the Bible has verses that can be interpreted to support both free will and fatalism; I have no contentions with the existence of the scriptural support.

My contentions are whether or not fatalism in the Bible is "valid"; valid meaning true or logical. I would argue that it is impossible to logically have both fatalism and free will simultaneously, because they are dichotomous by definition. If one exists, the other cannot.

fatalism: the belief that all events are predetermined and therefore inevitable.
free will: the power of acting without the constraint of necessity or fate; the ability to act at one's own discretion.
omniscient: knowing everything.

Prescribed will is not the same thing as fatalism. My opponent made the mistake of equivocating them in his opening argument.

The Bible heavily advocates for the existence of free will; without free will, original sin is void, Hell is a predestined inescapable consequence of death, etc.

God cannot logically know the future (omniscience/fatalism) if humans are agents of free will, because the future is a compounded set of free-will based decisions that have not been decided yet.

Fatalism and free will are mutually exclusive, and the Bible illogically proposes both coexist. This claim is obviously impossible. Because of it, fatalism in the Bible cannot be considered valid without obliterating Christianity.
Round 2
Pro
I will just blanket acknowledge that the Bible has verses that can be interpreted to support both free will and fatalism; I have no contentions with the existence of the scriptural support.

Then we are done, I am not here to debate logical validity of fatalism. I am here to ask if according to the bible it is valid.
Con
What do you even mean when you say "is it valid". Explain please. Examples too.
Round 3
Pro
in this context, grounded or sound.  an established doctrine in the scriptures.  Also if you are going to argue free will and fatalism cannot go together, please use scriptural support to show this. 

Con
Anything can be "interpetable" from the Bible.

Why do I need to use scriptural support? I already proved they are incompatible and it's invalid to have them both coexist. You conceded that point, so I win.