PGA2.0's avatar

PGA2.0

A member since

3
5
8

Total posts: 3,179

Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@FLRW
My cats and dogs are atheists and they seem pretty happy. They seem pretty moral to each other also.
And when was the last conversation you had with them on moral justice in the cat and dog community? How much have they pondered the idea of justice among cats and dogs? What do they think about the subject of capital punishment? What are their favourite books to read? What have they written on the subject that expresses their instincts are anything more than that? And when was the last time you caught your dogs playing the piano? Did you scold them for missing a note? Have they reasoned lately to you about their thoughts on God? Did they express why they rejected Him? 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Show me you have a fixed standard that is objective or don't call what you believe moral.
I point you to the Ten Commandments. That is the standard from which we derive many other laws for the principles focus on love for God and love for neighbour. We are not showing love when we harm our neighbours. But what does that mean outside of a fixed, final standard or measure? It would be relative and subjective. Because of that such a system of thought is incapable of providing a fixed and necessary standard. Remember, I have asked SkepticalOne to provide one since he stated he has one. I am still waiting.

I can only point you to what is necessary for morality and ask you if your system of thought has what is necessary. That is how I show you, by making you think of what is required for morality.  

Do you cut your hair according to Levitical law? [**]
No, I am not an OT priest or OT believer. I live by a new covenant, the one Jesus Christ secured by His blood sacrifice. 

Are you careful to not wear clothes made of mixed fibers? [**]

I'm not detecting any UNCHANGING moral guidelines in the teachings of "YHWH".
Those principles, while good, are dealing with the circumstances of the ANE and what it meant for ISRAEL who lived under the Mosaic Law to live holy live's before God. As in my last post, the OT was a tutor or school teacher to lead us to a greater truth - Jesus Christ and what He has done for the believer in meeting the righteous requirements of the Law of Moses. God made a covenant with a specific people at Sinai and they agreed to follow that covenant. We, as Christians live under a new covenant with God, different in some aspects from the Mosaic laws. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
The law was instituted for Israel yet we recognize its goodness too.
Do you agree with the Orthodox Jewish legal tradition/interpretations?
Do you mean the OT law? I agree that the law is just. And there were reasons for some of the 613 Mosaic laws that do not apply today to our cultures, but the principles or lessons are still valid. Some of the interpretations of Rabbis, I have heard, are in doubt as to the law just like Jesus showed the teaching of the Scribes and Pharisees were in error. That is why we have the written standard of God's word as our reference. We are told God's Spirit teaches us the greater things of God, which I believe happens over time as we mature in His grace.

Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith.

Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.

But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.

All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;

When Paul wrote that to Timothy a large portion of the Scripture Timothy would have had access to was the OT. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
Conversion equalled freedom! [...]

Conversion is an escape from slavery and bondage just as it was in OT times. [...]

So, the principle of evangelism slavery is reasonable to believe. But even if you did find this evangelistic slavery principle hard to stomach, the principle of slavery and freedom is well demonstrated in a physical sense in the OT and in a spiritual way in the NT.  [...]

War reparations or restitution [a.k.a slavery] was a different principle, the principle of damages owed, damages paid. [...]
It should be noted you've shifted from denying Biblically condoned slavery to offering a justification for it. 
I have denied from the start that biblical slavery is the same as chattel slavery. There was a purpose for it that looked out for the other person, usually for debt incurrence on the part of Hebrews, and reparations for war crimes and losses, and sometimes poverty for foreigners but a redemption message if a foreigner converted to the faith. Then they too met the principle of justice that a Hebrew would. There was also the escape clause I mentioned earlier. In no way was biblical slavery the same as the harsh treatment experieince in Egypt of the Southern States. God forbid that kind of injustice. Israel was reminded not to treat foreigners the way they were treated.  

The kind of slavery Israel experienced in Egypt is a typology of the rescue from that cruel spiritual bondage to sin that the believer experiences. The physical reality of the OT is presented in the NT in a spiritual lesson and slavery is one of the typological messages that God uses in the physical example of the harsh treatment of Egypt. Egypt represents bondage. Spiritual Egypt is spiritual bondage. The physical promised land is typological of the heavenly country or promised land to the NT believer. Thus, throughout the OT God is providing lessons for us of a greater reality - the spiritual reality.  We are constantly reminded by the human author's, who were speaking from God, that we as Christians are witnesses to the spiritual. That is why Paul could say:

1 Corinthians 2:11-13
11 For who among men knows the thoughts of a man except the spirit of the man which is in him? Even so the thoughts of God no one knows except the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit who is from God, so that we may know the things freely given to us by God, 13 which things we also speak, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Spirit, [e]combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words.

 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
...but in the case where you ignore someone dying not because your life is at stake but because you are indifferent, that is a crime. 
People are routinely deported with zero regard for their life or general well-being.
I don't follow your meaning.
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin

You do not get to tell me what I can and cannot do with my kidneys whether you have been born or not.
But you (plus those who make the laws) can tell me that all human life is not equal, that some human beings, based on their environment (where they live) do not deserve to be left alive because of a choice? Can you live with that principle? If you live in an area that I control (the woman controls the unborn in the womb) do you think I should be able to choose whether you live or die? Or if your new born crawls onto my property, should I be allowed to kill it, because it did not know what it was doing and because I had signs posted, "Tresspassers will be shot on sight." How just would that be? Can you live with it if it happened to your newborn or would you consider what was done as wrong? Basically, you are saying that because her body is her property she can do with it whatever she wants, even if someone else also resides in her body. Basically, again, human life means very little to you, until it is your own - then apply the same principles you are applying now to the unborn to yourself. How do you like them now?  

Do you believe that justice should be equal? Do you think all innocent human beings should be treated equally, with respect and dignity?
I'm not sure agree on what exactly justice is but let's pretend for a moment that that isn't an issue and that this sounds nice in theory.
First of all, let me give you an idea of what it is in a nutshell. Justice is equal treatment under the law. It is not being particular depending on whether a person is rich or influential. It applies the letter of the law equally regardless of persons. 

How do we as flawed subjective human beings create a system in which justice is equally distributed favoring none?
Favouring none? By applying the law equally to all, regardless of sex or wealth or influence. 

And if there is sone all powerful all knowing being that cares about justice why doesn't he just make everything just?
Because you are on the earth for a purpose, to know your God or reject Him. If God interfared in every aspect of our life's we would be robots, not free to choose. We are free to choose and use our wills, but our will is not free, it is governed by a number of factors that influence our thinking. 

I would even go so far as to say that the existence of a world where justice is not shown equally to all human beings indicates that no such being in fact exists. 
That is because with the Fall humanity knew the difference between right and wrong and that disobedience alienated us from a loving close relationship with our Maker. Thus, by ignoring God we opened ourselves up to all kinds of relative thinking about right and wrong. 

If my body could save a man and I refuse is that immoral?
It shows compassion and mercy. Would you like to be shown those two qualities?
This does not answer my question. Whether or not it would be admirable is separate to the question of if it would be immoral. Also I do not want to display those qualities if I must surrender my personal bodily autonomy in order to do so.
In the case where your life is compromised and could possibly be lost, saving a human being is an act of compassion and mercy. The Bible tells the believer that there is great reward for someone who willingly gives their life's on behalf of others. Now, that is generally speaking of yielding our wills to others in selfless service, I believe it can also be taken as honourable in protecting some from harm by sacrificing your own life. Jesus is our example, and He did both. His life was spent in selfless service and He willingly gave it to save others. 

At risk to yourself comes under the topic of the same compassion and mercy. It is excusable by law if you choose not to risk your own life, but in the case where you ignore someone dying not because your life is at stake but because you are indifferent, that is a crime. 
Great. Glad we agree. Now I will just point put that pregnancy ALWAYS involves risks to a woman's life so by your reasoning it is excusable by law for a woman not to take this risk.
1. Pregnancy is a function that is natural and without it there would be no humanity. 
2. The percentage of pregnancies that are life-threatening is minimal (probably around 99% non life-threatening). So, while there are risks those risks are not usually life-threatening. 
3. When the woman's life is threatened (extreme danger that she will lose it) an abortion is permissible if the unborn is too young and not at the point of viability to save it also.   
4. It is just another excuse to justify in your mind killing the unborn if the woman wants to. 



Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
The unborn is a human being. 
It doesn't matter. 
Very revealing. It does not matter to you that innocent human beings are killed. Would it matter to you if someone chose to kill your innocent ten-year-old? If so, then you have a double-standard and you are not consistent. Consistency is a sign or indicator that something is dreadfully wrong with your logic. 

(EITHER) a person's kidney (and their uterus) are their possessions protected by their right to personal bodily autonomy (in which case NO ONE can use them without consent) (OR) a person's body (such that its use is only a danger to the individual but they could live through the process) is commonwealth and anyone in possession of two kidneys is just as guilty of murder by proxy as a woman who gets an abortion. 
Let me get this straight, in 99% of cases sex is consensual. Both parties agree to it recognizing that it could produce another human being and that a new human being is the result of a woman consenting to have sex. Now you are telling me that if she gets pregnant she should take no responsibility for it if she does not want to. She knows if she gets pregnant another human being will be sharing her body for a period of time - roughly nine months.  So, even though she is partly responsible for creating this human being, it is made up or carries half her DNA, she should be allowed to kill another human being because she no longer wants to take responsibility? So, how realistic is that? If she no longer wants her one-month-old newborn and it is using her milk and her breasts, on your thinking, she should be allowed to kill it too. 

Now to the moral aspect. Do you believe that all humans should be treated equally under the law? If not, would you mind if you were discriminated against and dehumanized, considered worthless, a piece of trash, by those who make the law? Would you consider that just, if only the elites decide for the rest of us who lives and who dies? If not, then why are you doing this to the most vulnerable among us? Are you not an elitist yourself? Don't you have a double-standard and aren't you being hypocritical in your views. You see, you can't live with the views you want the unborn to be treated with. Just turn the tables and let someone apply those same views to you - worthless if the elite don't like or want you - and see how you feel as they take your life as they do with the unborn, sucking and tearing apart your body, or injecting poison into it, or the chemical burn to kill you. Do you want to feel that? Do you think others should be permitted to do that to you as a human being? 



Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
Do you really think that your will is free, or is it influenced by many things?
I do not believe in freewill at all. That is part of why any given christian claiming that I choose not to believe or that I send myself to hell are in my opinion no sequiturs.
There is a difference between free will and no will. You still have a will to choose. It is just not entirely free but influenced by your underlying beliefs, your wants and desires, and the influence of others. Or to you think everything you do is determined and you have no will at all but are just a robot programmed by your genetic makup and chance happenstance. It the latter I think you need to think things through further. I think you will find that you do make choices based too often on preference - likes and dislikes rather than on truth. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
Too many bald assertions to address individual. Even if I accept that some version of the Yahweh must necessarily exist you have not actually demonstrated or even suggested some methodology that takes the guess work out of understanding the primary moral axioms of the Yahweh. 
Then take a few. I was just answering your statements, charges, and questions. Break them down into segments. 

