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@3RU7AL
I like the atheist reason of a random chance universe coming into existence for who knows what as not magical.An unknown/unknowable "first cause" has exactly the same utility and explanatory power as "god(s)".
The Christian God is knowable. He reasons with humanity in both by 1) what He has made and 2) by His written word.
1) Romans 1:19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. 20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
2) 1 John 2:13
I am writing to you, fathers, because you know Him who has been from the beginning. I am writing to you, young men, because you have overcome the evil one. I have written to you, children, because you know the Father.
I have written to you, fathers, because you know Him who has been from the beginning. I have written to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God abides in you, and you have overcome the evil one.
2 Corinthians 10:3-5
3 For though we walk in the flesh, we do not war according to the flesh,4 for the weapons of our warfare are not of the flesh, but divinely powerful for the destruction of fortresses. 5 We are destroying speculations and every lofty thing raised up against the knowledge of God, and we are taking every thought captive to the obedience of Christ,
in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge.
If I say "unknown/unknowable-first-cause" (noumenon) and you say "god(s)", THEN WHAT?Which one of us knows "more" about our universe?
What do you truly know about it and how did you come to this knowledge? Which theory of the universe do you hold to? Why is your view the necessary view of how and why the universe exists?
How are theses explanations FUNCTIONALLY DISTINCT?
What do you mean?
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@3RU7AL
Example B restated: (IFF) a creator god is the only thing that exists necessarily (AND) nothing exists that this god hath not wrought (THEN) everything is necessarily comprised wholly of bits of this type of proposed creator god.Example B is somewhat like a pantheistic view of "god" as all and in all and on par with what is (i.e., not transcendent). It would be like saying that a painting is part of the artist instead of created by the artist, or the painting and the artist are one, or the painting is derived from the same substance. A painting does not have the DNA of the artist, does it? Granted, it requires the artist for its existence.Imagine an artist, floating in a vast blackness of empty space. This artist wants to create a work of art. What do you think they will use to create this magnum opus?
Since it is your scenario, and I have no idea of how it relates to the above, you tell me, then I will discuss whether I think it is reasonable or not.
Example A restated: (IFF) a god is fundamentally separate from the material realm (THEN) such a god cannot possibly interact with the material realm in any way whatsoever.Why?God is separate in His nature from the material realm. God is also not created whereas the material realm would be. The universe is contingent [i.e., occurring or existing only if (certain circumstances) are the case; dependent on] on something else for its existence. God is not.A hypothetical god can (EITHER) be interactive and therefore fundamentally similar to all things in existence (OR) non-interactive and therefore fundamentally dissimilar to all things in existence.
Your hypothesis makes no sense.
First, you are assuming He is hypothetical based on your logic above. Second, why can't the biblical God interact with what He creates?
If you make something it did not exist in the form you made it before you made it.
He is similar in some ways (i.e., reason, logic, personal, conscious) yet His essential nature is different in other ways, just like your nature is different from that of a bird since you can fly - it is not in your nature. You have a physicality to your nature, He does not. You have a beginning to your nature, He does not. Thus, you are created, He is not. The universe has a beginning, He does not.
An interactive god is necessarily and fundamentally 100% of existence.
And what makes you think the biblical God is not interactive in every aspect of His creation?
Acts 17:24-30
24 The God who made the world and all things in it, since He is Lord of heaven and earth, does not dwell in temples made with hands; 25 nor is He served by human hands, as though He needed anything, since He Himself gives to all people life and breath and all things; 26 and He made from one man every nation of mankind to live on all the face of the earth, having determined their appointed times and the boundaries of their habitation,27 that they would seek God, if perhaps they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not far from each one of us; 28 for in Him we live and move and exist, as even some of your own poets have said, ‘For we also are His children.’ 29 Being then the children of God, we ought not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold or silver or stone, an image formed by the art and thought of man. 30 Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent, 31 because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all men by raising Him from the dead.”
24 The God who made the world and all things in it, since He is Lord of heaven and earth, does not dwell in temples made with hands; 25 nor is He served by human hands, as though He needed anything, since He Himself gives to all people life and breath and all things; 26 and He made from one man every nation of mankind to live on all the face of the earth, having determined their appointed times and the boundaries of their habitation,27 that they would seek God, if perhaps they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not far from each one of us; 28 for in Him we live and move and exist, as even some of your own poets have said, ‘For we also are His children.’ 29 Being then the children of God, we ought not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold or silver or stone, an image formed by the art and thought of man. 30 Therefore having overlooked the times of ignorance, God is now declaring to men that all people everywhere should repent, 31 because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all men by raising Him from the dead.”
A non-interactive god is necessarily and fundamentally indistinguishable from non-existent (it can't see or know us and we can't see or know it).
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@ludofl3x
No, my argument is that you can't make sense of the big questions without first presupposing God.Actually quite similar to MY argument: that YOU can't make sense of them without presupposing God. I don't presuppose God and I don't need to 'make sense' of any 'big question.'
You don't have to make sense of the big question yet you would be inconsistent in denying God (or the reasonableness of the Bible) if you did not examine the big questions. The big questions try to answer the reasons why we are here. I content you cannot make sense of them without God. And you are free to live without considering them but when bad things happen don't try to look for meaning or justice in them (which we all do). It doesn't matter unless we are here for a reason. This is just another aspect of a God-denying worldview that makes no sense.
What do you consider evidence? IF God has revealed Himself to humanity by people inspired to write down this revelation (which Scripture reveals) THEN the Scriptures should provide evidence that confirms His word and in occasions like origins give reasonable and logical ideas of why we are here that can make sense of the universe and us existing.Evidence: Something that isn't the claim. Start with evidence for the underlined, but you're already a step too far. You have to support that your god in the bible is the one that exists (going back to the other topic,only because I've granted you that A god exists, you have to prove it to be YOUR god), THEN that he revealed himself to humans, by asking illiterate people to write down stories in books. Then we can discuss why the books are so weird that they are extremely unlikely to be true.
How is history the claim? Was Jerusalem destroyed in AD 70? Did the OT economy cease to be able to be followed as stipulated in the OT? Was the OT written before the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70? Was a Messiah prophesied to come to a Mosaic Covenant people? Were there specifics about the Messiah that fit Jesus Christ? Did these OT prophets warn of coming judgment by God if these people did not repent? Did the Bible list places that have been confirmed by archaeology? Did it list people and events that have been confirmed by history?
If you say yes to any of these questions then this is evidence that confirms what the Bible says is true.
Wordlview, again one of your favorite words, are another topic which you're free to start.
Everyone who is capable of rational thought has a worldview, a web of beliefs with core presuppositions that the rest of their outlook is built upon (Matthew 7:24-29).
But I ask you again: if I told you that I know a person who said Xenu, the god of Scientology, and DEFINITELY Xenu, not Jesus disguised as Xenu, told him to write that something that had never happened before, that math couldn't predict, in such a way that literally anyone can see proof of it, and the results cannot be questioned or interpreted, it really, really happened, would you then allow for the possibility that Xenu is real?
If you could prove Xenu with reason and logic, I would ask you to do so, so go ahead if you want to base your beliefs on Xenu.
One thing is certain, two beliefs that state the opposite of each other can't both be true. Now you can live in denial because you are not interested in the big questions/life's ultimate questions but as soon as you start doubting and denying God you are being inconsistent because you have not looked at the big questions, reasons for our existence. I claim over and over that your worldview can't make sense of the big questions thus you have no basis to deny God. My worldview can consistently make sense of the big questions.
Any result can be questioned.
What the atheist tries to do is make it seem that the evidence is not there regarding the biblical God, or that it is not reasonable which I claim it is. What the atheist tries to do is shut down the conversation before hearing the proofs/evidence which is not reasonable in any way.
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@ludofl3x
How would you know this God unless He had revealed Himself and He has chosen to do that by His word? The Bible reveals His word is powerful enough to create the universe, just by speaking it into existence.Powerful enough to create the universe, not powerful enough to find a way around the severe limitation of only appearing in a book from one of the least literate cultures in one of the least literate times in the history of humanity. If it's so important to him, he could reveal himself again, right?
No, you are mistaken. He does not appear in a book. He is revealed via the words contained within but that revelation has Him interacting in human history. Therefore, we should be able to see human history reflecting what He has revealed about it. That is why prophecy is evidence that His word is true.
Again, what evidence do you have to present stating that OT Israel was one of the "least literate times" in the history of humanity?
The biblical teaching is that God has given humanity everything needed to know Him and restore a relationship with Him. There is no need for further written testimony.
The footnote helps explain something about the Scripture.That's one way to look at it. The other way is "it was added after the fact to make events fit into its otherwise incorrect timeline."
Sure, they were added after the fact. They are a guideline for further understanding. Some footnotes provide an understanding of possible meanings of a word.
You can see how bringing it in, at the very least, means you're no longer talking about PURE scripture, right? That and the fact that the words that would have allowed for a more impressive level of specificity existed in the bible are a problem. If the Daniel X: YZ said "490 years from now, Romans will tear down our temple," you'd have a much better case. This is closer to the case I can cite.
The Gettysburg Address could have been stated differently too.
"Four score and seven years ago our fathers brought forth on this continent, a new nation, conceived in Liberty, and dedicated to the proposition that all men are created equal. Now we are engaged in a great civil war, testing whether that nation, or any nation so conceived and so
dedicated, can long endure."
Why did Lincoln not state 87 years if he wanted to make his meaning more clear? It was because the culture of the time understood what was meant better then we would today because "four score" was a commonly understood term for years, a score being twenty years. Likewise, a heptad was a group of seven/seven years.
In order to understand the Bible, you have to understand the culture of the time to some degree since the words directly we addressed to that audience of address, then us as the secondary audience of address.
If I can cite such a case, which I can, and told you the prophet said it was Xenu who told him to write it when he did, would you say Xenu is probably real?
What is the nature of the prophecy and how detailed are the accounts? How well do the accounts match what we know of the history and archaeology of the times in which they were written?
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@Yassine
Funny, I would argue (and have) the same attributes (1-4) for the God of Christianity- Almost, but not quite. Christianity adds an extra couple things, Intelligent Omnibenevolent God, which the Quran does not decree.
Intelligence goes without speaking, but where do you find a specific reference to His intelligence in the Bible?
I don't understand. Is Allah not all good and are some of the things done by Allah evil?
yet the teaching of the Qu'ran and the Bible differ in many respects so do you think we are speaking of the same God or that one of us is not worshiping God as He truly is?- I believe we are worshipping the same God, of course in different terms. Arab Christians & Jews call God Allah as well, just like Muslims: "To each of you We prescribed a law and a method. Had Allah willed, He would have made you one nation [united in religion], but [He intended] to test you in what He has given you; so race to [all that is] good. To Allah is your return all together, and He will [then] inform you concerning that over which you used to differ." (5:48)
How can we worship the same God when what we believe about Him differ? I accept that you call God Allah.
The teachings of Jesus state:
John 4:22-24 (NASB)
22 You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews. 23 But an hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth; for such people the Father seeks to be His worshipers.
