Yes, inflation is expressed as a percentage increase, and no, that doesn't change the fact that a sales tax is a regressive tax.
I'm not following. Is a sales tax not effectively inflating the price of all goods? If the burden of permanent inflation is proportional to income, why isn't the same true for a sales tax?
The economics world just doesn't understand economics.
I don't know if I'm missing something, but I've explained why the burden of a sales tax is proportional to income. It seems to me that you haven't explained why you believe it would be regressive.
I get it, the mantra "money exists to be spent" is a principle of faith for you, but the idea that all money is spent on sales taxable consumption is an absurd fantasy
Why is this an absurd fantasy? I'm open to hearing your opinions, but I have trouble following what your logic is, beyond potential loopholes, which I've already acknowledged that a tax ought to account for.
Money that is never used is worthless, since it doesn't serve the main purpose of money: spending. If I threw paint on 50% of your money and ruined it, you would be 50% poorer. You still have the same amount of bills, but your purchasing power has been cut in half since you can only spend half as much. That's kind of what a sales tax does in raising all prices by some percentage.