Your statements do the same thing - assert. Then you guys pick and choose what you will and will not address. You only select what you believe will further your talking points.  I took the time to deal with all your assertions. 
No. First take the guess work out of your argument. Stop telling me what you think is immoral and tell me why it is immoral. I've given you my standard and we can both discuss it because we both agree that there are humans and that the things we do effect their welfare. 

I have told you many times. You do not listen. It is immoral because if offends the righteousness of God. It is wrong if there is an objective standard that we can measure values against that is fix and best. If not, nothing ultimately matters and morality becomes nothing more than subjective individual or group preference. Which way do you want to live? Do you want to live as if there is such a fixed standard and that right and wrong really matter, or do you want to live inconsistently, deceiving yourself, pretending that things do matter and there is an actual right and an actual wrong to issues? If you want to live as though things do matter a worldview devoid of an ultimate, absolute, universal, fixed standard is necessary. If such a standard does not exist don't think that a sniper kills fifty in downtown Los Angeles matters. It is just a biological bag of atoms reacting to its genetics and environment. What is wrong with that?

The thing is we are moral agents but how did we become such agents? It depends where you start to how you justify that question. 

You have claimed to share the Yahwehs standard. Great. Now please explain not just his pronouncements about specific actions but how he has determined what is and is not moral and if you don't actually know then I'm afraid you don't actually have a standard to present at all.
Morality is based on His nature. The Being that is God is pure, holy, just, compassionate, loving. These are good qualities. Since He knows all things He knows what is harmful and hurtful to us, thus He commands that we do not kill, do not steal, do not lie, do not covet (that hurts us, creating all kinds of discord and inner turmoil within our life), do not commit adultery, do honour your father and mother, and honour your Maker.

The 613 Mosaic laws feed off the Ten Commandments and give us feedback as how the commanments work in specific situations that applied to the ANE culture. They also teach us principles that apply to us today, like not stripping our fields dry but leaving something for the poor. We can set a side a portion of our income to help others too.

As an example you have said that killing humans is immoral (the opinions in the ot to the contrary) but you have not said why. Why should we care about killing people? Why would the Yahweh (assuming he even exists).
Why did God command Israel to drive out the people of the land and kill certain groups, such as the Canaanites or Amalekites? Because the people of the land God was giving Israel would not respect Israel's worship of God. They would influence Israel and turn them away from God. As for the Canaanites and Amalekites, these people were plain evil, sacrificing their children and practicing many other foul things. If left in the land they would find ways to undermine Israel and rid Israel from the land God was giving them. Thus, their open rebellion towards God had nothing but malice for the people of God. God was judging the immorality of these foreign people groups. 

If God allowed His people to be destroyed by these hostile groups or be grossly influenced it would nullify the prophecies about the Messiah's lineage. Thus, God had the greater good in mind, the salvation of a vast number of people in the long run.

We should care for others because God cares about them and us. He cares about how we treat others. We should treat people justly and with love and compassion. Would you rather someone treated you will malice and plotted your death? As for killing, we are made in God's image and likeness, so it is not for us to decide when someone should die. That is our Creator's choice. And He is merciful to many in not wanting them to perish but to come to salvation. The problem is we do not want to come since we are conditioned to hate or be indifferent to God. Thus, it requires an act of His grace in which we hear the message and through it we believe. But not everyone who hears the message believes. Some harden their minds and hearts to its truthfulness. 

YHWH is mindful of us because He created us with the purpose of an everlasting relationship with Him. Not everyone wants that but instead, rebel against Him or get lost in the worries of our everyday life and forget to seek Him. The second death is everlasting separation from Him because of our sin and rejection of Him. We either recognize the provision to restore the relationship with Him (His Son and the Son's perfect life lived and sufficient payment for our sins) or we rely on our merit righting the situation if we find that God does actually exist. Our payment does not meet God's righteous requirements but falls short. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
God permits exceptions for civil societies to function.
Where in the holy scripture does it explain under what specific circumstances "YHWH" permits exceptions?

Hebrews 9:15-17
15 For this reason He is the mediator of a new covenant, so that, since a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were committed under the first covenant, those who have been called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance. 16 For where a [q]covenant is, there must of necessity [r]be the death of the one who made it. 17 For a [s]covenant is valid only when [t]men are dead, [u]for it is never in force while the one who made it lives.

But no one puts a patch of unshrunk cloth on an old garment; for the patch pulls away from the garment, and a worse tear results.

Nor do people put new wine into old wineskins; otherwise the wineskins burst, and the wine pours out and the wineskins are ruined; but they put new wine into fresh wineskins, and both are preserved.”

“No one sews a patch of unshrunk cloth on an old garment; otherwise the patch pulls away from it, the new from the old, and a worse tear results.

No one puts new wine into old wineskins; otherwise the wine will burst the skins, and the wine is lost and the skins as well; but one puts new wine into fresh wineskins.”

But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.

Clean out the old leaven so that you may be a new lump, just as you are in fact unleavened. For Christ our Passover also has been sacrificed.

Therefore let us celebrate the feast, not with old leaven, nor with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

But their minds were hardened; for until this very day at the reading of the old covenant the same veil remains unlifted, because it is removed in Christ.

Therefore if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creature; the old things passed away; behold, new things have come.

When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear.

So, with a change of covenants comes a difference standard, God's standard of grace and mercy set forth in Jesus Christ. 

Walk by the Spirit ] It was for freedom that Christ set us free; therefore keep standing firm and do not be subject again to a yoke of slavery.

We, as believers, are freed from the 'letter' of the law because Jesus Christ has met every righteous standard of the Law and God is well pleased with Him and His substitution.
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
God permits exceptions for civil societies to function.
Where in the holy scripture does it explain under what specific circumstances "YHWH" permits exceptions?
During the transitioning between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant some questioned whether it was okay to eat particular meats. 

Another instance would be worshiping God on the Sabbath. The NT states that if one person holds one day as more holy than another then it is permissible by God. 

Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day

17 things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the [e]substance [f]belongs to Christ.

Shadows are only a reflection of the real. Those shadows were put there by God to teach us something greater. 

things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.

who serve a copy and shadow of the heavenly things, just as Moses was warned by God when he was about to erect the tabernacle; for, “See,” He says, “that you make all things according to the pattern which was shown you on the mountain.”

One Sacrifice of Christ Is Sufficient ] For the Law, since it has only a shadow of the good things to come and not the very form of things, can never, by the same sacrifices which they offer continually year by year, make perfect those who draw near.

Luke 24:27 (NASB)
27 Then beginning [a]with Moses and [b]with all the prophets, He explained to them the things concerning Himself in all the Scriptures.

Luke 24:44-45 (NASB)
44 Now He said to them, “These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” 45 Then He opened their [a]minds to understand the Scriptures,
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Not only that, you are dealing with the OT which is no longer in existence. 
Then why do you keep talking about "the ten commandments"?
They relate to both Testamants. We find nine of ten in the NT. The Sabbath is debatable but the principle of rest is there, IMO. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
I would argue I am better informed than you on the subject but I'm not sure I am an expert.
If you're claiming that you know the true will of "YHWH" based purely on the "words on the page" and furthermore that thousands of years of careful consideration by the people who actually wrote the thing down in the first place "is wrong", then you MUST BE AN EXPERT.

I am just stating that I have probably studied the Bible more than you or most on this forum have and I have pondered on its teachings for over 40 years. What I will repeat again is that there is a correct way of interpreting what someone says, get their meaning, not your own. Your own meaning does not convey what the other is thinking. To get their meaning you have to understand the context, the words, the culture and nuances if not the same as your own culture. The biblical God has made it plain that there is a correct way of interpreting what He has said. It is our task to understand it, otherwise, we have not correctly understood Him. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Both you and I believe in morality.
Ethics, code of conduct, social contract, or the like.

The question is how you validate morality as an atheist.
The same way you do.  Moral instinct.  Moral intuition.
It is not moral instinct that I prove what is right and wrong. It is by the revelation of Another, even though we are created in His image and likeness, thus we too are moral beings. The thing is, without His revelation sin prevents us from doing what is right. We want to do what feels pleasant to us or what we desire rather than what is good. And since the Fall, we are marred with sin. Thus, we think apart from God, making up our own moral values that are way too often contrary to His standard. 

Then, in comparing your justification with mine, which is more reasonable.
How do you know "the decalogue" is valid?  Because it matches your moral intuition.
First, these principles are universal and self-evident to many, not all. More than this, what is necessary for these principles to be true. The biblical God fits the checkoff box. 

Try this on for size,

The ten yamas are:

1) ahiṁsā, “noninjury,” not harming others by thought, word or deed;
2) satya, “truthfulness,” refraining from lying and betraying promises;
3) asteya, “nonstealing,” neither stealing nor coveting nor entering into debt;
4) brahmacharya, “divine conduct,” controlling lust by remaining celibate when single, leading to faithfulness in marriage;
5) kshamā, “patience,” restraining intolerance with people and impatience with circumstances;
6) dhṛiti, “steadfastness,” overcoming nonperseverance, fear, indecision, inconstancy and changeableness;
7) dayā, “compassion,” conquering callous, cruel and insensitive feelings toward all beings;
8) ārjava, “honesty, straightforwardness,” renouncing deception and wrongdoing;
9) mitāhāra, “moderate appetite,” neither eating too much nor consuming meat, fish, fowl or eggs;
10) śaucha, “purity,” avoiding impurity in body, mind and speech.
Some of these are restated in the Ten Commandments. Others I disagree with. Finally, who is the authority who revealed them? Is such an authority almighty? If so, let's discuss that being.


The ten niyamas are:

1) hrī, “remorse,” being modest and showing shame for misdeeds;
2) santosha, “contentment,” seeking joy and serenity in life;
3) dāna, “giving,” tithing and giving generously without thought of reward;
4) āstikya, “faith,” believing firmly in God, Gods, guru and the path to enlightenment;
5) Īśvarapūjana, “worship of the Lord,” the cultivation of devotion through daily worship and meditation;
6) siddhānta śravaṇa, “scriptural listening,” studying the teachings and listening to the wise of one’s lineage;
7) mati, “cognition,” developing a spiritual will and intellect with the guru’s guidance;
8) vrata, “sacred vows,” fulfilling religious vows, rules and observances faithfully;
9) japa, “recitation,” chanting mantras daily;
10) tapas, “austerity,” performing sādhana, penance, tapas and sacrifice. [**]

More problems with this lot than the first lot. There are more logical inconsistencies there. Pick some of those gods and find out what they have in common and what they disagree on for one.

Why is this guru sufficient?

 If God is perfect and you have wronged God how will you meet such a God's requirements by what you have done. You have already missed the mark. Number 10 follows the path of all man-made religions - a system of works or merits earns favour. How can you meet the favour of a Perfect Being who is just once you have done wrong against such a being?
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Thus, the purpose or design of foreign slavery was first a rescue mission against harsher treatment.
33 “‘When a foreigner resides among you in your land, do not mistreat them. 34 The foreigner residing among you must be treated as your native-born. Love them as yourself, for you were foreigners in Egypt. I am the Lord your God. [**]

Very nice! Good point!
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@Deb-8-a-bull
Yeah, I was just stating that a person in five religious groups must be extra morally. Extra moral.  