24 God is
spirit, and those who worship Him must worship
in spirit and truth.”
If we are not worshiping God as He truly is then are we not committing idolatry, a false concept of God? If so, then how can you say we are all worshiping the same God if one of us identifies Him as all good in all He does and the other does not?
What we have in common is what we as Christians call the OT. Both religions acknowledge the OT yet the teachings of both religions contradict each other many times.- That is true. Of course we don't believe in the Trinity, in the divinity of Jesus (pbuh), in his crucifixion or resurrection ; though we believe he is the Messiah & of virgin birth.
Those underlined points are key/vital truths of Christianity. This brings me to another point - do you have to earn salvation in Islam and how would you know you have achieved a right standing with God/Allah? IOW's, is your acceptance with God/Allah based on what you do?
As a Christian, I believe that Mohammed was influenced by Christianity but here again the teachings differ from the NT teaching in what is contained in the Qu'ran.- The thing about Islam is that it does not deny in other religion. On the contrary, it approves of all God's religions, Christianity or Judaism or Zoroastrianism...etc. We believe these are actually all one religion, that is Islam, with slightly different paths, though most have not been perfectly preserved.
So, when another religion teaches what is contrary to Islam then which one is right/true?
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@ludofl3x
Your god's existence shouldn't be contingent on a book being true.
If that book says it is His word, His revelation, then the historical evidence shown should back up biblical claims, where these claims are verifiable.
His existence is not contingent on the book, but our understanding of Him is to a large degree. A personal revelation of Him as He works in human history is verification of who He is and what He has done. The Bible explains this is the way God has chosen to reveal Himself to those (us) who did not have a personal relationship with Him during OT times when He directly interceded with His people and led them out of Egypt to the Promised Land, then He demonstrated Himself to them while in the Promised Land. Other than such a revelation we can't know God personally. He reveals the way to a personal relationship is through His Son and through a correct understanding of His Son and what He has done. It is a blueprint for that relationship. It is a blueprint to understand how God has interacted in human history in the past and why now the Son is the key to such a relationship. The Son has accomplished all we need for that relationship is His atonement for sin. Thus, God does not have to continually demonstrate Himself to humanity by outward signs and wonders. The transformation is an inner one. We come to know and grow in God's love for us by a relationship with Him through His word and by His Spirit.
It's the other way around: your book being true has to be contingent on the existence of the god within it, as far as I can tell.
How would you know this God unless He had revealed Himself and He has chosen to do that by His word? The Bible reveals His word is powerful enough to create the universe, just by speaking it into existence. Jesus spoke as one having authority. If you do not accept that authority how do you expect to know Him? He has made it the vehicle by which we come to faith through.
As far as "making sense" of the "big questions," you're not doing that either. Your answer to all of these questions is "Well, god did it this way, it must make sense even if I can't tell exactly how, or impart exactly how to others in such a way that they concur, so therefore it makes sense."
No, my argument is that you can't make sense of the big questions without first presupposing God. If these ultimate questions are dependent on our subjective minds the question becomes which minds since we all seem to have different ideas on everything. There are always different theories being proposed as we learn more about our universe. It begs the question of how we know that what we know now is the correct theory. Thomas Kuhn explained this nicely in his book, The Structure of Scientific Revolutions.
It only pushed the question back one more step. Watch, I'll demonstrate: please advise why your existence makes sense.
It only makes sense if a necessary Being has revealed what is true or we think the thoughts of such a being after Him.
Please advise why your or my thoughts are of any significance on why we are here or how you KNOW these thoughts are true regarding the big picture if there is no necessary being. I do not see you as necessary in my being and the same could be said of yours in regards to me (i.e., demonstrate I am here because of your being)? I don't believe you can demonstrate I am here because of chance happenstance but I am willing to hear your claim, however, I don't think this is the post for it since it specifically touches on prophecy. This banter is just a preamble because you asked for a reason.
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@ludofl3x
You forgot the footnote.The footnote isn't in the scripture. Otherwise it'd just be in the text. It is outside the scripture, and by that definition you are not using the bible anymore.
The footnote helps explain something about the Scripture.
It's no longer a biblical scripture, it's biblical plus something else that is not purported to be breathed by god himself. The bible features in other places the words "year", "week", "four" "hundred" "ninety", "Rome" and "Temple." If the prophecy used these words and not the interpretation ex facto of a story of someone else's dream about a statue with feet of clay, you might be able to call this a biblical prophesy. Of course, there'd be no way to tell if god was the reason it were true. AND you'd still have to square how this one part being right eliminates tons of other instances where it's objectively wrong.
The underlined text explained in my previous post.
Again, your bias is evident. You do not want to hear the explanation as to why prophecy is an indication of the Bible (which says thousands of times that God spoke/said) as reliable and accurate, and extremely detailed from cover to cover, unlike any other religious writing.I want to hear evidence. Not the repackaged claim. "The bible is true," you say, "and therefore this is the only god who's ever existed." Okay, say I, what evidence do you have of that? You say "The bible says it's true, and this one thing in it happened if you squint really hard, that means all other things in it happened."
I do not believe you want to hear the evidence. You keep denying me doing this. I have given you a reasonable and logical reply but I constantly see you shutting down the dialogue, as I will underline below.
I say "No, that's what the bible SAYS. I want to know how I can tell if it's TRUE." I've even bolded the part of your argument where you literally say that: the bible says god said this. That is not evidence that the bible is true, THAT IS THE CLAIM. I'm totally willing to talk about beliefs or whatever in another thread. This thread is about prophecy. Start a different topic.
How can I explain the Bible without reference to it? Prophecy provides a biblical claim and the historical evidence verifies the claim.
What if I told you that someone successfully prophesied something that had literally NEVER happened before (there was no historical precedent, unlike Romans destroying temples in other cultures), essentially to the exact date that such an event would happen (closed ended on the time and eliminating any external retrofitting), that the entire world witnessed it and could verify the prophesy as having come to pass (is not contingent on any faith proposition), that math was not involved (so this example is not something that could have been derived through calculation as inevitable), there was written proof of the prophesy that literally anyone could (and can) go see, to this day, and there is absolutely no room or need for any interpretation? If I could show you that and you were convinced what I just described was true, would that mean the predictor was somehow inspired by one of the many gods who are reported to exist?It would add reasons to the reasonableness of the claim of that god existing. Compile this with hundreds, even thousands of other prophecies plus the nature of the biblical account then it would be most reasonable to believe. Who do you know that can predict the future in such detail and with such accuracy?So if I could show you something that undeniably prophetic and the author said Xenu was the one who told him the details, would that mean Xenu was likely to be real in your mind? Would it make any dent in your belief? If not, then what's the point of prophesy as a tool to prop up your belief system? I literally know someone who did exactly what I described, and unlike you, I can provide evidence. I don't want to bother if you're just going to say "That was really Jesus in disguise."What you do continually is disingenuous. You challenge me to present why I think the Christian God has given evidence for His existence that is reasonable and logical to believe and when I start to do this you wriggle out of the discussion claiming before you hear the evidence that it will not stand. How reasonable is thisI say provide evidence that the biblical stories are true. You have only replied with long versions of "because the bible says it's true." THat's the claim, it isn't evidence. I'm more than willing to hear evidence that does not point at the claim.
What do you consider evidence? I have provided a standard definition and you deny that it is evidence.
You keep blocking me from presenting the reasonableness and logic of the evidence by shutting it down. For your purposes, IF God has revealed Himself to humanity by people inspired to write down this revelation (which Scripture reveals) THEN the Scriptures should provide evidence that confirms His word and in occasions like origins give reasonable and logical ideas of why we are here that can make sense of the universe and us existing.
No matter what worldview you choose, how does it make sense of the universe and our existence? I presume you are an atheist. I do not believe your worldview is capable of making sense of the "why." I can demonstrate this by getting into the nuts and bolts of your worldview once you reveal it because it would have to believe things that are not logical or reasonable to believe.
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@bsh1
1. d. Yes.
2. No.
3. Yes, although this will probably lessen the number of people willing to judge a debate and extend the time it takes to judge a debate.
4. Yes, although this could also be considered a matter of opinion in regards to subsection C depending on one's worldview bias.
5. Yes.
6. Yes.
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@keithprosser
But it's not as pithy, and less open to emotional attacks like "Should we then kill all of the people who have birth defects?!?!" which no one thinks. "Survival of the fittest" some people think means "survival of the animal in the best physical shape" when it literally means "most fit to survive."
I believe it means those who survive are considered the fittest.
It's quite important to note that 'survival of the fittest' is a statement of what occurred in the past to produce the world as it is today. What it is not is a statement of how things should be because science doesn't deal with 'should' questions - that is the job of philosophers and politicians.
Very well said!
David Hume said you can't get an ought from an is (and vice-versa). Another way of saying that is that science is descriptive. It describes what is, whereas morality is prescriptive. Morality describes what ought to be. I do not believe something purely physical that lacks consciousness is good or bad because it lacks intent.
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@3RU7AL
@ludofl3x
I feel like the answer is going to be "because it's so mysterious / mystifying, that's how it works and you don't understand it, just believe it first then you'll understand it is true."(IFF) god is "magnum mysterium" or "ein sof" (THEN) you should never-ever attempt to describe or explain it to anyone ever.Interesting. I wonder if that would lead then to "if I can't describe it to anyone, and they can't describe it to me, even if we agree, what are we even talking about, how would I know anything at all about this idea."
The Christian God can be described and made sense of in regards to what He has revealed of Himself to humanity through His Spirit and Word, and by what He has made, the creation.
Which brings us right back to deism at best. And as I believe you pointed out already, if your deism is one where a god does not interact in any way with the material world in any way that makes its presence plain, and this god totally defies description, then I'm pretty sure it functions exactly the same as atheism.
No, the Judea-Christian God has interacted with His creation and created beings. Thus, He is a specific and personal God, not just any deity.
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@ludofl3x
I feel like the answer is going to be "because it's so mysterious / mystifying, that's how it works and you don't understand it, just believe it first then you'll understand it is true."
I like the atheist reason of a random chance universe coming into existence for who knows what as not magical.
I also like that the atheistic understanding (since they don't know) lacks what is necessary for certainty in knowing how it works or why it exists (i.e., it just is) yet they rule out the Christian God.
Basically, atheism answers nothing nor has the means for making it clear why the universe is here. It all starts from particular assumed starting points but can't make sense of why the universe is here.
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@3RU7AL
There seems to be a logical conflict between,1. One (unique & simple)and4. Transcendent (disjoint from HIs creation)and3. Absolutely Willing (omniscient & omnipotent)Example A: (IFF) 4. (THEN) 3. is impossible.Example B: (IFF) 1. (THEN) 4. is impossible.Example B restated: (IFF) a creator god is the only thing that exists necessarily (AND) nothing exists that this god hath not wrought (THEN) everything is necessarily comprised wholly of bits of this type of proposed creator god.
