I have included that scenario in the argument if he chooses to address it. See below:
1) Establish that it is REASONABLE and LOGICAL to believe these prophecies were written AFTER the EVENT of the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple.
You are avoiding your burden. If you believe prophecy is fulfilled, then you necessarily need to establish the verses (where this alleged prophecy is found) were written before the events they are said to predict. - YOU
No, I already listed the prophetic verses - the Olivet Discourse as written in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and Revelation. I believe that Revelation is John's version of the Discourse. (That is a topic for another time)
Luke 21:5 And while some were talking about the temple, that it was adorned with beautiful stones and votive gifts, He said, 6 “As for these things which you are looking at, the days will come in which there will not be left one stone upon another which will not be torn down.”
20 “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then recognize that her desolation is near. 21 Then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains, and those who are in the midst of the city must leave, and those who are in the country must not enter the city; 22 because these are days of vengeance, so that all things which are written will be fulfilled. 23 Woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days; for there will be great distress upon the land and wrath to this people; 24 and they will fall by the edge of the sword, and will be led captive into all the nations; and Jerusalem will be trampled under foot by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.
The Discourse speaks of the destruction of Jerusalem. Nowhere in the NT are we ever told of the already destruction. For a people steeped in OT ritual, this is highly significant. Their whole life revolved around temple worship and animal sacrifice via the priesthood. We continue to see the mention of this ritual system throughout the NT as still in existence. We continue to see/understand the priesthood in operation. We continue to see the warnings to escape from the come wrath, the day of the Lord, the end of the age.
We KNOW that in AD 70 the city and temple were destroyed by the Roman armies that had surrounded the city. We know that the OT people operated under the Mosaic Law and covenant. After AD 70 this covenant and its laws can no longer be met. We know that there is no more animal sacrifice, no more priesthood, no more temple, and that the curses of Deuteronomy 28 have been poured out on this people, as per the numerous warning in the OT and NT, which meets with the statement, "days of vengeance" and great distress upon the land and people so that everything yet unfulfilled would be fulfilled.
If you dispute the NT was written after the fact, or prophecy inserted after the fact, then provide proof/evidence that this was done. Otherwise how reasonable are your assertions?
As Christians, we have ancient manuscripts that record these prophecies. What is the earliest evidence you have that states they were inserted after the fact?
As Christians, we have testimony from eyewitnesses and artifacts (i.e., Josephus; the destruction of the city) that state these things will happen/happened. What evidence do you have that state otherwise, from an early date?
The OT looks forward to the time of the Messiah and God's judgment for unfaithfulness. What evidence do you have these OT documents were written after the fact (i.e., the destruction of city and temple and punishment on this OT people)?