Do you agree?
It may be possible, but very unlikely.  His/her five different religious groups would all contradict the others. How he would glean what is right from that smorgasbord would be mysterious, a stab in the dark. There must be a unified, objective, unchanging best or ideal in which to determine morality. Nothing else works. It falls apart logically. The point that I am making is that you can live a moral life to a degree without holding to the true belief. You would just be living inconsistently with what would be necessary of you to hold true. If one religious belief said to love your neighbour and the other eat your neighbour and you chose to love your neighbour you would agree with my belief, which I assert is the true belief based on reason. Only one is true on the impossibly of the contrary. The biblical belief meets the requirements of what is necessary. It has the omniscient being part. That means that such a God would know all things. It meets the unchanging part for such a God is revealed as immutable. It meets the ideal part because from such a God no other being is greater. And it meets another test for morality. That is the requirement of personhood. Morality is a mindful thing, a thinking thing. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@Stephen


I mean, how the hell was he ever getting on without us before all this creating of Hell,Satan, deceiving serpents, angels, disobedient women, floods, destruction, war, murder, kings, queens, sacrifice, priests, other idols to worry about and be jealous of and not to mention the "other gods" also to be jealousy of that appear to have been "loved" instead of him.   However did he manage to occupied himself for all that time before we and this planet were even thought about and come into existence?

He did manage. God is content in Himself, in the tri-unity of Beings - Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.


 Oh stop it.
Very kind of you!

You now simply have to attempt to invent further something you that do not, and cannot,  possibly have a clue about and all   to be enable you  to embellish even further  and expand  your initial simply response reply of  " we were created to experience a relationship with Him and learn of His love for us, that we may choose to love Him".
My, that is a complex sentence!

First, I am not inventing. The biblical God is reveled as three distinct Persons. I am stating (factual) what is revealed. Next, it is reasonable to believe and prophecy is just one of many confirmations. 

And what is your reason, as per the Bible since you are discussing the biblical God, that humanity was created?

You have been caught cold with just one question and two replies from me.. 
Thanks for yet another assertion!

Genesis 1
4 God saw that the light was good

God  may well have called it "all good", but WE now know it wasn't and isn't,  don't we? 
And we know the reason why. It is disclosed. What God created as good was marred by the sin of Adam. 

The earth for instance, has and always will be an unstable planet and becomes more unstable as it moves through the solar system and  when it comes into close proximity with other planets. We know that the movements of the other planets have an adverse  effect on our own planet causing the deaths of millions.   AND SO DID those controlling  priests of old, didn't they? 
The Bible is not a science book. It does not pretend to discuss the theory or relativity or how many planets there are, just their cause. It is a stated revelation that reveals humanity's relationship with God, what went wrong, and God's solution. In it, God reveals Himself in an ever increasing degree as He interacts with a people that He chooses to make Himself known to the rest of humanity.  

Indeed it was much more simpler then in past times of ignorance and fear, when priests faced less doubt and opposition to totally control a persons daily life not to mention to enable them to extort ones hard earned earthly goods. 
All OT priests pointed to a greater reality - Jesus Christ and His sufficiency. 

Because he was bored stupid '   would have been a better reply. And just as easily been blown out of the water. 

Pure speculation without biblical evidence.

Says the man that always attempts to pass off speculation and belief as fact. Example>> 
I keep asking what is more reasonable to believe - a necessary Being - God - or your subjective mind as the be-all and end-all. 



Stephen wrote: However did he manage to occupied himself for all that time before we and this planet were even thought about and come into existence?

PGA2.0, Speculated  "without evidence" ... "God is eternally present. Time needs a start, yet God is eternal. He transcends time. Time was created with the universe and humanity. Humans comprehend time because they think as well as have a beginning". 


It is a logical deduction that is capable of making sense of our existence and has been revealed in the writings of over forty author's of who all claim to be speaking to/of and from God. These writings contain statements that claim to be God speaking that say He is without beginning or end, that He created all things, made the universe from nothing, and He knows all things. If, as is revealed, God created the physical realm that must mean that He transcends that realm because He would have to exist outside of what He creates. This biblical God often makes statements that infer He just is (i.e., when speaking to Moses He says, tell Israel, 'I Am' has sent you.)

"I Am" is the present tense. It denotes the present. God who transcends time would be always present since there would be no beginning or ending to Him, no start, no finish which is necessary for time. You cannot measure the number of days in eternity. For these and a whole slew of reasons, the biblical God is deduced as reasonable to put faith in and believe in, especially when considering the alternatives.

Make sense of the universe and your existence without God. You had a beginning. Trace the causal tree to the root cause of that beginning. Does it make sense? It does with the Christian God, but not with what an atheist who denies God or gods. What would he have to believe about the root cause. Chance happenstance (devoid of mind or intellect, thus reason) is no explanation of origins. It does not have the ability to explain the 'why' or 'how.' You can only go so far. What caused the Big Bang? How did non-living, non-conscious matter become living and conscious? What are your answers? I bet they can't make sense of your existence or the existence of the universe. Go ahead and try since you are so wise. Let me put your beliefs to the test as you have constantly done with mine in countless threads where you poke fun of Christianity. Let me see if what you believe is more reasonable. 

Let us start with morality after you answer my questions above since that is the topic of discussion and you are an atheist as far as I can ascertain (your statements reveal something of your worldview), even though you hide behind your profile, which is blank.  
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@zedvictor4
There is no difference.
This is out of the blue. I have to figure out the context. No difference in what?  

Or it would be perfect if there were no difference....But we are all different and separate from each other and act individually.
So what? What difference does it make that we are different? In relation to what?

Lumping individuals together under one of two labels, doesn't imply "behavioural" certainty..... Far from it.
I will take it you are speaking of Christianity as opposed to atheism. Either we were created or we were not? It has to be one or the other. Or do you have another option?

Acceptance of deistic hypotheses, is no guarantee of an individuals state of mind.
I'm not sure what you are getting at. My standard is not myself. It is the Bible that claims to be a revelation from the Creator. Other people's minds think so too. It is independent of my own subjective mind. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
Until you are able to come up with an apples to apples comparison, there is really no defense needed.
Okay, I got your meaning. Then we are comparing the applies of Christianity to the applies of atheism. Both you and I believe in morality. The question is how you validate morality as an atheist. Then, in comparing your justification with mine, which is more reasonable.

Actually, I don't think you get my meaning. Atheism isn't a moral philosophy, so your question isnt coherent - it is not a reasonable ask. 
It most definitely is. You can't reject something you know nothing of, but you can be ignorant of God. Once you reject God you have to have some understanding on what you are rejecting, as you constantly show you do. You are able to speak quite fluently on the Christian God, and I know you used to profess to be a Christian before you fell from your conviction. Once you reject God you have to build on something else to form a worldview. That is the natural realm or the unknown. And when I question you, I find that you hold ideas common to naturalism and evolutionary principles. When you deny God created, or don't think it plausible, you must think something else is reasonable, or you have no warrant in rejecting Him. Yet you think Christianity and the Bible is myth, do you not???

So, your whole system of ideas build on a different system of thinking. 

If I try to distill your question down to something meaningful, I get something along the lines of 'How do you as a non-Christian justify morality?' This strikes me as utterly tone-deaf and arrogant given:
1) most people aren't Christian.
That is a fallacious argument. (argumentum ad populum)

I am surprized you would make it. 

And most through human history have believed in God or gods. The question is which one/ones? So, they show that belief in God is reasonable to them. It is the atheist, the ignorant agnostic, that is defiant of the idea of God. They either see no evidence because of their own bias, they deny, yet are not sure, despite the evidence, or they are adamant God does not exist, or they have not thought about God or been exposed to the idea because of their isolation or naivety or mental inability. Barring the last reason, when they dismiss God they look at life from eyes that seek other reasons for things. 

You have stated and even included in your profile that you are an atheist, prior to your current identity as Pastafarian.
PS. I bookmarked some of your colleagues. Nice hats! Do you have one? Definitely a bunch of "brights!" (^8

You have been exposed to Christianity and the idea of God (which I believe every thinking and reasoning being pondered). Thus you reject Him. In doing so you have to look at life from a different persepctive. You have thought about where life comes from and you use natrualistic explanations in explaining it. With morality 

2) Christianity has been specifically used to justify things like slavery, Holy wars, etc,
So what? People do all kinds of things 'in the name of.' That does not necessarily mean they follow the teachings. 

3) what good may be recognized in its moral views come from humanistic interests which predate and can stand apart from it.
That is one way of looking at it. 

Or humanism and human beings coin biblical moral values but they cannot justify humanism as anything but subjective feelings or preference. It does not have the means.

So, ANY moral view which puts people above human interpretations of the 'will of a god' will be more reasonable in my view.
Any moral view? Human interpretations! More reasonable??? In your view!!! Wow. That is just jam packed with flaws. 

First, your view is an interpretation too, a subjective one (my view) unless you can reflect on this elusive objective standard that you have spoken of as having. It is still a mystery to me. When are you going to expose it?

Any moral view? So you like Hitler's moral view regarding the Jews! You like Apartheid South Africa's view of segregation and the South's moral view on slavery, and of course, I know you like the view that it is okay to kill innocent unborn human beings. You don't quite see them up to par with other human beings.  
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Often the logical conclusions do not resemble your stated intention in the slightest (when you kindly take the time to elucidate).
You just said that you can't decipher my intentions. Which is it? 
Your stated intention: Discover a logically coherent non-god($) origin of moral intuition.
Moral intuition?

Logically coherent? Sure, go ahead. I don't believe you can without God, so prove me wrong.

Your pre-judice: Only "YHWH" can provide a logically coherent origin of moral intuition.
Answer what is necessary before we discuss this further. 

How do you validate the moral codec of "YHWH"?
Is it wrong to murder? No, you say. Okay, you first! 

You see, if you deny God's moral commands then life becomes unlivable. But if you reject God, a necessary being, what is the objective standard of appeal? You don't have one. It becomes a preference. How does what you like (your subjective tastes and desires) equal what is good? It doesn't and as soon as you lose or deny the 'best' that you compare morals against (as necessary) you have disagreements that contradict each other. How can you distinguish what is better without this best?  

You validate the moral codec of "YHWH" by using YOUR moral intuition.
I validate them by pointing to a standard beyond myself that is necessary because it is fixed and unchanging. Logically, that is what is necessary because the law of identity (A=A) falls to pieces if every subjective being has a different view on what is right and good. So, it is self-evident for anyone who thinks about what is necessary. A subjective standard does not meet what is necessary.  

And then you credit "YHWH" for gifting you the moral intuition you use to validate "the ten commandments".
An objective standard is sel-evident for morality. Without one how do you justify your OPINION is BETTER than that of anyone else? Are you going to force your beliefs on others? How does that make it "better."

King Hammurabi didn't know the law of "YHWH", and yet codified a set of rules more comprehensive than "the ten commandments".
The Mosaic laws feed off the Ten Commandments. There were many ANE codes in existence before Moses set the record straight, and some of the principles would be similar because they shared common cultures. But how similar is the Code of Hammurabi to the Ten Commandments or the Mosaic laws?  There are similarities and there are differences, but the question should be who or what is the starting point? 