Example B is somewhat like a pantheistic view of "god" as all and in all and on par with what is (i.e., not transcendent). It would be like saying that a painting is part of the artist instead of created by the artist, or the painting and the artist are one, or the painting is derived from the same substance. A painting does not have the DNA of the artist, does it? Granted, it requires the artist for its existence.
Example A restated: (IFF) a god is fundamentally separate from the material realm (THEN) such a god cannot possibly interact with the material realm in any way whatsoever.
Why?
God is separate in His nature from the material realm. God is also not created whereas the material realm would be. The universe is contingent [i.e., occurring or existing only if (certain circumstances) are the case; dependent on] on something else for its existence. God is not.
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@3RU7AL
Interesting, 94% accuracy, as compared to other methods, but how does this relate to far off prophecy, like 100-400 years (in some cases over a 1000 years later)? And who used SWARM AI 2000-3000 years ago?Speaking of highly accurate prophecy... [LINK]
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@Yassine
- Interesting question. I don't know how Christians would answer this, but in Islam it be would redundant, for the proof of God's existence proceeds from the definition of God itself as stated in the Quran. From chapter 112 (Tawheed), Allah is: 1. One (unique & simple), 2. Self-sufficient (necessarily existent), 3. Absolutely Willing (omniscient & omnipotent), 4. Transcendent (disjoint from HIs creation). Once you prove that an omnipotent & omniscient, transcendent & singular God exists, that is Allah.
Funny, I would argue (and have) the same attributes (1-4) for the God of Christianity yet the teaching of the Qu'ran and the Bible differ in many respects so do you think we are speaking of the same God or that one of us is not worshiping God as He truly is? What we have in common is what we as Christians call the OT. Both religions acknowledge the OT yet the teachings of both religions contradict each other many times.
As a Christian, I believe that Mohammed was influenced by Christianity but here again the teachings differ from the NT teaching in what is contained in the Qu'ran.
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@keithprosser
That people no longer exist in covenant with God after AD 70 because they cannot meet the agreement they made with God.By 'that people' you mean 'Jews'.
I make the distinction between OT Jews and Jews today. Do you understand the difference?
Jews today are Rabinnical for they cannot follow the Mosaic Law as they agreed to in that covenant, with all its regulations and stipulations.
Exodus 24:3 (NASB)
3 Then Moses came and recounted to the people all the words of the Lord and all the ordinances; and all the people answered with one voice and said, “All the words which the Lord has spoken we will do!”...7 Then he took the book of the covenant and read it in the hearing of the people; and they said, “All that the Lord has spoken we will do, and we will be obedient!”
3 Then Moses came and recounted to the people all the words of the Lord and all the ordinances; and all the people answered with one voice and said, “All the words which the Lord has spoken we will do!”...7 Then he took the book of the covenant and read it in the hearing of the people; and they said, “All that the Lord has spoken we will do, and we will be obedient!”
Show me where the Jews today are obedient to that covenant in following all its mandates???
"Jews no longer exist in covenant with God after AD 70 because they cannot meet the agreement they made with God."One notes that this suggests god did not extend his covenant to include the gentiles but transferred his patronage to the gentiles, casting the jews aside.
No, that is not what Scripture teaches. Those who believe in Jesus, Jew or Gentile, form part of the New Covenant. There is now no distinction. The covenant is open to all. The point is that the Mosaic Covenant Jews no longer exist in the covenant. That covenant was made null and void in AD 70 (some argue in AD 30 with the crucifixion). God judged them and their disobedience to that covenant like He promised in Deuteronomy 28:15, and following, and continued to warn them of the curses if they did not repent throughout the OT.
To a secular cynic like me it appears that preterism/replacement theology arose sometime in the 16th century as a theological justification of anti-semitist.
True preterism is not replacement theology but I contend a rightful interpretation of both the OT and the NT. The OT promised God would make a new covenant with the House of Israel and it would include the Gentiles.
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@keithprosser
The 'prophecies' in daniel are accurate upto about 200bc, which is understandable if they aren't genuine prophecies but forgeries wriiten after the events. The accuracy stops about 150 bc - there is no mention if the maccabbean revolts for instance.
If this is a copy that is traced back to 150 BCE (per the Dead Sea Scrolls) it is reasonable to believe the original dated way before this for a number of reasons, one of which is the transmission from the original. It takes time.
Another factor that gives reason to believe it is older is the language that is used in some places of Daniel related more to the 6th-century BCE.
The following site gives seven pieces of evidence for an earlier date in the 6th-century.
It raises the question:
Naturalist's views for dating the book of Daniel are based on false assumptions about prophecy. Since we can verify Daniel's prophetic ideas came true, then Daniel's words appear to come from outside time-space. The date for writing the book of Daniel must be pushed back to match the text and linguistic style of the 5th century BCE.
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"the Jewish historian Josephus in Antiquities of the Jews 11.8.5 (c.93-94 A.D.) records that when Alexander the Great approached Jerusalem (c.333 B.C.), the High Priest Jaddua met him and showed Alexander part of the book of Daniel where the Greeks would overcome the Persians. Alexander apparently was impressed and left the Jews alone.
Origen (225-254 A.D.) says that when Alexander of Macedon came to Jerusalem, the Jewish high priest, clothed in his sacred robe met him. Alexander bowed before him, saying that he had seen someone with the same robe in his dream, announcing that he was to be the subjugator of all of Asia. Origen Against Celsus book 4 ch.50 p.565"
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Antiquities of the Jews 11.8.5
"And when the Book of Daniel was showed him [i.e., Alexander] (23) wherein Daniel declared that one of the Greeks should destroy the empire of the Persians, he supposed that himself was the person intended. And as he was then glad, he dismissed the multitude for the present; but the next day he called them to him, and bid them ask what favors they pleased of him; whereupon the high priest desired that they might enjoy the laws of their forefathers, and might pay no tribute on the seventh year. He granted all they desired. And when they entreared him that he would permit the Jews in Babylon and Media to enjoy their own laws also, he willingly promised to do hereafter what they desired. And when he said to the multitude, that if any of them would enlist themselves in his army, on this condition, that they should continue under the laws of their forefathers, and live according to them, he was willing to take them with him, many were ready to accompany him in his wars."
All that is very conventional - I'd say most scholars who aren't literalists say more or less the same thing; it's the line taken by Wikipedia for instance.
I would question their motive in doing so. I say this because I have looked at the rise of Higher Criticism and the ideology behind it which I have documented briefly in other threads. Most liberal scholars have this ideology and framework in mind (i.e., no God) when they examine Scripture because their agenda determines how they will look at Scripture.
IMO Daniel was written to bolster Jewish nationalism during a period when they were heavily oppressed by the Seleucids who seriously threatened the continuation of Jewish cultural identity - the Hebrew language was losing out to Greek, for instance. Daniel purported to say this dip in Jewish fortunes was long foretold, so the imminent restoration of Israels greatness it also foretold would be believed.
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@keithprosser
The Book of Daniel purports itself to have been written by a Jew living in 6th century BC Persia, however I believe it was written much later, between 200 and 150 BC. I'm sorry I didn't make myself clearer.
Please list each one of your pieces of evidence or claims that we can examine them as to their reasonableness.
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@keithprosser
If we disagree on when Daniel was written doubt we'll agree on anything else about it!
That is fine. We disagree. The question is whose view is more reasonable and consistent with what is known. Did you notice how ludofl3x avoids the discussion? He doesn't want to see the evidence nor its logical consistency. He never answered my questions in my first post. This is the tactic I get every time I go into any attempt in proving my position - the opposition feigns irrelevancy without the evidence even being presented. So he sets up a thread and then puts up all kinds of roadblocks to prevent me from giving evidence.
I've been looking into it,and there is no shortage of interpretations of Daniel's prophecy even amongst the faithful.
Granted, yet how consistent to the prophecy are they? I believe that only the two scenarios I gave in the challenge are consistent. I will go along with disproving the others as logically inconsistent. The two I hold to as reasonable and logical (which no one seems interested in hearing because they keep shutting down the dialogue) are taken either from a literal Philip Mauro explanation or from rounding off of the seventy sevens, as can be demonstrated as happening from many other Scriptures. Either way, I believe they are both reasonable and logical explanations, whereas I have not found another view as being able to demonstrate this (including the Orthodox Jewish views I have looked at).
it's not easy to put myself in the position of a 1stC BC Jew so I can't be sure what it's intended audience would make of it. I doubt many ordinary Jews read it for themselves, not only because of illiteracy but the lack of copies - no printing in those days! How it was presnted to them would matter alot, but we can't know anything about it.
1. What is your evidence for this illiteracy theory?
2. Many, possibly most, Jews in the 1st-century would know their Scriptures. They would be versed in them. Here comes a Man, claiming to be sent from God, accepting the notion by those closest to Him that He was their Messiah, telling them of judgment within their generation.
3. This Messianic figure is cut off or killed, according to their own Scripture, and there are many reports that He has risen from the dead and many Jews come to faith in Him after His resurrection under intense persecution.
4. This teaching of the risen Christ changed the course of history.
[1] I imagine most ordinary Jews of the time accepted that a man could predict events 500 or more years in his future. I don't! [2] Nor do I accept your interpretation of the significance of 70 AD. [3] Theologially, it is a visible sign of the transition from the old covenant to the new, essentially a symbol of God breaking with the Jews and transferring his patronage to the gentile world.
[1] No, you don't because, IMO, you are a skeptic who makes excuses to not believe. Why would you believe in Someone you don't want to believe in?
[2] Whether you accept the significance of AD 70 or not, the whole system of worship, what their whole economy and faith rested upon was destroyed. After AD 70 they could no longer worship God as they had agreed to in their Mosaic Covenant. I find this is indisputable, but if you wish I can demonstrate that they can no longer meet the Mosaic covenant regulations after AD 70. The priesthood is gone, the genealogical records that trace the lineage of the priesthood and Messiah are destroyed, the temple is destroyed, the animal sacrifices cannot be performed as required for the atonement of sin and a right relationship with God, the feast days can no longer be honored in the manner required, and the prophesied Messiah who was to come to these covenant people is no longer possible since the covenant is destroyed.
[3] AD 70 is a completion of the transition of the old to the new. Every prophecy of the OT that I am familiar with, IMO, can be demonstrated to be fulfilled reasonably. I don't see how you can understand some of these prophecies in the application after AD 70 because they deal with an OT people, their Messiah, and judgment or curses (per Deuteronomy 28:15 onwards).
I don't dispute the relevant events of AD70 happened
Thanks for that!
- but I think Preterism forces its interpretation of Daniel, not the other way round.
Show me how it forces its interpretation rather than bringing it to light. You acknowledge Jerusalem was destroyed and this was prophesied before AD70 since you acknowledge Daniel was written around 150 BCE.
1. Show me, from the OT where a coming judgment is not prophesied.
2. Show me where countless OT prophets and teachers (their writings) do not warn these Old Covenant warnings of impending judgment and a coming Messiah that does not fit after AD 70.
