-->
@rosends
Consider that, again, the germane conversation took place 15th century BCE, and the oldest extant Greek texts [the Septuagint] to which Mopac refers, date from about 300 BCE let alone ancient Hebrew allegedly written by Moses, 1,200 years before, of which we have no sample at all [our best source is about 800 BCE], you will be unsuccessful to discover an original source, Greek or Hebrew, from which to draw the translation variance - if there is one - you seek.
Further, please understand that translation, language to language, is made more difficult by the fact that culture begets language. If an alleged translator does not understand the ancient culture from which translation is done, the translation will be flawed. Translation is, more than anything else, a dictionary-to-dictionary effort. Dictionaries do a historically poor job of teaching culture. Therefore, the translation, even by an expert linguist, so to speak, may be flawed if that linguist lacks a firm understanding of the translation-from culture, or his own, for that matter. Add to that the guesswork that will always be a factor for that lack, or, in fact, an alternate motivation to accurate translation if the translator seeks to deceive. It happens. Add the factor of still another translation from the Greek to English, for example, and you've just doubled, at least, your translation woes. I speak and read four languages fluently, plus a fluency in reading Egyptian hieroglyphs, so the above is not mere theory.