Furthermore, since the Bible makes the point that we, as humans, are created in the image and likeness of God, we would have a consciousness that retains some of His goodness (even while denying Him), but the problem is that the moral standard is garbled by the Fall and our subjectiveness without God because we have no clear ideal we can mirror right and wrong against, just a dim reflection. So, even to an extent, Hammurabi can reflect some of the standards of God without that close personal relationship. We see that Caan knew that killing (murdering) his brother was wrong. He hid from God just as Adam did when he took the fruit of the tree of knowledge. 

Many cultures that predate Abraham have inscribed practical codes of conduct.
Lots. Can you say they claimed to be commands from God? If so, which ones. We could compare their morality to that of the Bible. 

Your explanation seems to be "YHWH" wrote a moral code on their hearts.
The law of God is written on the hearts of Christians, but the Law of Moses was a written law preserved through the ages. 

THEREFORE, "the ten commandments" is superfluous and redundant and NOT prerequisite to moral intuition.
What is written on the hearts of believers was not different from the Ten Commandments which Jesus summed up in two - love God and love your neighbour. 

Any human can detect their own moral intuition without any assistance from a book.
I would argue they are personal preference, not moral right, unless the belief reflects God's principles. 

You claim this is because "YHWH" wrote that moral code on their hearts.

This claim is unfalsifiable.
Not for those who are true believers. They understand the love of God in their outreach to others, and Jesus summed up the Ten commands in two, as laid out previously (see two statements prior to this one). Those two acts of worship sum up the whole law. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
I have already explained my reasoning with this verse. Not only that, you are dealing with the OT which is no longer in existence. 
So, OT is "off limits"?
How it is off-limits? I explained that OT passage.

But for your information, what is contained in the OT is explained in the NT very often. The Law was fulfilled in Jesus Christ. He fulfilled it for believers. The Law (which is the Law of Moses) was in fact fulfilled in Jesus Christ and can no longer be fulfilled as required by OT law. After AD 70 the sacrificial system is no longer in operation, the priesthood is no longer in operation, and the temple is no longer standing. Thus, the OT economy is obsolete. The law was instituted for Israel yet we recognize its goodness too. We show we agree with it when we do not steal, do not lie, do not murder, etc. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
Would you accept spectral evidence alone to convict you of a murder you haven't committed yet? 
No, how could anyone be so stupid?A person cannot be convicted of a crime that has not been committed? 
Haha, so it does matter who makes the prophecy and who interprets it as fulfilled?
Where did I ever say that. Stop reading things into my words that I have not expounded upon. A prophet was subject to checks, as put forth in Deuteronomy 18 and elsewhere. The visions and dreams would be confirmed by the confirmation of them in history. Such is the case of Daniel 9:24-27 or the vision of Daniel 2 and the different kingdoms. They are confirmed in history. 

The sealed up vision of Daniel 9 and 12 was revealed and opened in Revelation during the time of Nero.

Again, you implicitly acknowledge your standard of evidence isn't near as strong as your pretend. IF spectral evidence were all that, how could you deny it...even if use against you?
Sure it is strong. It can be thoroughly demonstrated in the Daniel 9:24; 12:4 & 9 passages as one for instance as happening in the time of Nero and during the 1st-century. I say that my argument on that topic would be far more reasonable than yours on what evidence is available, not just on your speculation and assertions. 

Truth is the gauge by which falsehood is measured. For there to be a counterfeit there must be a real to compare the counterfeit against. Once I have the real I have the standard. 
If you determine what's real by anecdote, hearsay, and spectral evidence (which you wouldn't accept to convict you of murder), then you can't really say you know what is real and counterfeit.
Again, you are painting a picture that is not true, once again. The NT evidence does not claim to be antedotal evidence but firsthand eyewitness evidence. Not only that, you show your own bias in that you will not accept biblical writings and that reasoning, Skone. If a person who wrote the book on eyewitness evidence is converted to Christianity because of said evidence that is a pretty good standard of evidence, the same kind used in courts of law today. 

As for hearsay, is that not what you are doing here? 

I covered spectral evidence above.

It is impossible that two contrary things can be true at the same time regarding the same thing. 
It is possible for 2 contrary things to both be false.
Granted. So what? And it is also true that two contrary things cannot both be true. The line of questioning was regarding God or gods and how I know that only one could be true, if any. 

Nothing can be 'simpler' than an infinite being, amIright?!
That is not my argument. The explanation is simple. He merely spoke the universe into existence. Very simple in comparison to let's say the Big Bang.
The explanation has fewer words, but it is not simpler because it is contingent on an eternal omnipotent being. 
So what? The explanation of chance happenstance as why we are here is not simple either. It does not meet the experiential test. Of the two, the biblical explanation is more reasonable and simpler - God spoke and it was so! There is nothing reasonable about chance happenstance. Once you jettison a personal being you are left with material means alone or some mysterious non-personal non-conscious force that no one knows anything about. That begs a lot of questions. 

Also, if you're willing to admit a subjective being can be objective...then you provide all that is needed for morality without the need for a god.
I am speaking of interpretation of the Bible and in understanding others. In the case of morality I question what the objective standard you profess that excludes God. You have still to reveal that objective standard you speak of.
You weigh your actions against what you believe the Biblical god wants to objectively determine right and wrong.  This is subjective.
Not if it is outside myself and I CORRECTLY interpret that standard. Not only that, my system of thought has what is necessary for objective morality, yours only has what is necessary to enforce a preference. 

You pretend to have an objective source for morality, but you (like everyone else) have a subjective morality.
That is your subjective opinion. What makes that right or anything you say right since you have no objective standard of appeal. Why SHOULD (a moral imperative) I trust your subjective opinion since it appears that is all you have got? Your subjectiveness is what wars are fought over. 

Your system of thought does not have what is necessary for morality, other than you forcing your opinions on others if you have the means. There is nothing right about that. It is just another 'is' mascarading as an 'ought.' If you are gullible enough to accept it then there is nothing I can do to convince you since you are not using reason. If you were you would work out what is necessary for morality and why the biblical God meets that standard. 

I think you, and many people, overly complicate morality.  We only need to agree on something by which to measure our actions. Your preference is god.  Mine is well-being. 
Well-being in whose eyes? Your subjective eyes? No thank you. Show me you have a fixed standard that is objective or don't cal what you believe moral. Show me the moral best that you compare goodness to, and don't tell me it is your subjective opinions of well-being. My thoughts on well-being could be the complete opposite, and I could point you to hundreds of examples of where your standard does not meet those of others. Do you think Kim Jong Un or Xi Jiping is looking out for your well-being or that of humanity? Your system does not meet the experiential test nor the livibility test, nor the logically consistent test (A=A; Good=Good). Your standard looses the test of the law of identity, even on abortion. It was not long ago there was a different standard of law for abortion. So, that begs the question, which is right, what we have now or what we had then? Not only that, in a shifting, subjective standard, how can you ever arrive at better? Better in relation to what - relative values that are constantly changing and sometimes circle around on themselves, depending on who is in power?

Abortion bad - abortion good - abortion bad again - abortion good again. 

Your system of thought is incapable of justifying 

No. I'm saying all too often what cannot be explained by our current understanding of nature is considered supernatural or attributed to it.
Supernatural would exclude nature as an explanation. If it is not natural it must be a being - yes or no?
What? I don't see how that follows.
Explain how something that is not personal, thus conscious, can be something other than natural, mechanical, material. What do you know about this that I do not?


Or are you speaking of a force such as in Starwars? If a force lacks personhood what can it do and would that force not be considered natural too, since it owes no explanation to personhood?

I'm simply pointing out that the supernatural lays claim to an increasingly smaller slice of the cosmos as our knowledge of nature increases.
How does that answer my question? You continue to evade my questions. 

Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
It seems your primary argument against Biblically condoned slavery is that 'it couldn't be slavery because slaves must be bought/ kidnapping is disallowed', suggesting Biblical slavery was always voluntary and some form of indentured servitude. You also point to verses referring to  'foreigners which live among you' being treated with respect as though foreigners were to always to be treated as equal to Israelites.   This is simplistic cherry picking oblivious to what the Bible actually allows. 
And continuing from earlier this morning, the principle of evangelistic slavery as a spiritual typology of physical bondage is very reasonable. The physical bondage in Egypt and the crossing of the Red Sea or escape from bondage is symbolic of our escape from the bondage of sin and our spiritual Egypt. We see this principle laid out in the NT in various places, this freedom from sin and bondage. Here is an important point, made by the article, Biblical Slavery vs. Chattel Slavery:

"But if they converted, the law for slavery of a Hebrew brother now applied. They were to be given 7 years in slavery with the purpose of repaying their masters as much as they could for saving them from their previous, pagan masters. After 7 years, the convert was supposed to go out free and take his rightful place as a member of the nation of Israel."

Conversion equalled freedom! That is how it is in the NT. We become free in Christ and are grafted into spiritual Israel. Remember, salvation was of the Jew first, then because of their hard heart towards God it became a possibility for the foreigner or Gentile to. Both Testamamnts teach of freedom from slavery. Isn't that a great principle, if you became a convert in the OT you would become a free man/woman in seven years!

Conversion is an escape from slavery and bondage just as it was in OT times.

Walk by the Spirit ] It was for freedom that Christ set us free; therefore keep standing firm and do not be subject again to a yoke of slavery.

Act as free men, and do not use your freedom as a covering for evil, but use it as bondslaves of God.

promising them freedom while they themselves are slaves of corruption; for by what a man is overcome, by this he is enslaved.

We see the principle of the Red Sea mentioned in 1 Corinthians 10. We cross the barrier between bondage and freedom, between slavery in our Egypt and freedom in Christ.

We see the forty-year transition from Egypt to the Promised Land again in the NT in a spiritual light

Hebrews 3:7-11, 16-19 
7 Therefore, just as the Holy Spirit says,
“Today if you hear His voice,
8 Do not harden your hearts as [b]when they provoked Me,
As in the day of trial in the wilderness,
9 Where your fathers tried Me by testing Me,
And saw My works for forty years.
10 “Therefore I was angry with this generation,
And said, ‘They always go astray in their heart,
And they did not know My ways’;
11 As I swore in My wrath,
‘They shall not enter My rest.’”

16 For who provoked Him when they had heard? Indeed, did not all those who came out of Egypt led by Moses? 17 And with whom was He angry for forty years? Was it not with those who sinned, whose bodies fell in the wilderness? 18 And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who were disobedient? 19 So we see that they were not able to enter because of unbelief.

The transition between Christ's death and judgment in AD 70 is also forty years in which the author of Hebrews once again warns the people not to be like those who fled Egypt and died in the desert, but today (1st-century), if you hear His voice listen to God and enter the Promised Land instead of perishing. Slavery in the NT is a bondage to sin. That is the reality of the shadow we see in the OT. It is a freedom from oppression and affliction just like Israel's slavery in Egypt was. So we see a spiritual Israel, a spiritual freedom, a spiritual crossing of the Red Sea and leaving the old life behind, and an entry into a better land, a heavenly country as opposed to the physical OT one. We see that, like Israel during the forty year exodus, a new exodus and transition, as spoken of in Hebrews 8:13:

"13 [a]When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is [b]ready to disappear."