3. Show me how the Mosaic Law can be met after AD 70.
4. Show me how the resurrection and judgment do not fit the AD 70 deadline, per Scripture.
5. Show me how the Messiah does not apply to the Mosaic Covenant people.
Show me how any of this is forced from Scripture.
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@ludofl3x
"God's response to Daniel's prayer was in the form of a revelation brought to him by the angel Gabriel, who stated, as the first item of information, that the seventy years of captivity were to be followed by a period of seventy sevens (of years). The word here rendered "weeks" is literally "sevens"; so there is no doubt that the period designated in this prophecy is seventy sevens of years- 490 years."Is not from scripture and does not have any reason to add (of years) as far as I can see. Don't waste your time on me though with this stuff, even if this were 100% accurate (and didn't require man-made additions and subtractions, conversions and translations to make it just so), it proves little about if that god is the only god, if that god inspired this somehow...it's involving byond a third party's interpretation of a dream in a book of very questionable authorship, and that's only the beginning of its problems.
So, as shown in my previous post, you do not have the foggiest idea of what the seventy sevens mean (i.e., 490 years).
What if I told you that someone successfully prophesied something that had literally NEVER happened before (there was no historical precedent, unlike Romans destroying temples in other cultures), essentially to the exact date that such an event would happen (closed ended on the time and eliminating any external retrofitting), that the entire world witnessed it and could verify the prophesy as having come to pass (is not contingent on any faith proposition), that math was not involved (so this example is not something that could have been derived through calculation as inevitable), there was written proof of the prophesy that literally anyone could (and can) go see, to this day, and there is absolutely no room or need for any interpretation? If I could show you that and you were convinced what I just described was true, would that mean the predictor was somehow inspired by one of the many gods who are reported to exist? Would it somehow change your view of this prophecy you love, seeing as my prophecy is far, far, far more accurate and impressive? Remember, this event that was predicted LITERALLY NEVER HAPPENED IN ALL OF HISTORY. Not once.
Again, as mentioned in the citation from Jewish sites, the prophecies concern the Mosaic covenant people. That people no longer exist in covenant with God after AD 70 because they cannot meet the agreement they made with God. Israel was seldom obedient to the covenant they made with God (Deuteronomy 28) and the consequences were felt in AD 70 in fulfillment of the conditions of Daniel 9:24.
The Daniel 9:24-27 prophecy, along with the Daniel ch 2, 7, 9, 12 are very specific prophecies and detail specific times and events. Show me other ancient prophecies that demonstrate this.
Remember, I said that the biblical faith is a reasonable and logical faith, something I do not believe can be demonstrated with other faiths.
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@ludofl3x
Daniel's people and city (Jerusalem) are given a time frame of seventy sevens or 490 years (70 X 7 = 490) to finish the six listed conditions - agreed from the text of Scripture? Yes or no?No. Here's the scripture you quoted.24 “Seventy [a]weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint themost holyplace.There's no mention of years in this version. And...this:
Again, you don't understand the meaning of the word. You are ignorant of the meaning.
Strong's Concordance
shabua: a period of seven (days, years), heptad, week
Original Word: שְׁבוּעַ
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: shabua
Phonetic Spelling: (shaw-boo'-ah)
Definition: a period of seven (days, years), heptad, week
NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin
from sheba
Definition
a period of seven (days, years), heptad, week
NASB Translation
seven (1), week (4), Weeks (5), weeks (14).
Here is a Jewish understanding, which is no friend of the Christian view:
Orthodox Judaism agrees little with this pre-Millennium Christian view concerning the Daniel seventy-week prophecy, but there are some things they both agree on. Both views hold that Daniel was a Jewish prophet to his people the Jews, whereby they (the Jews) would play a major role in the fulfillment of this prophecy. Also, within Daniel's prophecy, each day of the seventy weeks are counted for a year based upon the Hebrew scriptures Numbers 14:34 and Ezekiel 4:6...
The 70 week period is a continued time of judgment towards Israel for her sins which didn't include a sin of "rejecting the messiah" but rather for forsaking the Law of Moses (verses 11-13)...
To look further into the 70 week judgment period toward Israel, notice the number of years that the full 70 weeks amount up to: 490 years. That number might not seem significant unless you take into account the 7 times rule promised in the Torah of Moses that Daniel had just acknowledge they had broken. "And if ye will not yet for all this hearken unto me, then I will punish you seven times more for your sins." - Leviticus 26:18
To look further into the 70 week judgment period toward Israel, notice the number of years that the full 70 weeks amount up to: 490 years. That number might not seem significant unless you take into account the 7 times rule promised in the Torah of Moses that Daniel had just acknowledge they had broken. "And if ye will not yet for all this hearken unto me, then I will punish you seven times more for your sins." - Leviticus 26:18
God had already hit Israel with a 70 years period of judgment as Jeremiah prophesied concerning Babylon (Jeremiah. 29:10). But because Israel did not hearken unto their God, He did as He promised in Leviticus 26:18, and issued a period of judgment of "seven times more" the seventy years prophesied by Jeremiah (70 x 7 = 490 years). So when Christians claim that the second temple was destroyed because the Jews rejected Jesus, the biblical fact that the second temple was destroyed because the Jews rejected Moses' law (that reached its climax and the end of the 70 weeks) over four hundred years before Jesus, can be pointed out to answer that claim.
A very good summary of the Jewish interpretation of Daniel 9:24-27 can be found online in 'A critical and exegetical commentary on the book of Daniel' pages 396-398: https://archive.org/details/criticalexegetic22montuoft. Among the commentators mentioned are Ibn Ezra, Rashi, and Abarbanel. In a nutshell, the seventy weeks are viewed as 490 years and terminate with the destruction of Jerusalem in the last seven years of that period.
The opening two words of this prophecy, Seventy weeks or Seventy sevens (Shavoeem Sheeveem) are understood by most biblical scholars to refer to a designation of a prophetic period of time measured by the number seven. (Also known as a heptad or septets) Almost all interpretations (both Jewish and Christian) agree that these periods of seven are equal to 70 sets of seven years (70 X 7) equaling a total of 490 prophetic years. A week in this prophecy is a week of years meaning each week is equal to seven years of actual time. Daniel was already thinking in terms of years back in Daniel 9:2.
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@keithprosser
How do you think the Jews of the first century thought about Daniel's prophecy? Do you think they were looking for a Messiah around this 1st-century period?I accept a date between c. 200 to 150 BC or Daniel, when the Jews were really sufffering under the Seleucids. I think they were certainly hoping for a traditional messiah to restore the glory and independence of israel.
I think you go against the wealth of evidence for an earlier date, which we have discussed before.
Even so then, how do you reconcile the myriad of prophecies that all focus on AD 70, the destruction of the whole Jewish economy, and the coming of the Messiah, the resurrection and judgment? It all focuses in on the 1st-century. Remember, Daniel was writing to his people, to an OT people under the OT Mosaic Law.
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@3RU7AL
Yours is strong too!I admire your tenacity.
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"God's response to Daniel's prayer was in the form of a revelation brought to him by the angel Gabriel, who stated, as the first item of information, that the seventy years of captivity were to be followed by a period of seventy sevens (of years). The word here rendered "weeks" is literally "sevens"; so there is no doubt that the period designated in this prophecy is seventy sevens of years- 490 years."Is not from scripture and does not have any reason to add (of years) as far as I can see. Don't waste your time on me though with this stuff, even if this were 100% accurate (and didn't require man-made additions and subtractions, conversions and translations to make it just so), it proves little about if that god is the only god, if that god inspired this somehow...it's involving byond a third party's interpretation of a dream in a book of very questionable authorship, and that's only the beginning of its problems.
Again, your bias is evident. You do not want to hear the explanation as to why prophecy is an indication of the Bible (which says thousands of times that God spoke/said) as reliable and accurate, and extremely detailed from cover to cover, unlike any other religious writing.
We are either here/exist because of God/gods or chance happenstance. Which is more reasonable? That is the vital question. Is your belief a reasonable belief or not? You apparently do not care. Nor do you want to engage. You, like every other atheist or unbeliever I have dialogued with, has his own agenda. You come on these forums (IMO) to tout your belief even though you can't make sense of it (the blind leading the blind with no purpose but to justify a belief that is ultimately senseless.
What if I told you that someone successfully prophesied something that had literally NEVER happened before (there was no historical precedent, unlike Romans destroying temples in other cultures), essentially to the exact date that such an event would happen (closed ended on the time and eliminating any external retrofitting), that the entire world witnessed it and could verify the prophesy as having come to pass (is not contingent on any faith proposition), that math was not involved (so this example is not something that could have been derived through calculation as inevitable), there was written proof of the prophesy that literally anyone could (and can) go see, to this day, and there is absolutely no room or need for any interpretation? If I could show you that and you were convinced what I just described was true, would that mean the predictor was somehow inspired by one of the many gods who are reported to exist?
It would add reasons to the reasonableness of the claim of that god existing. Compile this with hundreds, even thousands of other prophecies plus the nature of the biblical account then it would be most reasonable to believe. Who do you know that can predict the future in such detail and with such accuracy?
Would it somehow change your view of this prophecy you love, seeing as my prophecy is far, far, far more accurate and impressive? Remember, this event that was predicted LITERALLY NEVER HAPPENED IN ALL OF HISTORY. Not once.
As I said, I can only give you a reasonable and logical proof/evidence. What you do with it is up to you. And I can juxtaposition the biblical account against the contradictions in you or any other account and show that only one can ultimately make sense of life's ultimate questions.
If you don't want to hear the evidence, then don't ever tell me again that the Bible is not a reasonable and logical faith. What I claim is it is the only worldview that can make sense of why we exist. So, I will continue to claim your is an unreasonable faith, not mine.
What you do continually is disingenuous. You challenge me to present why I think the Christian God has given evidence for His existence that is reasonable and logical to believe and when I start to do this you wriggle out of the discussion claiming before you hear the evidence that it will not stand. How reasonable is this?
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@ludofl3x
Daniel's people and city (Jerusalem) are given a time frame of seventy sevens or 490 years (70 X 7 = 490) to finish the six listed conditions - agreed from the text of Scripture? Yes or no?No. Here's the scripture you quoted.
You forgot the footnote.
24 “Seventy [a]weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint themost holyplace.There's no mention of years in this version. And...this:
It is understood.
The opening two words of this prophecy, Seventy weeks or Seventy sevens (Shavoeem Sheeveem) are understood by most biblical scholars to refer to a designation of a prophetic period of time measured by the number seven. (Also known as a heptad or septets) Almost all interpretations (both Jewish and Christian) agree that these periods of seven are equal to 70 sets of seven years (70 X 7) equaling a total of 490 prophetic years. A week in this prophecy is a week of years meaning each week is equal to seven years of actual time. Daniel was already thinking in terms of years back in Daniel 9:2...
***
Daniel 9:2 (NASB)
2 in the first year of his reign, I, Daniel, observed in the books the number of the years which was revealed as the word of the Lord to Jeremiah the prophet for the completion of the desolations of Jerusalem, namely, seventy years.
