I've been mulling over a curious question and perused the internet for information but only found surface level answers thus far and am curious if the religious knowledge of the folks here have anything to add.
(KJV) Matthew 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
So I personally own a Strong's Concordance of the Bible and its a great resource as anyone who has used it knows. Most any time I come across something in the Bible I find curious I run to my concordance, do a quick translation back to Hebrew or Greek as well as search the roots of the words to try and fully understand the passage. I recommend doing this for anyone going through the Bible, it's exceptionally educational and for me, spiritual. Anyway. This particular phrasing, specifically when he says "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" is a very strange phrase to find. First, the entirety of the New Testament is classically Greek and the Bible Hebrew. This phrase, while if a quote could make sense if Hebrew, is Aramaic. While the languages are similar, the meanings of words do come with slight variations. Such as "sabachthani" is meant to say what is similar to the English forsaken in Hebrew, specifically meaning to be left or abandoned in a particular place whereas for English we use forsaken in an emotional context to say that someone has broken a bond with you. The Aramaic translation is much closer to English, being more closely associated with emotional abandonment rather than a geographical one. As I am trying to understand the meaning of this verse, ultimately the feeling that I might believe Christ is trying to convey is one of loneliness to his father and rather than saying "why'd you betray me dad" he's communicating "why have I been left here" as now at this point everyone has left him there or expects him to die. Either way is sad, but one reflects differently on the character of God and Christ vs the other. If you view it as an emotional forsaken, God's perfect character seems thrown into jeopardy as he would never truly forsake anyone, including his son. As a perfect father he would never abandon Christ. Yet Christ, also meant to be perfect, could be taken here to be questioning his father which would be a form of griping or complaining. While I don't think anyone would count this against him having been whipped, beaten, nailed to cross, and slowly dying in front of his family and friends it would throw some doubt on the nature of his character if taken in the Aramaic or English sense. It truly makes no sense to me. I don't understand why this, and only this phrase is Aramaic in the New Testament and why use that language instead of Hebrew which Christ almost certainly would have spoken instead. It is similar to if I go to a Trump rally as a Russian speaker, transcribe everything into Russian but then keep one phrase in Spanish and translate that back to Russian. I just don't get it. That said, there are plenty of places where the Bible doesn't make total sense which is why I don't believe in biblical inerrancy so normally I'll take what is good and move on. For some reason though this passage continues to be one that I chew on and haven't had a satisfactory answer yet. If anyone has any insight or other source I haven't seen yet I am open to it.