What was old and obsolete was about to disappear, withing that generation, and Hebrews 3:9-10 identifies a generation as forty-years. 

So, the principle of evangelism slavery is reasonable to believe. But even if you did find this evangelistic slavery principle hard to stomach, the principle of slavery and freedom is well demonstrated in a physical sense in the OT and in a spiritual way in the NT. 

that the creation itself also will be set free from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God.

promising them freedom while they themselves are slaves of corruption; for by what a man is overcome, by this he is enslaved.

Non-Israelite slaves were permanent property and could be acquired by purchase (Lev 25:44-46) or captured during war (Deut 20:14).  Yes, kidnapping Hebrews to enslave them is punishable by death (Deut 24:7), but there is no such restriction regarding foreigners - war captives is a case in point of foreigners literally being kidnapped as slaves (Deut 21:10-15). The OT is very much against slavery of "God's people", but this did not extend to non-Hebrews. Indentured servitude was available to Hebrew men, but everyone else was subject to some form of slavery as we commonly understand the term.
Now you mention two types of foreign slaves, one a war captive and therefore a reparation for the damages suffered, and the other bought to serve the Hebrew family from a foreign country, again usually becoming a slave in a foreign land because of poverty or debt. Even so, the type of slavery or servitude was different between the treatment in Israel to that experienced in other ANE nations. But to your point, the foreigner, during a war, would be responsible for the damages inflicted on the victor. Thus, reparations or restitution were perfectly in line with making the foreigner answerable. Remember what happened when Israel left Egypt? There was a negotiation for what reparations Egypt was to pay Israel for the ill-treatment Israel suffered under the hands of the Egyptian taskmasters. Slavery was also a lesson to foreign nations to not engage in warfare with Israel because they had the allegiance of God on their side and the enemy would be required to pay a big price, lifetime service in Israel for the captives. 

Physical punishment was a reality in the ANE, yet if a 'master' ill-treated a 'slave' and the slave suffered permanent injury, the master was required to release the slave and make them a free person. If I remember correctly, the master was also required to pay reparation for such damages. I do not see prisons mentioned in the OT, thus punishment required a different method, a more severe one, corporal punishment - eye for eye, tooth for tooth, life for life. A thief was required to repay the debt through sheep or work it off. A slave was not to be unreasonably treated as how Israel treated others was answerable to God. Then there was the escape clause, which you cannot show as not applicable to the foreign slave of the Hebrew.

As for the kidnapping of a fellow countryman in Deuteronomy 24:7, what about the penalty to any man in Exodus 21:16?

“He who kidnaps a man, whether he sells him or he is found in his possession, shall surely be put to death.

War reparations or restitution was a different principle, the principle of damages owed, damages paid. In our penal system the damages would have to be repaid or else the person would face prison time. 


Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@Deb-8-a-bull
As a member of FIVE and a half religious groups , spanning across the main three holy books,   I highly doubt you'd find a more moral being then I. 
So , yeah.   Ask away.
Morals,   Shmorals. 

Actually,  if being in a religious  group gave one some kind of plus. You'd join a dozen of em.
Oh ,Unless there is a clause like. THALL SHALL NOT PUT ANOTHER GOD ABOVE ME. 

Yeah.      Real nice move. Very well played. 

Good game. 
Good game. 
I'm lost, this just came out of the blue yonder. Per chance, is this addressed to me? If so, what does it mean?
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
Consider other verses which show the God of the Bible does not consider other peoples equal to Israel.  (The notion of "God's chosen people" speaks to this)The verses I provided make that distinction clear (Exodus 21 and Leviticus 25:44-46).
You ignore other verses that clarify what God expected in the treatment of others. And in no way was the treatment the same as in Egypt or other ANE cultures. It was better. As already pointed out, and you cannot deny it for it is Scripture, a 'slave' must be bought, not kidnapped from other lands. Kidnapping was punishable by death. That meant that a slave would have to agree to serve a Hebrew master. 

Egyptian slavery was a bondage and oppression that God never wanted Israel to duplicate. It was a type of servitude that God forbade. Time and time again, God wants  us to treat others as we want others to be treated. If you are blessed by wealth and can afford to hire others God still wants you to treat them with respect and dignity. 

It seems your primary argument against Biblically condoned slavery is that 'it couldn't be slavery because slaves must be bought/ kidnapping is disallowed', suggesting Biblical slavery was always voluntary and some form of indentured servitude.
No, my argument is that OT slavery is not the same as chattle slavery in which the slave was treated hostile and as property to do with whatever. God forbade that type of slavery as I showed you in the many verses I quoted. He wanted Israel to remember the type of slavery they had experienced, the type of slavery that was expressed as bondage and oppression and wanted Israel never to practice this type of treatment of others. The foreign slave PURCHASED was a servant, yet had freedoms not allowed a chattel slave or the freedom of other ANE cultures. 

When you take into account what God explicitly warned of there is no way that Israel's' slavery' was the same thing as Egyptian slavery. And if you want to find out what kind of treatment the Israelites experienced there are various accounts, some of which was what Moses witnessed. He actually heard the cries of the Israelites. 

Now it came about in those days, when Moses had grown up, that he went out to his brethren and looked on their hard labors; and he saw an Egyptian beating a Hebrew, one of his brethren...23 Now it came about in the course of those many days that the king of Egypt died. And the sons of Israel sighed because of the bondage, and they cried out; and their cry for help because of their bondage rose up to God. 

Exodus 3:7, 9, 17
7 The Lord said, “I have surely seen the affliction of My people who are in Egypt, and have given heed to their cry because of their taskmasters, for I am aware of their sufferings...9 Now, behold, the cry of the sons of Israel has come to Me; furthermore, I have seen the oppression with which the Egyptians are oppressing them...17 So I said, I will bring you up out of the affliction of Egypt...

And what did Pharoh do when confronted with Moses telling him to let his people go? He doubles down on his harsh treatment of Israel. 

Exodus 5:4-14
4 But the king of Egypt said to them, “Moses and Aaron, why do you [a]draw the people away from their [b]work? Get back to your [c]labors!” 5 Again Pharaoh said, “Look, the people of the land are now many, and you would have them cease from their labors!” 6 So the same day Pharaoh commanded the taskmasters over the people and their foremen, saying, 7 “You are no longer to give the people straw to make brick as previously; let them go and gather straw for themselves. 8 But the quota of bricks which they were making previously, you shall impose on them; you are not to reduce any of it. Because they are lazy, therefore they cry out, ‘[d]Let us go and sacrifice to our God.’ 9 Let the labor be heavier on the men, and let them work at it so that they will pay no attention to false words.”
10 So the taskmasters of the people and their foremen went out and spoke to the people, saying, “Thus says Pharaoh, ‘I am not going to give you any straw. 11 You go and get straw for yourselves wherever you can find it, but none of your labor will be reduced.’” 12 So the people scattered through all the land of Egypt to gather stubble for straw. 13 The taskmasters pressed them, saying, “Complete your [e]work quota, [f]your daily amount, just as when [g]you had straw.” 14 Moreover, the foremen of the sons of Israel, whom Pharaoh’s taskmasters had set over them, were beaten [h]and were asked, “Why have you not completed your required amount either yesterday or today in making brick as previously?”

Exodus 6:5, 7
5 Furthermore I have heard the groaning of the sons of Israel, because the Egyptians are holding them in bondage, and I have remembered My covenant. 6 Say, therefore, to the sons of Israel, ‘I am the Lord, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will deliver you from their bondage... 7 Then I will take you [f]for My people, and I will be [g]your God; and you shall know that I am the Lord your God, who brought you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians.

The list goes on of their harsh treatment in Egypt. And God warned Israel to remember not to ever do what was done to them. So, how could God allow Israel to abuse foreign 'slaves?' It is illogical when you read the passages to then come up with Israel abusing foreign 'slaves.' You have to understand the OT slave as opposed to chattel slave or Egyptian slave. Israel slavery is not the same kind.  

There is a good article I read contrasting biblical slavery and what it meant to chattel slavery. It is titled, Biblical Slavery vs. Chattel slavery. The article goes on to say, 

"[T]he Bible does speak of slavery, and that there are righteous forms of slavery, what are they? There are three of them, and they all have to do with ethical/judicial problems."

These three forms the author identifies and lists as,
1. 'Charitable slavery,' also known as indentured servitude. This is where a Hebrew could sell himself to pay off his debt, usually because of poverty and inability to support themselves. After six years, the debt was considered paid and the person became free once again, unless they chose otherwise. 
2. 'Restitutional slavery,' again for a Hebrew, was a form a crime in which the criminal would pay of his debt. In this case the penalty could last longer than seven years to pay the debt. If the guilty party refused to work the master could beat him as a punishment, but if the slave was injured in any way he would earn his freedom.
3. 'Evangelistic slavery,' is the type described in Leviticus 25:44-46. 
"...[It] does allow Hebrews to buy slaves from foreign slave owners, and it does allow them to permanently enslave strangers who live in the land; not by kidnapping them but for the same reasons as enslaving Hebrews – debt or poverty."
The purpose of such slavery was to evangelize and convert a person to faith in God. 

"[E]vangelistic slavery, designed to rescue the weakest members of pagan societies, those who have become victims of pagan slavery, and give them the chance to become children of God, free and independent. All these three forms are temporary, and have a redemptive purpose. Pagan slavery is chattel slavery; its purpose is only to keep a certain class of people in subjugation while maintaining another class in a position of power." 

Thus, the purpose or design of foreign slavery was first a rescue mission against harsher treatment.



Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
I am comparing apples to oranges. Applies is Christianity; oranges is atheism.  

Lol, I don't disagree. I refer you back to my previous comment:

Until you are able to come up with an apples to apples comparison, there is really no defense needed.
Okay, I got your meaning. Then we are comparing the applies of Christianity to the applies of atheism. Both you and I believe in morality. The question is how you validate morality as an atheist. Then, in comparing your justification with mine, which is more reasonable.
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Do you believe you can correctly interpret what I have said?
I can decipher the words and their logical conclusions, but NOT your intention.
My intention is to question whether you can make sense of morality, especially if you are an atheist. The intent is to see which makes more sense and is more reasonable. We have many tangents going on here that are not related to the subject. 

Often the logical conclusions do not resemble your stated intention in the slightest (when you kindly take the time to elucidate).
You just said that you can't decipher my intentions. Which is it? 

I am answering your questions, regardless of whether they relate to the subject at hand. 

And when you don't quite understand my meaning you ask me to explain it further.
Either directly or indirectly by paraphrasing.
Granted.

Thus, you must understand that there is an objective meaning in communications,
Nope.  Please explain.
Words carry specific meaning when in context. From a context you can determine what is spoken of. If not, the author needs to make his meaning more clear. If you have not grasped the author's meaning, you have not understood what the author said or communicated. 