Israel's Captivity: Israel had influence on how long they would be held captive in Babylon. Their 70 years of captivity was in direct correlation with the 490 years of Sabbath Land Rests that were violated (Leviticus 26:34).
The amount of time here (490 prophetic years) is not connected to Israel's disobedience for not allowing the land to rest. That issue was being addressed with the 70 years of Israel's captivity which was about to come to an end when Daniel received this prophecy (Leviticus 26:34).
The connection is that Israel's captivity was a direct result of a past 490 year violation and that this prophecy would use the same amount of time (490 years) but would look forward to Israel's future destiny instead of looking back at her past.
This decree was given in part to provide a timetable of the coming of the Messiah (He needed to come before the Temple would be destroyed in 70 A.D.) and to offer Israel hope. That is why the Talmud teaches that all deadlines for the coming of Moshiach (Messiah) have come and gone- the thing depends solely on our returning to G-d. (Sanhedrin 97b)
There was more than one decree so it is important to have the right starting date in order to have the right ending date. This Decree is studied in more detail in Daniel 9:25.
The amount of time here (490 prophetic years) is not connected to Israel's disobedience for not allowing the land to rest. That issue was being addressed with the 70 years of Israel's captivity which was about to come to an end when Daniel received this prophecy (Leviticus 26:34).
The connection is that Israel's captivity was a direct result of a past 490 year violation and that this prophecy would use the same amount of time (490 years) but would look forward to Israel's future destiny instead of looking back at her past.
This decree was given in part to provide a timetable of the coming of the Messiah (He needed to come before the Temple would be destroyed in 70 A.D.) and to offer Israel hope. That is why the Talmud teaches that all deadlines for the coming of Moshiach (Messiah) have come and gone- the thing depends solely on our returning to G-d. (Sanhedrin 97b)
There was more than one decree so it is important to have the right starting date in order to have the right ending date. This Decree is studied in more detail in Daniel 9:25.
***
Weeks Of Years:
Weeks of years was already an understood measurement of time to Israel. A similar measurement of time is found in Leviticus 25:8 in dealing with the year of Jubilee.
Count off seven sabbaths of years-- seven times seven years-- so that the seven sabbaths of years amount to a period of forty-nine years. Then have the trumpet sounded everywhere on the tenth day of the seventh month; on the Day of Atonement sound the trumpet throughout your land. Consecrate the fiftieth year and proclaim liberty throughout the land to all its inhabitants. It shall be a jubilee for you; each one of you is to return to his family property and each to his own clan. (Leviticus 25:8-10)
Related Prophecy:
Israel was to allow the land to rest every 7th year. They did not. Over a period of 490 years the land of Israel was shorted 70 years of sabbath rests. This led to Israel being forced to leave the land for 70 years so that the land could obtain the sabbath rest that it was due. At the end of the 70 years is when Daniel was given the vision of his prophetic 490 years. Although both prophecies are related to a 490 year time interval - they are two different periods of prophetic time. (See Jeremiah 25:11 and 29:10)
Miscellaneous:
Jewish commentators Abarbanel and Malbim understand the angel's reference to seventy weeks as an additional interpretation of the seventy years of Jeremiah.(1)
In addition to the sin of desecrating sabbatical years, the Jews had committed other sins (Yoma 96 specifies idolatry, licentiousness, and bloodshed), throughout the period occupied by these sabbatical years (490). For this, 70 years of exile would not suffice, and the full period of 490 years was needed for atonement.(1)
The Expression "week of years" occurs in the Mishna (Sanh.v.1.)(2)
Weeks of years was already an understood measurement of time to Israel. A similar measurement of time is found in Leviticus 25:8 in dealing with the year of Jubilee.
Count off seven sabbaths of years-- seven times seven years-- so that the seven sabbaths of years amount to a period of forty-nine years. Then have the trumpet sounded everywhere on the tenth day of the seventh month; on the Day of Atonement sound the trumpet throughout your land. Consecrate the fiftieth year and proclaim liberty throughout the land to all its inhabitants. It shall be a jubilee for you; each one of you is to return to his family property and each to his own clan. (Leviticus 25:8-10)
Israel was to allow the land to rest every 7th year. They did not. Over a period of 490 years the land of Israel was shorted 70 years of sabbath rests. This led to Israel being forced to leave the land for 70 years so that the land could obtain the sabbath rest that it was due. At the end of the 70 years is when Daniel was given the vision of his prophetic 490 years. Although both prophecies are related to a 490 year time interval - they are two different periods of prophetic time. (See Jeremiah 25:11 and 29:10)
Jewish commentators Abarbanel and Malbim understand the angel's reference to seventy weeks as an additional interpretation of the seventy years of Jeremiah.(1)
In addition to the sin of desecrating sabbatical years, the Jews had committed other sins (Yoma 96 specifies idolatry, licentiousness, and bloodshed), throughout the period occupied by these sabbatical years (490). For this, 70 years of exile would not suffice, and the full period of 490 years was needed for atonement.(1)
The Expression "week of years" occurs in the Mishna (Sanh.v.1.)(2)
So for every year that Israel did not honour the Sabbath rest another year was added to their judgment.
Here are the two most important pieces of information you need to glean from the above:
1. Over a period of 490 years, the land of Israel was shorted 70 years of sabbath rests. This led to Israel being forced to leave the land for 70 years so that the land could obtain the sabbath rest that it was due.The 70-year penalty happened with the Babylonian captivity.
2. God was again going to compound the penalty seven times more as explained in Leviticus 26:18.
If also after these things you do not obey Me, then I will punish you seven times more for your sins.
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@secularmerlin
How do such sources comply with reality, with what we see and with our logic and understanding?Does the bible not make mention of demons? If the bible is the word of god then there are demons. If the bible is not the word of god then you will need some other evidence. Since you accept the bible as the word of god you must also accept the existence of demons. Demons therefore must comply with reality by the terms of your argument.
I believe Jesus conquered Satan and his demonic legions, thus we do not experience the manifestations they did during the 1st-century. I believe the influence of Satan is still felt in our world today.
How do demons or aliens explain our existence?
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@secularmerlin
Why could the source not been dem8ns or aliens or indeed prophecy stolen from the actual creator of the universe by Yahweh for the purpose of tricking humans into worshiping him? I am afraid no amount of mental gymnastics will allow a claim to count as evidence for itself.What are the reasons to believe they are those sources?What are the reasons not too?
That would depend on your source.
I am not claimimg any particular source is more likely than the other.
Then you can't make sense of origins. Your worldview is incapable of making sense of life's ultimate questions in a reasonable manner. Why are you on a debate forum trying to make sense of the insensible, or do you believe that ultimately there is some sense to be made of life?
You are the one claiming a specific source. You should be able to demonstrate this independently unless you are making an argument from ignorance or an appeal to special knowledge. Let's go through them one at a time shall we?
The onus of proof has been placed on me and I will do the best that I can to give a reasonable and logical explanation here:
The first was demons. Are you certain that a demon could not either make or gain access to an accurate prophecy?
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@secularmerlin
The Bible claimsThis is THE MOST important thing that you said. Yes the bible claims. Claims require a burden of proof. Since the bible is the claim it cannot also be the proof. There must be some extrabiblical evidence or you have only the circular argument "the bible is true because the bible says so."
It depends on numerous issues and proofs but also on whether you believe there is some ultimate authority and what that is. Why is your authority better than any other in determining our origins? Eventually, arguments come down to what is your ultimate source --> core beliefs and making sense of them.
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@keithprosser
Why would I need to strike a balance with you if I am just a biological machine driven by the way my biological factors are determined to act? Why do I have to live according to what you deem as necessary or desirable? If all I am is strictly a biological machine and I act in selfishness in letting you live then consider it as only being done so that it would benefit me. That is not altruism.At this time I don't want to quibble over definitions or if altruism is only 'enlightened self-interest'. My poinytis simply that pur behaviuor is the resut of competing 'drives' to be selfish on one hand and a dutiful member of society on rhe other. Those drives exist because they are wired into our brains by a billion years of evolution.
That is your explanation for them. But evolution is not an agent in the sense that there is no intent to it. Things just happen and from these things, the strong adapt and survive. The weak die out.
If there is no intent then there is no reason, yet you attribute the reason to evolution. I attribute it to a reasoning necessary Being.
Is it more reasonable to believe that things just happen by fluke random chance that explain altruism and selfishness or that we are created in the image and likeness of a necessary personal Being that is good and altruistic and when we, as free agents in the sense that we choose, go against His wishes we produce strife and selfishness in ourselves?
For most of us - most of the time - the latter 'wins', but occasionally the former does. Feelings such as guilt is one way evolution has arranged that we are encouaged to reject selfish behaviour.
How does your system of though achieve justice and who decides on what is right? If my biological bag of atoms is governed differently than your then why is that wrong if you don't like what I do? Should you be the one who determines what is right or should Kim Jong-un? What makes your preference any better than his, or that of President Xi of China, or Putin's?
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@secularmerlin
No, what makes the belief true is if it corresponds to God's word. Where it deviates it is in error.Let us say we accept this. How exactly do you know the word of god?
You know its truths when what you believe does not contradict its statements of truth. There is a unity and beauty to His revelation that when understood makes sense of so much of Scripture that the contradictions and discrepancies disappear with logic and reason. Scripture becomes alive to you. You start to understand it and its beauty.
Hebrews 4:12 (NASB)
12 For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart.
12 For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart.
God requires our being born again to know Him as He is. The means faith and trust in Jesus Christ. Why would you believe in a God who you deny His existence? Various passages reveal that those without the Spirit do not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God, for they are spiritually discerned.
When you trust Jesus as Lord and Savior He confirms His word to you and in you. You can make sense of existence, or origins, or morality, of truth. That is why I continually question those who are not Christians and ask them to make sense of their worldview, of why things are the way they are, of what is necessary for things to be the way they are, of their proofs in juxtaposition to the biblical claims.
You claim that the bible is the word of god and that prophecy from the bible proves this. Now let us grant for the sake of argument that there is accurate straight forward undeniable prophecy in the bible. How then do we determine that god was the source of said prophecy?
Your heart or inner being is one confirmation. Another is the reasonableness of the Christian belief. I claim others are not reasonable and I try to demonstrate this.
Why could the source not been dem8ns or aliens or indeed prophecy stolen from the actual creator of the universe by Yahweh for the purpose of tricking humans into worshiping him? I am afraid no amount of mental gymnastics will allow a claim to count as evidence for itself.
How do such sources comply with reality, with what we see and with our logic and understanding? Again, are demons or aliens reasonable to believe as the source of all things or are they just another regress that only goes so far and no further?
Again, that is why I use prophecy as a vehicle for it combines the Bible and history. There are countless proofs for God that could be used as a witness for His existence, but I like using prophecy and morality because they are hard to get around and still find a reasonable explanation by their denial.
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@secularmerlin
No, what makes the belief true is if it corresponds to God's word. Where it deviates it is in error.Let us say we accept this. How exactly do you know the word of god?
The Bible claims to be His revelation and that He does not lie. If this is true then history and what has been made would correspond to His revelation and is consistent with it. So, is what we find in historical records and use our logic to understand and what we see and witness with our senses reasonable to believe as with what corresponds to His revelation and what we should expect?
For instance, is it reasonable to believe that life comes from the living? Where do you ever witness the contrary?
Is it reasonable to believe we derive morality from a necessary moral source? I invite you to explain it reasonable if its source is not such a Being.
Is it reasonable to believe we derive morality from a necessary moral source? I invite you to explain it reasonable if its source is not such a Being.
You claim that the bible is the word of god and that prophecy from the bible proves this. Now let us grant for the sake of argument that there is accurate straight forward undeniable prophecy in the bible. How then do we determine that god was the source of said prophecy?
First, I can only prove it is reasonable to believe, I can't make you believe. So, the test comes with whether what is said is, in fact, reasonable and logical to believe, which I have stated many times.
I can't show you the wind, I can only show you the effects of the wind and let you feel it on your face for it is not something we see, just like logic is not something we see yet we comprehend that it is necessary for our understanding of anything.
Since God is Spirit I can't show you His existence like I can show you I exist. We have a tangible nature to our being, He does not for He is intangible.
Why could the source not been dem8ns or aliens or indeed prophecy stolen from the actual creator of the universe by Yahweh for the purpose of tricking humans into worshiping him? I am afraid no amount of mental gymnastics will allow a claim to count as evidence for itself.
What are the reasons to believe they are those sources?
Well, the Bible makes claims that can be reasonably verified via history. History should correspond to its prophetic claims.
Was Jerusalem destroyed in AD 70?
Was the OT written before the 1st-century? Is this reasonable to believe?
There are many prophecies that focus on a Messiah and judgment by God on an OT people that can be verified as happening before the OT and its prophecies became null and void. Thus, it is reasonable to believe from this one aspect of the word that it corresponds to what actually happened. A messiah was predicted to come to an OT people, and that people no longer live in covenant after AD 70.
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@ludofl3x
See how nice I am?
Thanks!
Have at it. My initial question:If somehow some scholar you respected, like you thought this person was the pinnacle of knowledge on the subject, came out tomorrow and said "You know that weird prophecy we are all over? Well, I hate to say, but the truth is, we've discovered some pretty damning evidence that it just was not that way, ever. It's totally wrong," would you then STOP believing in God?
Starting with the previous thread:
1. The Literal Approach Per Philip Mauro (then I will present the evidence for the Approximate time frame approach). I will try and establish both approaches as reasonable and logical.
Daniel 9:24 (NASB)
Seventy Weeks and the Messiah
24 “Seventy [a]weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the
most holy place.
Footnotes:[a] Daniel 9:24 Or units of seven, and so throughout the ch.
Daniel's people and city (Jerusalem) are given a time frame of seventy sevens or 490 years (70 X 7 = 490) to finish the six listed conditions - agreed from the text of Scripture? Yes or no?
***
"God's response to Daniel's prayer was in the form of a revelation brought to him by the angel Gabriel, who stated, as the first item of information, that the seventy years of captivity were to be followed by a period of seventy sevens (of years). The word here rendered "weeks" is literally "sevens"; so there is no doubt that the period designated in this prophecy is seventy sevens of years- 490 years."
Do you accept that "sevens" is a reasonable interpretation of Daniel 9:24 or do you want me to establish further proof that both Jews and Christians think along such lines? Yes or no?
How do you think the Jews of the first century thought about Daniel's prophecy? Do you think they were looking for a Messiah around this 1st-century period?
If you are in agreement I will continue, otherwise, let's discuss it further.
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@ludofl3x
I have offered. You refuse to engage in why prophecy is unreasonable because you fail to hear the argument. You keep changing the narrative or insisting that the Bible cannot be used in conjunction with history to show the reasonableness in believing it.
You keep challenging Christians to give evidence then you tell them what evidence you will and will not accept and refuse to hear the evidence. How reasonable is that? Biased from the getgo and directing the narrative so that it becomes impossible to give evidence.I'm waiting for EVIDENCE. You are restating the claim, we've been over this. Again you: "THe bible is true!" Me: "How do you know?" You "THE BIBLE SAYS IT IS TRUE, because there's a story about a dream some guy had about a statue with clay feet, and DUH! That's ROME!" And Neptune has plenty of verified sunken ships to his credit.
No, that is not my argument. Prophecy goes hand-in-hand with history and verifies the claims made are reasonable to believe. So, I have a biblical claim and I have historical evidence that supports the claim.
Daniel 2 is very specific in its claims. We know from history that Babylon destroyed Jerusalem and the inhabitants were taken in exile. History backs up this narrative. We also know that three other main empires had sway in this region of Israel and during the fourth empire the claim is that God would set up a kingdom that would never be destroyed. The Christian witness and writings are that Jesus came preaching this kingdom, the eternal kingdom that is not of this world, yet its people live in the world.
I am offering to explain why there is reasonable evidence for the Christian God that can't easily be dismissed by those who want to engage in refuting it, yet you keep denying it without even hearing the position. That is unreasonable and I waste my time.I'm willing to hear this evidence, so long as it isn't from the claim. But not here. How do you know the Christian god is the one that created the universe? How do you convince someone else they're wrong? You complained that I didn't bother with your evidence again, and I set up a topic to talk about your prophecy. You ignored this one though, which is more to this topic:It's a backdoor way to help me understand your reasoning: if you can't prove yourself right, then how might you go about proving all others wrong, ending up correct by process of elimination. Ergo which god saves the child if ten gods exclusive of each other are prayed to? You've yet to attempt that in earnest either:
If all religious views correspond with the true God in their prayer then God did save the child. Now, what is the evidence for these different gods? How do they correspond to what is real? How consistent are their worldview claims?
I see you have created a new thread and I am going to transfer the topic of prophecy and what I believe is reasonable proof/evidence onto that thread. As I said, I lost two days of work by not saving it and hitting the wrong button, so I will recompile it.
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@ludofl3x
The evidence is better for Him than Zeus as being a real person. Currently, there are around two billion people, worldwide that believe in Him and that He was a real Person. That beats professing atheists if you are going strictly by numbers which is not necessarily an indication of truth. It is still the leading religion by profession (but not necessarily by the actions of its adherents) in the world.Ad populum, and poorly executed: there are currently more people on earth that do not believe in Jesus than there are that do. By this argument, they're right. Clearly you don't think that.
Precisely, and I was pointing it out to you. Here is your statement that resulted in mine:
"Jesus is also considered myth by more people than believe he was real."
Look in the mirror. You were the first to employ this argument based on more people making believing in Jesus questionable.
And you do it again in the underlined above this statement with your first statement.
My claim was the evidence for Jesus is better than for Zeus. Supply your evidence for Zeus as a real person.
Those who claimed to be eyewitnesses of His life, death, and resurrection willingly died for what, a myth? Would not only you but hundreds of others be willing to die for a myth?So if anyone at any point was willing to die for something, then that something is more likely true than false? I'll let the 9/11 hijackers know. I'm not willing to die for any myth, what's that make me?
Sensible!
1. Mars is said to be the god of war, but so was Ares. Same with Neptune as opposed to Poseidon.2. There are many other reasons why wars happen that can be explained other than Mars.So the conclusion does not necessarily follow because the premises are both flawed.Mars and Ares aren't exclusive to each other. And yeah, there are many things that cause wars, those things are just what Mars uses to cause them. I think you'd be familiar with a straw man. Can't you just explain why the causes of wars isn't Mars for sure, but it IS Jesus?
Because I do not believe the cause of war is Jesus. He preached and taught peace, and peace with God, not war.
I'm saying that the cause of war is more reasonable to believe as our greed, lusts, and moral disagreements since which of these wars is attributed to Mars by those who fight them? You just list Mars as the cause of war by assertion. Prove he is the cause with evidence that backs up your claim. You made the claim. It is your burden of proof.
Who worships Zeus or Mars and who believes they are anything other than myth in our day and age? You made the claim. Support it with tangible evidence rather than opinion and assertions.How does this mean they're false?
It doesn't. I rely on reasonable support for this belief. They are many contrary gods of war. Why aren't they right?
Because they're old?
No, based on the evidence.
Wouldn't that mean that Mormonism and Scientology have a better chance at being real than Christianity?
Again, based on the evidence. Joseph Smith claimed he found the Book of Mormon under a rock. It contradicts the Bible which it claims is another revelation. Which is more reasonable?
They were born during the last 200 years. You're literally about five generations from the tablets or Moroni. I'm only observing that lightning bolts exist, and that the atmospheric conditions that produce them reinforce my presupposition that Zeus is using those atmospheric conditions to generate them. What's so weird about that?
It has no support other than your wishful thinking. Do you really think Christianity offers this lack of evidence - mere assertion?
Then prove Neptune did this by offering reasonable evidence.Many people believed it, and the stuff attributed to Neptune's activities goes on all the time.
Again, now it is you using all kinds of logical fallacies such as the argument from alleged assertion which asserts a conclusion without evidence and makes the conclusion seem certain when it is not; the argument of appeal to popularity; appeal to the possibility (X is possible thus X is true); appeal to tradition which uses the historical preferences of a specific people; avoiding the issue by not proving or addressing the point; begging the question; etc.
I mean there are storms that swallow ocean liners, right?
Argument from incredulity. You are making an extraordinary claim that ships sinking in storms are the activities of Neptune.
Again, Neptune is not grabbing them by hand, he's just using storms to do that. I don't think you can believe in Neptune unless you believe he's probably there. I am open for you to convince me that Jesus is doing it instead, you won't bother.
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@keithprosser
A simple yes or no would have sufficed! I think your saying it is impossible to be neutral - I agree we are biased; I am not quite assure it can't be overcome.But I suggest that human behaviour is shaped by the need for each individual to strike a balance between selfishness and altruism because neither pure selfishness nor pure altruism is a practical stategy for a human being living in human society.What is not explained by that simple observation?
1. Sinful action.
2. If God exists and is a personal being that has revealed Himself then you are answerable to Him. If it is our character that is flawed as you point out in the distinction between altruism and selfishness, then we are accountable to a perfect Being for our wrongs. Do you think you can live up to perfection?
3. Why would I need to strike a balance with you if I am just a biological machine driven by the way my biological factors are determined to act? Why do I have to live according to what you deem as necessary or desirable? If all I am is strictly a biological machine and I act in selfishness in letting you live then consider it as only being done so that it would benefit me. That is not altruism.
Definition of altruism
1: unselfish regard for or devotion to the welfare of others - charitable acts motivated purely by altruism
2: behavior by an animal that is not beneficial to or may be harmful to itself but that benefits others of its species
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@3RU7AL
The evidence is better for Him than Zeus as being a real person. Currently, there are around two billion people, worldwide that believe in Him and that He was a real Person. That beats professing atheists if you are going strictly by numbers which is not necessarily an indication of truth.Joseph Smith was a real person.Lafayette Ronald Hubbard was a real person.Ernest Holmes was a real person.Helena Blavatsky was a real person.Tenzin Gyatso was a real person.Do you really think that if the Jesus was a real person, that makes the holy scriptures TRUE?