If I said, "The grass is green," it has a different meaning than, "I am green with envy." One usually describes the actual colour of literal grass. The other describes feelings I have about something you have or perhaps you exhibit in your mannerisms that I lack. Thus, context is important in determining what is spoken of. Also words can have more than one meaning. You have to glean the correct meaning by the context to understand the communication. Also, culture can carry meanings that are archaic or have fallen out of use, so when you speak of ancient cultures you have to understand what something would have meant in relation to that culture. That can be conveyed by repeated usage of a word or phrase. 

I.e., "This generation" applies to the generation Jesus came to as carried by the constant use of the phrase. What is describe in the constant use of the phrase applies to a specific generation, not any generation or a far distant generation. 

...but you do not give the biblical author(s) (said to be God speaking in over a thousand verses) that courtesy.
I also don't (CAN'T) give the author(s) of the Tao Te Ching and or the Bardo Thodol that "courtesy".
Then you don't understand what they said. I understand exactly what Jesus said when He used the term 'this generation." The meaning is given in the text, and when one text is not clear, there are many more that use the same term in relation to the same people. In fact, the very word, "this" is specific word usage. To read in a distant generation is to not get the author's meaning or what the text conveys.  To read into a context your own interpretation instead of lifting out the author's intention is called eisegesis as opposed to exegesis. 

That is inconsistent and hypocritical if you do that. 
Look, you're the "expert" on this subject, so that's why I'm asking you.
I would argue I am better informed than you on the subject but I'm not sure I am an expert. I use my reason as well as researching the facts where I can access them. And I have been a Christian for forty years, thus, I have come across many of the arguments here before. I have been debating on many forums but this has become home, for now. 

Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Have you managed to distill any moral AXIOMS?
How do you mean? I believe I have. 

I work from the principle of the Ten Commandments, which delves into most aspects of morality for it deals with what happens when someone wrongs instead of loves others.
How do the "Ten Commandments" relate to COPYRIGHT LAW?
I'm not sure what you mean? Are you speaking of plagiarism? 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
I'm not sure if that particular verse teaches the killing of children (among the little ones), but and innocent life God takes (a life that has not committed sin and is not able to reason or yet be accountable) God will restore to a better place.
Literally, "kill 'em all and let god sort 'em out".

Of course, "they deserved it" because those pesky prisoners probably "caused the israelites to sin" (or they probably would in the future, better not take any chances).
Israel, allowing them to remain in the land (instead of driving them out and they would not go) would have caused Israel to reject God or ignore Him and that is what happened because they did not follow God's counsel. These people were a thorn in Israel's side. Not only did the hate Israel but if they had the numbers they would have killed all Jews and prevented God from fulfilling the Messianic lineage. 

But as I said before, God will not take an innocent life without restoring that life to a better place. Do you understand what I just said since you seem unable to grasp this concept?

It sounds like "everyone is equal before jesus" is more like "shape-up or ship-out".
Notice, it includes those who are in Christ that recognize there is not distinction. We are to love all, equally. God is not a respecter of persons. He will judge all with equal justice. If you have wronged you are answerable. Either you accept God's provision or you will pay the price in full yourself. It is that simple. 

HOW DOES THIS BIBLE STORY INFORM YOUR PRIMARY MORAL AXIOMS??
I think I answered that question before. Jesus summed up the Ten Commandments in two - love God and love your neighbour. Loving your neighbour means not harming them. Love is defined in 1 Corinthians 13. Your neighbour encompasses more than those in your immediate neighbourhood, but should include all people. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Wrong. There is no free man nor slave, no female of male but all are one in Jesus Christ. The biblical teaching promotes loving others and looking out for their best interests. 
15 And Moses said unto them, Have ye saved all the women alive?
16 Behold, these caused the children of Israel, through the counsel of Balaam, to commit trespass against the Lord in the matter of Peor, and there was a plague among the congregation of the Lord.
17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves. [**]
I have already explained my reasoning with this verse. Not only that, you are dealing with the OT which is no longer in existence. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
So, it should not bother you if you are being consistent with atheism in which the universe is a meaningless mass of matter.
Atheism makes no such claim.
Many do. Those who have thought about it do. Those who don't have neglected to think much about what they believe or why. 

I could give you many quotes from atheists who in reflecting believe the universe is meaningless, such as Richard Dawkins. He lives inconsistently with his belief. He interjects meaning into the meaningless - the irony of it all. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@zedvictor4
I do not vote.

I am probably not consistent with atheism.

The rest is your opinion.
Okay, fine. 

My topic was asking which is more reasonable, morality from an atheist's perspective or from a theists perspective, and in theism I defend the biblical God so I will only defend my position from that standpoint, as reasonable. Hope that clarifies things. 

Let me ask you then, which do you think is the more reasonable position, atheism or Christianity in regards to morality and justification? Please give reasons if you choose to respond. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
Also, as related to this thread, atheism/theism are not moral philosophies....neither are reasonable from a moral standpoint. In your thread you drop the theistic ambiguity and name Christianity, which is a moral view, but again, you compare it to atheism which is not a moral philosophy. The comparison itself is not reasonable.

Its like you're pitting "Kumbaya" against silence and asking which is better music. There is a category error in the comparison.
I only defend one moral theistic position for I believe that the many contrary positions cannot all be true/valid. Thus, I always point to the Christian God.

Then it shouldn't be too hard for you to concede you are not defending theism but a particular view which falls under the label of theism.
Christianity is a theistic belief and I am defending it. I believe it is the necessary theistic belief, therefore in making sense of morality a theistic belief is necessary and reasonable. Getting into which one is beyond my intention here, but I only justify the one as reasonable. Theism, in the form of the Judeo-Christian belief is what I consider reasonable, but if you want to compare theism to atheism, what do you mean by theism? I mean the Judeo-Christian belief. 

I explain the reason when I speak of theism I only defend the one theistic belief - on the impossibility of the contrary, because they are just that, they contradict each other. Therefore they can't all be true. 

I am defending theism. I am not out of the parameter of theism. Here is a definition:

Definition of theism
belief in the existence of a god or godsspecifically belief in the existence of one God viewed as the creative source of the human race and the world who transcends yet is immanent in the world

Yes, I am sorry I was not more precise in my heading (I was thinking of space), but by saying 'theism' I am speaking of either a personal God or gods as responsible for the creation or existence of the universe, us, morality. I just happen to believe in only one God, not many, yet that does not compromise the definition. 


Additionally, if theism (a broad belief in god) is not a moral view, then atheism (a broad non-belief in god) is not a moral view either. Until you are able to come up with an apples to apples comparison, there is really no defense needed.
My view of theism is a belief in one God that covers a multitude of topics, one of which is morality. Your view of life as an atheist incorporates more than just morality, yet that is the aspect we are looking at from your perspective as an atheist, here, just as I defend my view as a Christian. My, you are getting picky, Skone.

I am comparing apples to oranges. Applies is Christianity; oranges is atheism.  


Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
The analogy you give sucks. What we are dealing with are TWO human beings, one unborn and the other born.
In my analogy we are dealing with two human beings.
The unborn is a human being. What other kinds of being can it be if it has a male and female donor that are humans???

When you lose focus on what you are killing or speaking of you discriminate against and dehumanize helpless human beings. 

Both have already been born. Does that make them intrinsically less worthwhile?
No, they are of equal worth if there is equal justice. Do you believe that justice should be equal? Do you think all innocent human beings should be treated equally, with respect and dignity?

If my body could save a man and I refuse is that immoral?
It shows compassion and mercy. Would you like to be shown those two qualities?

What if he is a father with children that need him?
Even more of a blessing to him and his family to save him. 

What if he is a doctor or the leader of an important peace movement? Should my body be under the control of the state in cases where I could save a life even at risk to my own?
At risk to yourself comes under the topic of the same compassion and mercy. It is excusable by law if you choose not to risk your own life, but in the case where you ignore someone dying not because your life is at stake but because you are indifferent, that is a crime. 

Also I am not convinced that a fetus is necessarily a human being in the sense that it is an individual with emotions and thoughts (and therefore at least arguably deserving of rights) but really that is beside the point when you demand that legislation be passed which removes my bodily autonomy
What do you mean by necessarily? You need to think about it more then.

First, when you say it is not human because it does not yet think or display emotions, why not? Does it have the same genetic makeup as every other human being?
Next, is it okay to kill human beings because they are not as developed as you are?
Then, do you think you are just if you do not treat every innocent human being equally? How is it just if I am a judge and I make an exception under the law just because you are a bother to me but I can't find any moral wrong under the law that you have done? And what happens if I make a law not based on all men (humans) being equal? Then I can perhaps enslave you if I so choose. Do you think that is just?  Am I treating you as I treat those I like?

About your bodily autonomy, does your privacy give you the right to harm innocent human beings? If a little child walks onto your property, should you be allowed to kill it? It did not have any intention on doing so. It was lost. Does that give you justification to kill it? 
Second, you only focus on your bodily autonomy. What about the bodily autonomy of the unborn? Are you that selfish that others do not matter, especially the most helpless and most in need of protection amongst us?

In the case of an overwhelming majority of abortions, the woman uses bodily rights as an excuse to rid herself of responsibility. Why can she do this with the unborn but be charged if she neglected and rids herself of her newborn in this manner?  
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
I believe that free will was only present in Adam. 
Then no other humans are really making choices including the "choice" to believe or reject. If I am flawed by design take it up with the manufacturer. 

Do you really think that your will is free, or is it influenced by many things?

You choose, but you choose what you like or what you think you have to. Thus, your will is subject to all kinds of influences. It has biases and likes and dislikes that influence what you choose. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
Too many bald assertions to address individual. Even if I accept that some version of the Yahweh must necessarily exist you have not actually demonstrated or even suggested some methodology that takes the guess work out of understanding the primary moral axioms of the Yahweh. 
Then take a few. I was just answering your statements, charges, and questions. Break them down into segments. 

Your statements do the same thing - assert. Then you guys pick and choose what you will and will not address. You only select what you believe will further your talking points.  I took the time to deal with all your assertions. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
That correct interpretation comes from finding the Author's meaning, not interjecting my own meaning into the text. 

Why do you think so many "christians" disagree with each other?
They do not try to understand what God is saying. Their bias, influence from others, and denominationalism gets in the way. His Word is our standard. 

It's because "human evaluation" and "human interpretation" is inescapable.
Even though I use my human filter - my mind - I try to get the Author's meaning. That is possible, so there is a correct INTERPRETATION. 
I'm not sure how your interpretation of "the Author's meaning" is "unfiltered" by your human perception.
The test is in the verse or verses in question. To say that there is not a correct intent of an author's words is to say that communication cannot take place. Do you believe you can correctly interpret what I have said? And when you don't quite understand my meaning you ask me to explain it further. Thus, you must understand that there is an objective meaning in communications, but you do not give the biblical author(s) (said to be God speaking in over a thousand verses) that courtesy. That is inconsistent and hypocritical if you do that. 

Have you managed to distill any moral AXIOMS?
How do you mean? I believe I have. 