Yes, for they all center on Him and point to Him as not simply a human being but God incarnate. You have numerous NT accounts, four different gospels plus epistles that magnify what was said and revealed about Him. The OT predicted His coming and what is describe of Him in the NT meets the requirements of those detailed accounts and cannot fit any other person. Many of these NT accounts are from eyewitnesses who claim to have seen Him alive after He was put to death. They expand on His teachings which are noble and if practiced make this world a better place. The disciples do not appear as delusional by their words or by what they reportedly did.
It is still the leading religion by profession (but not necessarily by the actions of its adherents) in the world.Do you really think that popularity makes something TRUE?
No, it can but I don't think it is necessarily the case. What makes something true is whether it is true.
Nearly half of all modern day christians are Catholic. Do you believe this makes Catholicism true and all other denominations FALSE?
No, what makes the belief true is if it corresponds to God's word. Where it deviates it is in error.
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@3RU7AL
It is just a way of understanding it using a biblical reference and thought system.I'm pretty sure the holy scriptures don't say anything about which family situation is more likely to makes kids gay.
It gives reasons for why what is wrong before God happens - men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness...they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened...they became fools, 23 and exchanged the glory of the incorruptible God for an image in the form of corruptible man...24 Therefore God gave them over in the lusts of their hearts to impurity,...they exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator...
26 For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural,27 and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error...
they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper, 29 being filled with all unrighteousness, wickedness, greed, evil; full of envy, murder, strife, deceit, malice; they are gossips,30 slanderers, haters of God, insolent, arrogant, boastful, inventors of evil, disobedient to parents, 31 without understanding, untrustworthy, unloving, unmerciful; 32 and although they know the ordinance of God, that those who practice such things are worthy of death, they not only do the same, but also give hearty approval to those who practice them.
If (I say this for your consideration, not mine) God has laid out what kind of relationship with Him He wants us to have, and if we choose to ignore the best God has for us, then there will be consequences for those actions.
Romans makes it plain three times that when we don't want to maintain that relationship with God He gives us over to do what we should not do. We choose to go against His word. We choose to do what is unnatural. We choose to do what is not in our best interested or what we were made for.
I find it reasonable.Based on what?
Based on many factors, prophecy being one, making sense of morality, origins, existence, truth, knowledge, being others.
We have one member of our family who is gay. I have watched his father undervalue him and not give him the attention and love he desired. I have watched him become more and more feminine.If every kid who was sent to boarding school turned gay, then we'd certainly notice.Your personal experience is not scientific. It's called "anecdotal evidence".CORRELATION DOES NOT EQUAL CAUSATION.
True, but what I read in His word is reasonable. The family is important to God and the right relationships are important. That is why the Ten Commandments give the command to honour your father and mother. The family relationship is important. I have an explanation just like you do. I see abusive relationships destroying a sacred bond. I see sin causing problems. Does that mean I would treat a gay person without compassion and respect and of equal value to any other person? No. Is it wrong for me to point out what God has said as wrong? No. I understand that God as true means they are not in right relationship, either father or son, the father not for supplying a healthy relationship and the son for seeking something that is not condoned by God.
Stalin brushed his teeth every morning. Therefore brushing your teeth makes you a vicious commie dictator.I have heard cases of women who have been abused and been turned off of relationships with men. Abusive and hurtful actions can turn a person away from others. I understand this.Humans, whether abused as children or adults will tend to be anti-social. I'm pretty sure this is not in dispute. We're all firmly "anti-abuse" I hope.You take your views from a secular society, not a godly worldview, so take it however you want. I can't change your mind.Data will do it. Got data? I'd like some more data please.
All data is interpreted and interpretive. It does not come stamped, "This is wrong" or "this is right."
You work from your highest authority - possibly science. I work from what I believe is the highest court of appeal of which no higher can be found. If there was a more ultimate authority God would no longer be the highest authority of appeal.
Why would I look for a flawed authority if He is true and has given reasons for His being that is wired into every one of us, yet we suppress that truth?
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth [a]in unrighteousness, 19 because that which is known about God is evident [b]within them; for God made it evident to them. 20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
The premise is simply that if He is true then what you believe is not if what you believe is contrary to Him.
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@ludofl3x
It is not "logical" to believe something without concrete dataWell, what if you PRESUPPOSE it? Then can I say I arrived at it via logic? For example, "Jim's parents are divorced. And he's gay as a result of that. Now, let me look at my available data: Jim is definitely gay. And his parents are definitely divorced. What do you know! I'm right!"Is that valid logic?
Some things are reasonable and your senses, as well as your logic, correspond to what is said. There are verifiable facts from history that correspond to the Bible like the fall of Jerusalem in AD 70 or the OT as being in existence way before that point in history. Thus, the warnings and the predictions came about in specific details as promised. That speaks to accuracy. It tells me it is reasonable to trust what is said.
I can only present a reasoned argument. I can't make you believe. I have learned that you can't make someone believe something they do not want to believe.
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@ludofl3x
"The Christian community refutes charges against their god being not real" is not an argument for anything either. It's simply saying Christians believe in Jesus. Okay, not in dispute. It's exactly what one would expect a Christian to do, but it in no way makes an argument that anything they believe is true or real, just that they believe and therefore do not agree with those who see it as a myth.
You keep challenging Christians to give evidence then you tell them what evidence you will and will not accept and refuse to hear the evidence. How reasonable is that? Biased from the getgo and directing the narrative so that it becomes impossible to give evidence.
Because wars exist give no more credence to Mars than to human nature, greed, anger, differences over morality, etc., that explain wars as well or better than Mars.If you exchange the word MARS for the word JESUS, it's exactly the same.
I am offering to explain why there is reasonable evidence for the Christian God that can't easily be dismissed by those who want to engage in refuting it, yet you keep denying it without even hearing the position. That is unreasonable and I waste my time.
What does the last have to do with giving evidence for the Creator?There is no need for evidence of a creator, the creator in this thought experiment is already granted. It goes to the question of how do you know which god, if any, IS THE CREATOR.
Through the consistency and reasonableness of the Christian God as opposed to other systems of belief. I claim the Christian God is necessary and a necessary being. I claim that the Bible comports to what is real and verifiable. I use prophecy as a vehicle to establish this. I could also use other vehicles like making sense of morality or existence. Your worldview can't make sense of morality is my claim. You continually borrow from the Christian worldview that can. It has what is necessary - an objective, unchanging, eternal, absolute, omniscient measure. I ask you what is necessary for moral right and wrong? Can you establish why your views that oppose mine are any "better?" You do not have what is necessary other than by using force to establish right and wrong, and I question how that makes something right or wrong. Can you say Hitler's Germany or Kim Jong-un's North Korea is wrong because it opposes your preferences?
It's a backdoor way to help me understand your reasoning: if you can't prove yourself right, then how might you go about proving all others wrong, ending up correct by process of elimination. Ergo which god saves the child if ten gods exclusive of each other are prayed to? You've yet to attempt that in earnest either:I've set you a topic for discussing your prophecy fascination already. have at it. But your prophecy isn't in the bible as you describe it, it takes someone else to add the rest in to get to your number, and as disgusted points out, once you do that it's no longer biblical. It's a person.
No, you are wrong. The biblical understanding of the OT people looked at the seventy sevens along the lines I laid out. You have to understand how they would understand something to correctly interpret it. The prophetic timetable is taken from the Bible. How would they understand it?
I asked you whether you accepted the first segment of my argument as reasonable. I was next going to establish why I find the time frame most reasonable by showing the Ptolemaic dating system was at fault. I can lay down my arguments why I think this way but I see you are not willing. You just want to direct the narrative away from a presentation of the evidence. How reasonable is that?
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@ludofl3x
The Roman gods are considered myths. How can you say they comport with reality? The Christian community, from its beginning, refuted charges against the biblical God as a myth or human construct.A tidal wave gives no more proof of Neptune that other explanations. In fact, other explanations explain the cause better. Now if Neptune said that a tidal wave would happen 490 years from now and destroy the city of Istanbul and listed six other factors that happened, that would be a better case for Neptune.Jesus is also considered myth by more people than believe he was real.
The evidence is better for Him than Zeus as being a real person. Currently, there are around two billion people, worldwide that believe in Him and that He was a real Person. That beats professing atheists if you are going strictly by numbers which is not necessarily an indication of truth. It is still the leading religion by profession (but not necessarily by the actions of its adherents) in the world.
Those who claimed to be eyewitnesses of His life, death, and resurrection willingly died for what, a myth? Would not only you but hundreds of others be willing to die for a myth? They did not think He was a myth, and they continually pointed to OT prophecy as being fulfilled in Him. The whole unity of the OT centers around (and can be demonstrated) in types and shadows as referring and pointing to Him, per the New Testament.
After AD 70 the prophecy cannot be met. The OT Jewish economy and ritual system of worship no longer exists. Throughout the OT there is a constant warning to these covenant people of a coming judgment and a change in how the believer would worship God.
I explained how they comport with reality and you didn't refute it, you just said no they don't.
You gave poor evidence that can be used for a number of different beliefs (but which belief does it fit the best and I offered other scenarios that I believe explain war or freaks of nature like tidal waves better than these gods), some having better proof that your flimsy statements.
It's not even an argument.
Your arguments were nothing but opinions. You have no facts as to why they pointed to Mars other than that Mars was said to be the god of war, there are wars, therefore wars must be the result of his influence. The premises of the syllogism are faulty.
1. Mars is said to be the god of war, but so was Ares. Same with Neptune as opposed to Poseidon.
2. There are many other reasons why wars happen that can be explained other than Mars.
So the conclusion does not necessarily follow because the premises are both flawed.
"No they don't" is missing "because XYZ" after it.
I offered to give you the XYZ via prophecy.
Who worships Zeus or Mars and who believes they are anything other than myth in our day and age? You made the claim. Support it with tangible evidence rather than opinion and assertions.
As it is, it's the contention of a child. Yeah, I know Neptune doesn't DIRECTLY cause the tidal waves. Sometimes an undersea earthquake does. But that's just the tool that Neptune USES to make it happen sometimes.
Then prove Neptune did this by offering reasonable evidence.
Yeah, I know a buildup of electricity in the air under certain atmospheric conditions cause lightning, but that's just the METHOD Zeus uses to make them. What, you don't believe me? Prove to me Zeus isn't there, then. THIS IS WHAT YOU ARE ASKING EVERYONE ELSE TO DO, and it's the result of an impenetrable presupposition. I am the one saying no, tectonic shifts often cause tidal waves. You are basically responding with the Neptune argument, except you're using Jesus.
The Neptune argument does not back up its claims through specific and detailed verifiable history.