I work from the principle of the Ten Commandments, which delves into most aspects of morality for it deals with what happens when someone wrongs instead of loves others. Abortion centers on the "thou shalt not kill/murder" principle. Abortion is a spiteful act that does not take into account the life of someone else but thinks of self. It is not loving. All human life is created in the image and likeness of God. It is God's right to take human life since we are His creatures.
God permits exceptions for civil societies to function. Wrongdoing - life for life; that would be equal justice. The exception to abortion is when the woman will die before the unborn is developed enough to save it. Then it is permissible to take its life because the death of the woman would be unavoidable and so would that of the unborn. At leat one is saved, so it is the greater outcome of the two - one dead instead of two. When someone dies unintentionally, in the case of manslaughter, the intent is not to do harm (but sometimes it can be because of carelessness), but an accident results in death. That is not the same thing as malicious or spiteful intent - murder -  that the commandment deals with. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@3RU7AL
Again, a megalomaniacal lunitic is not the biblical God.
Why did "YHWH" order the slaughter of prisoners (women and children)?

He explanation is in the verses you supplied as for the judgment on the women in this case. 

Numbers 31:15-18

15 And Moses said unto them, Have ye saved all the women alive?
16 Behold, these caused the children of Israel, through the counsel of Balaam, to commit trespass against the Lord in the matter of Peor, and there was a plague among the congregation of the Lord.
17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.

17 Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known man [g]intimately.

I'm not sure if that particular verse teaches the killing of children (among the little ones), but and innocent life God takes (a life that has not committed sin and is not able to reason or yet be accountable) God will restore to a better place. Jesus taught the kingdom of heaven belongs to little children. 

'Among the little ones' could mean every little one that was a male or it could mean every male hiding among the little ones. The NIV translates it as little boys.

I can only speculat if it was the NIV meaning. Perhaps the reason was that boys who discovered their heritage would be more likely to take revenge or perhaps they were influenced by their parent's worldview, or it could be for the reason that the girls would help increase the nation of Israel if they agreed to marry a Hebrew and once they had a family would be inclined to support their husband and his beliefs for the good of the family.

The point, there are explanations for why this happened. 


Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@Stephen
A better question I have asked hundreds of theists, is why did god create anything, at all, in the first place? and like much of the bible, I have never had a answer that couldn't easily be debunked. 
[A] For His pleasure. Because He wanted to, not because He had to.

So simply put then  we were created for his own self serving reasons as his toys or pets, to be discarded (killed and disposed of) at will as he could make more when he got fed up and bored with his old toys.  He certainly knew when to dispose of his childish things didn't he; anytime he felt like it.
No, we were created to experience a relationship with Him and learn of His love for us, that we may choose to love Him,

 I just love how you have to further embellish your reply at [A] once it has been show to be absolutely ridiculous.
Genesis 1
4 God saw that the light was good;...12 ...and God saw that it was good...18 ...and God saw that it was good...21...and God saw that it was good...25...and God saw that it was good... 31 ...it was very good. 

So, on the days of creation, God was pleased, except on the one day. Six times we are told that what He created was good. He saw what He had made and He was pleased, it was good. He was satisfied. 

Psalm 104:31 (NASB)
31 Let the glory of the Lord endure forever;
Let the Lord be glad in His works;

God enjoys what He makes for it expresses His glory, expresses who He is; His wisdom, His power, the majesty of His mind.

Psalm 19 (NASB)
19 The heavens are telling of the glory of God;
And their expanse is declaring the work of His hands.
2 Day to day pours forth speech,
And night to night reveals knowledge.
3 There is no speech, nor are there words;
Their voice is not heard.

for it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure.  

God is at work, including the regeneration and guidance of humans who believe, for His good pleasure. He is pleased to do it. He enjoys helping the believer. For those who reject Him he does not delight in their wickedness for He is good and just.

You simply cannot explain why god created anything at all can you? So you now have had to resort to injecting sentiment of  exaggerated, self-indulgent feelings of caring, tenderness and love, not realising he wouldn't have the need to bother at all had he not created anything.
Why would God create something unless He wanted to? And if God says something is good, then He is pleased with it. What He makes expresses His goodness. It is when sin is found in the creation of man because God created humans in His image and likeness that He expresses displeasure. The reason He does that is that He is pure and holy and does not enjoy what is wrong. 

I mean, how the hell was he ever getting on without us before all this creating of hell,
Hell on earth is our doing. We think we know better than God, as you do yourself. God warned of the consequences of choosing to know both good and evil. Adam did so anyway, just as you and I do. Sin and evil is a lesson to us of how we can't live good life's without God.

Satan, deceiving serpents, angels, disobedient women, floods, destruction, war, murder, kings, queens, sacrifice, priests, other idols to worry about and be jealous of and not to mention the "other gods" also to be jealousy of that appear to have been "loved" instead of him.   However did he manage to occupied himself for all that time before we and this planet were even thought about and come into existence?
Yes, He did manage. God is content in Himself, in the tri-unity of Beings - Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

Time? God is eternally present. Time needs a start, yet God is eternal. He transcends time. Time was created with the universe and humanity. Humans comprehend time because they think as well as have a beginning. 

Because he was bored stupid '   would have been a better reply. And just as easily been blown out of the water. 
Pure speculation without biblical evidence.

Bordom is a cause (not the only one) of discontent but I believe God is content within Himself since His mind is infinite. What He is dislpeased with is evil/unrighteousness. 

But godliness actually is a means of great gain when accompanied by contentment.

If godliness is a reflection of contentment then God must be content.

Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@ludofl3x
Sure you can make up meaning, but ultimately it means nothing. 

Yes, and....? So what?
So you live inconsistently with what you know as true - you live a lie, you deceive yourself.

Something came from nothing!!!
Or the stuff in the universe was always around in various forms, cycling from big bang to big crunch eternally. 
How do you get to the present universe from an infinite of universes? These universes coming and going? They do not all exist simultaneously. So what created the universe? What is this 'stuff' and how can it 'act' as an agent?

You can't have an infinite causality and get to the present causality, can you? Explain how it you think so. 

Next, if there is no intention then there is no purpose for the universe being here.
Again, so what?
So what is the agency that causes these bangs and crunches? Why does it happen? Without a being directing it there can be no 'why' for it happening, can there?

Are we being consistent with such a universe as that? 
I've asked this like a million times: WHY IS IT IMPORTANT TO BE "CONSISTENT" WITH THE UNIVERSE? The practical implication on every day life. I'll help: Person A is "consistent" with the universe, and therefore they can __________________, which person B, who is inconsistent with the universe, cannot. " Fill in the blank. 
Can find meaning, purpose, value for it. Thus, only one worldview is consistent with their core beliefs. The other deceives itself.  

Why do we discover (no intent) the laws of nature? These questions are usually left blank by atheists. Do you care to answer them, or should I expect the usual silence? 

I'll answer this one because it's easy: we're exceptionally good at spotting patterns., whether they're there or not. We're wrong as often as we're right. 
Why would there be patterns that are sustainable in a chaotic chance happenstance universe? Patterns contain information. Information is something minds extract. 

Can you tell me why these laws of nature are sustainable is they are a product of chance? I refer you to the example of the dice constainly rolling six. First, something has to trigger the roll. Second, unless the dice is fixed there is no REASON why six would continually roll, and the greater number of rolls the less likely of sustaining the same result. Chance has no motive, no ability to do anything consistently. It is not reasonable to believe. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@FLRW
If you believe in a kind loving God and your child dies of pediatric cancer, what are you left with?
Sadness and a comfort that the kingdom of heaven belongs to little children. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
No, I would not want to be found guilty on anecdotal evidence or hearsay. I fail to see how that ties in with God.  God has given all kinds of reasonable evidence, of which you are brushing off. I offered to debate you on the subject of prophecy, as to its reasonableness.
Prophecy would fall under 'spectral evidence' which you've noticeably neglected to mention, but this too is not admissible in a court of law.
I did not speak of it because I did not know what it meant and was busy so I did not take the time to look it up. Now I have and you must be joking. What was revealed in visions and dreams was witnessed in history. The history is the evidence that such things did come to pass as previously written about in the manner said. 

Would you accept spectral evidence alone to convict you of a murder you haven't committed yet? 
No, how could anyone be so stupid?A person cannot be convicted of a crime that has not been committed? You are conflating two different things, a conviction which works on what has happened and prophecy which works on something in the future that has not yet happened. The nature of prophecy is different.

I seriously doubt it. It seems you understand the standard of evidence you're advocating is insufficient for a court of law which would certainly make it insufficient to 'convict' the Biblical god of existence.  Something to think about...
The standard of evidence was accepted by the man (also founded Harvard Law School) who wrote a treatise on evidence that is still in use today. In that treatise he deals with what constitutes legal evidence in regards to witnesses and he considered the writers of Scripture to fit into the category of reliable evidence. And that aspect is just one of many proofs available. 

You are being ridiculous. One object plus another object equals two objectives. 1+1=2. It does not equal something else. If Christianity is true then all other gods and religious beliefs (of which I include atheism as a belief) are false. It is as simple as that. But it is difficult to convince and unbeliever since they have invested their whole outlook on another system of thought. Therefore, I have challenged you, based on atheism, to show yours is more reasonable than my Christian belief in the area of morality, of which you have to date avoided doing. 
In that case, your reasons for belief are not impossibility of the contrary. How can you argue impossibility of the contrary without evaluating the "contrary"? Aren't you just assuming the truth of your view without going through the standard you claim?
Truth is the gauge by which falsehood is measured. For there to be a counterfeit there must be a real to compare the counterfeit against. Once I have the real I have the standard. As I have said, if you want to pick a religion to compare the reasonableness and impossibility of the contrary them make a thread. I do not know of one of the major religions that do not contradict others in its teachings or doctrines. Thus, it is impossible that all but one, if any, can be true.  I argue that the Judeo-Christian belief system is the truth standard.

It is impossible that two contrary things can be true at the same time regarding the same thing. 

I provided a response to your challenge in post #238. 
I have responded to that post, but I am still making my way, in order, down the lists of posts. I am on page 10, where this post is found.

You are confusing God as a person with God as an explanation. God as an explanation is simple.  
Nothing can be 'simpler' than an infinite being, amIright?!
That is not my argument. The explanation is simple. He merely spoke the universe into existence. Very simple in comparison to let's say the Big Bang. 

How does 'subject' apply to God? I think you are confusing two different things, that a subjective being cannot be objective. Then how does God qualify? He knows all things. How would His knowledge be subjective? 
Is it your position an omniscient being is incapable of subjectivity?
What do you mean by subjectivity? I think you are crossing two definitions, that which applies to us and that which applies to God. 

Subjectivity is a central philosophical concept, related to consciousnessagencypersonhoodreality, and truth, which has been variously defined by sources. Three common definitions include that subjectivity is the quality or condition of:
  • Something being a subject, narrowly meaning an individual who possesses conscious experiences, such as perspectives, feelings, beliefs, and desires.[1]
  • Something being a subject, broadly meaning an entity that has agency, meaning that it acts upon or wields power over some other entity (an object).[2]
  • Some information, idea, situation, or physical thing considered true only from the perspective of a subject or subjects.
These various definitions of subjectivity are sometimes joined together in philosophy. The term is most commonly used as an explanation for that which influences, informs, and biases people's judgments about truth or reality; it is the collection of the perceptions, experiences, expectations, and personal or cultural understanding of, and beliefs about, an external phenomenon, that are specific to a subject.
Subjectivity is contrasted to the philosophy of objectivity, which is described as a view of truth or reality that is free of any individual's biases, interpretations, feelings, and imaginings.

How would God fit into that definition of subjectivity that is applied to you or I? He know all things. God knows the truth of reality. He created the physical reality. 

How would you square that with the Biblical god having a "chosen people"?!
He is not a 'respecter of people. He could have chosen anyone. He chose Israel as the vehicle to make Himself known and supply the Messiah, from whom He would save His people. 

Also, if you're willing to admit a subjective being can be objective...then you provide all that is needed for morality without the need for a god.
I am speaking of interpretation of the Bible and in understanding others. In the case of morality I question what the objective standard you profess that excludes God. You have still to reveal that objective standard you speak of. 

Are you saying that something supernatural is not personal,
No. I'm saying all too often what cannot be explained by our current understanding of nature is considered supernatural or attributed to it.
Supernatural would exclude nature as an explanation. If it is not natural it must be a being - yes or no?

Or are you speaking of a force such as in Starwars? If a force lacks personhood what can it do and would that force not be considered natural too, since it owes no explanation to personhood?
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne

Yes, Israel experienced chattel slavery in Egypt.
Per the Bible, Israel experienced chattel slavery in Egypt.  This was never in contention.
Good, you agree!


No, He did not codify chattel slavery. He forbid Israel from practicing the same harsh treatment that Israel experienced in Egypt. 
The verses you provide taken alone might be used to support your interpretation, but this is very much cherry picking. 
No, they are not cherry-picked. They are a principle God expected Israel to abide by, and Israel agreed

Consider other verses which show the God of the Bible does not consider other peoples equal to Israel.  (The notion of "God's chosen people" speaks to this)The verses I provided make that distinction clear (Exodus 21 and Leviticus 25:44-46).
You ignore other verses that clarify what God expected in the treatment of others. And in no way was the treatment the same as in Egypt or other ANE cultures. It was better. As already pointed out, and you cannot deny it for it is Scripture, a 'slave' must be bought, not kidnapped from other lands. Kidnapping was punishable by death. That meant that a slave would have to agree to serve a Hebrew master. 

Egyptian slavery was a bondage and oppression that God never wanted Israel to duplicate. It was a type of servitude that God forbade. Time and time again, God wants  us to treat others as we want others to be treated. If you are blessed by wealth and can afford to hire others God still wants you to treat them with respect and dignity. 

I could provide others, but I don't think you're open to that possibility.  Of course, if you are I can provide verses which may broaden your interpretation.
Go ahead, provide them. 

God orders the Israelites to make a distinction between the Hebrew servants and the those of foreign nations. They were:
·        Allowed to 'buy' (not take!) slaves from foreign nations around them...
·        Finally, it should be noted that the passage says that they "can" make them slaves for life--not that they "were automatically" slaves for life. Somehow, freedom was the default and lifetime slavery only an 'option'.

The Great Escape Clause…?
Deut 23.15 has this fascinating passage:
If a slave has taken refuge with you, do not hand him over to his master. 16 Let him live among you wherever he likes and in whatever town he chooses. Do not oppress him. (Deut 23.15)...
"A slave could also be freed by running away. According to Deuteronomy, a runaway slave is not to be returned to its master. He should be sheltered if he wishes or allowed to go free, and he must not be taken advantage of (Deut 23:16-17). This provision is strikingly different from the laws of slavery in the surrounding nations and is explained as due to Israel's own history of slaves. It would have the effect of turning slavery into a voluntary institution."

Remember also, Exodus 21:16 forbids kidnapping, thus a slave would have to be bought, per above, thus not against their will.
The mental gymnastics here is impressive. 'Lifetime slavery is only an option' - who's option - the master or the slave.  (Hint - it's not the slave).  This alone is a concession that the Bible does codify slavery. 
For you, you take a passage in ignorance of other passages that lay down other principles, such as I cited about how Israel was to treat the foreigner. I also laid down how Israel was to remember and never forget the harsh treatment they experienced in Egypt and not repeat it.

In a post to secularmerlin I covered the similarities between Israel's type of slavery to our type of slavery by those who employ us. We sign a contract. We agree to work under the conditions stipulated. While on their property we are responsible to abide by their rules. In a sense, we are part of their property while we work. Just like Israel, we are there for a better life. We have been bought for a price. The difference is that they a bought for life while that is not always our case. We are free to find another employer, another master who lays down the laws in the contract as to what we are responsible for. If we like our employer or the job we very well may stay with them for life. By law, an employer is not allowed to exploit us in unfair ways, but there are punishments for wrongdoing both for us and for our employer. The same is true with ancient Israel. And if there were abuses of power by the 'master' the 'slave' could flee and be safe, theoretically speaking. But even if the 'master' was unjust, he was still answerable to God, as stipulated hundreds of times in Scripture. We are all responsible for the way we treat others. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@FLRW
Schopenhauer declared that the true basis of morality is compassion or sympathy. The morality of an action can be judged in accordance with Kant's distinction of treating a person as an end not as a mere means. By drawing the distinction between egoism and unselfishness, Kant correctly described the criterion of morality. For Schopenhauer, this was the only merit of Kant's Groundwork of the Metaphysic of Morals.
So what? Are you saying that subjective beings choose to be unselfish, that they SHOULD? Look at the state of the world. Many disagree with such a principle. These two do not have what is necessary for objective morality in and of themselves. 

And the Bible, written before either of these thinkers reveals that it is good to love your neighbour and treat them with respect and dignity. It teaches unselfishness long before either of these people had a thought.
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@FLRW
Remember that there were 19 million miscarriages last year also. Doesn't god know anything about quality control? Why did god use atoms and 10 sextillion suns to create one planet that life would finally form on?
How many of those deaths are attributed to the individual and how they live that results in the miscarriage?

I don't know and I am not told why He used so many atoms. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@SkepticalOne
Also, as related to this thread, atheism/theism are not moral philosophies....neither are reasonable from a moral standpoint. In your thread you drop the theistic ambiguity and name Christianity, which is a moral view, but again, you compare it to atheism which is not a moral philosophy. The comparison itself is not reasonable.

Its like you're pitting "Kumbaya" against silence and asking which is better music. There is a category error in the comparison.
I only defend one moral theistic position for I believe that the many contrary positions cannot all be true/valid. Thus, I always point to the Christian God. It is you and others who espouse other gods as possible. That argument is left for another day. I only espouse other gods as fictions in people's minds, perhaps the greatest of which is the god of self, created by atheists, as the final arbitor in deciding what is the case. Have you bowed to yourself today? 

Yes, one is reasonable. It presents what is necessary for morality - mindfulness/person. From the ontology of the other somehow minds evolve out of what - nonconscious matter. How??? No one seems to know for sure (pure speculation if any thought at all on the subject) and they can't demonstrate it experientially, yet they still believe it is possible. It defies logic. If you think otherwise demonstrate how chance happenstance/unintentionality is capable of producing mindful beings. 

You continually view God as nothing in your confirmation bias. 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@zedvictor4
Not all human beings are treated with equality and dignity.
Nope, never have been and will not be for the foreseeable future.
So, it should not bother you if you are being consistent with atheism in which the universe is a meaningless mass of matter. It would be inconsistent with your starting point, and you would, as an atheist, be borrowing from a different worldview (one I might add that is consistent with morality and has what is necessary for morality).

When you say, 'never has been' why would you expect anything better? Freedom is only as far away as the next vote or the next dictator.   

And neither the bible nor the U.S. actually promotes such morals. 
Wrong. There is no free man nor slave, no female of male but all are one in Jesus Christ. The biblical teaching promotes loving others and looking out for their best interests. 

Altruistic lip service in the pursuit of wealth and power is typically human, hypocrisy. 
Definitely demonstrated by your Democrat party. There is something dreadfully wrong with people who vote for those who are trying to undermine your freedoms with such lies and deception as to gain power at all costs, IMO. Definitely Machiavellian. 

When people adopt a system that cannot justify itself what would you expect but hypocrisy and selfishness? 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@Tradesecret
just for the record - I am not an American. I am from the southern hemisphere. In the area known as Oceania. 
Thanks! I think you revealed this to me before. Sorry. Nevertheless, the example of America is one I think that most on this thread would relate to. 
Created:
1
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
So it is about you! What is good is about you? Do you think your system of thought as an atheist is morally justifiable? If so, justify why your subjective opinion is better than mine and how you measure better when there is no fixed reference as a comparison???
Better is a subjective term. It is only useful if we first have a reference point. If the reference point is human welfare then I believe my view is "better" at promoting welfare. If the reference point is some possibly fictional god then until the god is demonstrate along with s ok me methodology for unambiguously (not subject to interpretation) determining the will of said god then even if it exists we are still all just guessing. If I understand your method properly it is very suspect specifically because it is subject to interpretation which allows subjective opinions to again enter the conversation.
How can it be better if it is subjective? Better in relation to what???

Well-being, in whose opinion?

Human welfare in whose opinion, the woman who kills her unborn human child? How is that well-being for the unborn? You selectively choose who you will apply wellbeing to. When food is short are you still going to be looking for the wellbeing of your neighbour? Look at the world around you and see how, in practicality or livability, this principle of wellbeing works in most countries of the world, especially socialist and communist atheistic states. 

You do not have what is necessary for the reference point if it is based on relative subjective opinion rather than an objective, omniscient, universally applicable, fixed, absolute reference point which is a being since morality is a mindful thing. As I said, why is your definition of goodness in the area of wellbeing the standard we all SHOULD believe?

And in an atheist system of ethics how do you cross the hurdle of non-living, non-conscious to living and conscious, the two things first needed for morality? There is a big gulf there that you cannot transverse for your system of thought again does not have what is necessary. 

As a biological machine that is determined by your environment, your genetic makeup, and other influencing factors, how is that good or bad? It is just whatever your genes are triggered to do. Some love their neighbours, others kill them. It depends on chance happenstance. It is what is, and how do you get an ought from an is? 
Created:
0
Posted in:
Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?
-->
@secularmerlin
Is it okay to kill innocent unborn human beings because you don't want them?
Is it okay to violate my bodily autonomy and force me to donate my kidney to a dying human? Is refusing to donate my kidney the same as killing the human in question? 
What selfish thinking. What about the body of the unborn? What about harvesting its bodily parts? 

A kidney and a human being are two different things. The analogy you give sucks. What we are dealing with are TWO human beings, one unborn and the other born. What you propose to do with the unborn - kill it - you would not with a born human being. YOU do not treat all human beings equally. Those who support your ill-founded position suppress and descriminate a class of human beings, dehumanizing and demonizing them all for the sake of avoiding the responsibility of the woman. In around 99% of cases she chose to have sex, she chose to take the relationship to the level where engaging in sex could result in the creation of another human being. Then she wants to wash her hands of the situation because it is not convenient and a thousand other poor reasons to murder it. Very seldom is the position of taking the life of the unborn justifiable. 

So, you need to justify that human beings should not all be treated equally under the law. Are you willing to go there? Okay, you first. You should be the first to experience unequal treatment, should you not? Or can you not live with your own standard???
Created:
0