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@keithprosser
I believe it takes an act of grace (faith comes from hearing God's message) because you and I have a problem. We are not neutral but biased. We want to do our own thing, follow our own desires. Why do some hear the message yet others are deaf to it? I believe it is because we have a natural disposition, we have a sinful nature inherited by Adam; we are dead to God. That is why Jesus said you must be born again, regenerated, to see or enter heaven.Are you saying it is impossible to start from a neutral position on God's existence and deduce whether God does or doesn't exist?
I believe that only Adam and Jesus Christ had free will. Adam had the choice to sin or not to sin. We do not have the choice not to sin. Life bears this out every day. Don't get me wrong, we all have a volition but we choose what we want and desire. Try to never lie again, or never ever take something that does not belong to you again (steal), or never covet something that is not yours ever again. Can you do it (never lie, steal, covet again) or are you what the Bible calls (and teaches throughout its pages) under bondage to sin and what the Bible calls dead to God because of your sin?
How long can you go before you find sin in yourself again? So, I do not see you as free to choose never to sin again, nor do I see your will as free but in bondage to sin. Thus, you need a rescue from God (via Jesus Christ) who gives you a new nature in that He places you in Christ, covered and forgiven by His merit, not yours. Your merit is filthy before God for you continually sin before Him and are accountable to Him in one of two ways, either by your own merit (or lack of it) or by the merit of Another (by what He has done).
That, in a nutshell, is the gospel message - faith through grace or faith by works of your own merit. How do you think you are going to measure up to the biblical standard - The Ten Commandments?
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@3RU7AL
Is it logical to think that if you lack a father figure or a mother figure that you could tend to compensate?Without data, your statement is merely a hypothesis.And to propose that single parenting is somehow a causal factor for homosexuality, without any scientific evidence, is a naked appeal to ignorance.It is not "logical" to believe something without concrete data.
It is just a way of understanding it using a biblical reference and thought system. I find it reasonable. We have one member of our family who is gay. I have watched his father undervalue him and not give him the attention and love he desired. I have watched him become more and more feminine.
I have heard cases of women who have been abused and been turned off of relationships with men. Abusive and hurtful actions can turn a person away from others. I understand this.
You take your views from a secular society, not a godly worldview, so take it however you want. I can't change your mind.
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@ludofl3x
Here we are again:THIS QUESTION IS FRAMED THROUGH THE LENS OF A CREATOR. The only feature we can KNOW it has is the ability to create a universe, because a universe is here. Please pay attention, because here is the question: Can you support with evidence that the god you so happen to worship IS THAT CREATOR?Alternatively:I'm starting with the presupposition that the roman pantheon is real. I know it's real, because it comports with reality, and if I start with the knowledge that Zeus and his cohorts are behind all of the stuff I see, how would I follow that? Hmm. Well, wars exist and are objectively terrible for everyone involved...but why would Mars care about people dying? So long as there's war, he's doing his job. Would an ominbenevolent god allow for this atrocitiy? Maybe, but why? Hmmm. A tidal wave wiped out 250,000 people in Sri Lanka that one time, and I know Neptune, god of the sea, causes those, and also doesn't really care about what happens to the people on land, they're not his problem. That makes sense if I start with the presupposition that Neptune's there. What's that? Someone's telling me it's not Mars or Zeus or Neptune? It's instead some single god from a far less advanced culture? WHY SHOULD I BELIEVE THAT?And finally, I can't find the author, you have the option of dealing with the following example, I'm going to paraphrase and credit to whoever (Brutal?) wrote it up:
The Roman gods are considered myths. How can you say they comport with reality? The Christian community, from its beginning, refuted charges against the biblical God as a myth or human construct.
Because wars exist give no more credence to Mars than to human nature, greed, anger, differences over morality, etc., that explain wars as well or better than Mars.
A tidal wave gives no more proof of Neptune that other explanations. In fact, other explanations explain the cause better. Now if Neptune said that a tidal wave would happen 490 years from now and destroy the city of Istanbul and listed six other factors that happened, that would be a better case for Neptune.
Ten people on board a boat witness a child go overboard. All ten pray for the child's rescue, but they pray to different gods, each exclusive of the other nine. The child is saved. How do you determine whose prayer was answered?Any one of these three propositions, you have either said nothing, or you've used your claim (bible) as evidence. Do you have anything else on THIS TOPIC? You want to talk about other topics, I'm game, but start other topics. In fact, I'll start one for you.
What does the last have to do with giving evidence for the Creator? You refuse to engage so why don't we engage in a formal debate on prophecy as reasonable evidence for the Christian God? Are you game? Let's see who makes a better argument, the one for God revealing Himself through prophecy or the one who claims the evidence is unreasonable. I can set up the challenge.
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@ludofl3x
If you are in agreement I will continue, otherwise, let's discuss it further.You are discussing a different topic. If you want to discuss that topic, go ahead and start a topic. THIS TOPIC, which for 20 pages you've skirted, is about proving if your version of god is the correct one.
No, I was presenting why the evidence for the Christian God is reasonable and logical. You refuse to engage which tells me immediately that you are closed minded. You can't see because you are indoctrinated into your belief system. You block your ears so you can't hear. You asked me to supply evidence that the Christian God is the Creator. I can only give you evidence that He is. What you do with it and whether you believe is another question. It is not unreasonable evidence but you continue to ignore the discussion.
We have tried this several different ways and you're talking about some scholar's interpretation of a prophecy that I'm pretty certain has no real impact on if you believe in god or not, scandinavian socialism, divorce rates, gay kids...just anything but this.
What makes you think prophecy is not evidence for the Christian God as Creator?
I'm speaking of an interpretation that can make sense of prophecy, and once made sense of it makes sense of around a third or two-thirds of Scripture because prophecy is a central theme of Scripture. If prophecy is from God then God speaks to us through prophecy and should line up with human history because it claims to predict the future before it happens.
2 Peter 1:19-21 (NASB)
19 So we have the prophetic word made more sure, to which you do well to pay attention as to a lamp shining in a dark place,
until the day dawns and the morning star arises in your hearts.
20 But know this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, 21 for no prophecy was ever made by an act of human will, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.
Prophecy requires a correct interpretation to make sense of it, for it claims God is speaking to us and giving us proof of His existence via history. What I'm' telling you is there is a correct interpretation of Scripture and unless you understand what is being said, to whom, the time frame, how they understand it, you miss the beautiful verification of God's word.
Be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a workman who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth.
I was trying to show you how Scripture is reasonable to believe and points to the claimed God as true. He is under no obligation to you (but you are to Him) yet by grace He has given His word as a proof for those who will humble themselves and seek His face. If you are not interested, I'm wasting my time since you can't talk to someone who is dead to God.
I answer each post, the charge someone makes, so it is not only me that turns the thread onto a different topic. Find me a thread that does not have this problem.
I believe a possible reason you and so many others rejected Christianity is that all your life you were told of the soon come of Jesus Christ and over and over again this was proven wrong. When you read Scripture you see a time frame that is different from the message Christians present to the public today of a soon coming apocalypse.
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@ludofl3x
Okay, I'll break down the evidence into small soundbites regarding the seventy sevens or seventy weeks.
1. The Literal Approach Per Philip Mauro (then I will present the evidence for the Approximate time frame approach). I will try and establish both as reasonable and logical.
Daniel 9:24 (NASB)
Seventy Weeks and the Messiah
24 “Seventy [a]weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the most holy place.
Footnotes:[a] Daniel 9:24 Or units of seven, and so throughout the ch.
Daniel's people and city (Jerusalem) are given a time frame of seventy sevens or 490 years (70 X 7 = 490) to finish the six listed conditions - agreed from the text of Scripture?
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"God's response to Daniel's prayer was in the form of a revelation brought to him by the angel Gabriel, who stated, as the first item of information, that the seventy years of captivity were to be followed by a period of seventy sevens (of years). The word here rendered "weeks" is literally "sevens"; so there is no doubt that the period designated in this prophecy is seventy sevens of years- 490 years."
Do you accept that "sevens" is a reasonable interpretation of Daniel 9:24 or do you want me to establish further proof that both Jews and Christians think along such lines?
How do you think the Jews of the first century thought about Daniel's prophecy? Do you think they were looking for a Messiah around this 1st-century period?
If you are in agreement I will continue, otherwise, let's discuss it further.
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@keithprosser
Show me a socialist country that does not exploit its peopleSurely a country that exploits its people is not socialist? I know of no socialist theorist who has put 'exploitation of the people' as the core principle of socialism!African countries are not socialist - they are kleptocracies.
Socialism way too often leads to kleptocracies. Big government mostly controlled by dictators exploit the masses.
Zambia, where I was born, was influenced by Communist China. I remember going to the annual agricultural fair in Lusaka and everyone who went through the toll gate received a copy of Mao's Little Red Book. I remember how the Zambian society changed when Kenneth Kaunda sought communist help in developing Zambia, as did much of Africa. It was a poor country despite (at that time) being the third largest producer of copper in the world. I saw the same thing happen in Zimbabwe, Angola, and Mozambique who adopted similar types of governments influenced by China and communist thought who supplied arms to topple capitalistic governments.
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@3RU7AL
The number of single-family homes would be an explanation of such behaviour occurs (lacking one or the other role model), plus the constant promotion of a gay lifestyle 24/7 in our cultures.For instance, the odds of homosexuality increased slightly when divorced parents remarried, bringing two step-parents into the picture. However, the likelihood of homosexual orientation actually decreased where there was only one step-parent. A 2008 US study by Andrew Francis found that having no involved parents was mildly associated with a same-sex partner for both boys and girls. However, single parent homes, whether with mom or dad were not associated with having a same-gender partner or romantic attraction to the same sex. [LINK]
The question is who is right? Is it logical to think that a child who experiences a marriage break up will have more problems than one who does not, generally speaking?
Is it logical to think that if you lack a father figure or a mother figure that you could tend to compensate?
Is it reasonable to think that if you have been abused by one parent that you could associate and harbour bad feelings towards that parent and possibly seek compensation in the opposite sex of that parent?
In contrast to reparative theory expectations, he reported that identifying as less than 100% heterosexual for males was associated with living with only dad. No romantic attraction or same-sex behavior was reported for males living with only mother. [LINK]
It would be interesting to see the stats in regards to now and fifty years ago regarding family breakups (divorce) and how it correlates to homosexual tendencies.
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@secularmerlin
True, but I make a distinction as to my starting point from an atheist, agnostic or pagan. Core presuppositions are what worldviews are based upon - i.e., either God/gods or chance happenstance. Worldviews are based on a web of core presuppositions. My starting point is God.Interesting. I do not begin with a starting point I merely allow the evidence to inform my beliefs and therefore lack belief of any prospect that lacks sufficient evidence.
Sure you do. Worldviews look at the world through these basic, core, foundational starting blocks or beliefs. You just don't realize your starting point and how it influences how you look at everything. You seem to think that a lack of belief in God does not funnel how you look at everything else. You are persuaded by a NATURALISTIC outlook when you deny God. You tend to understand everything through such an outlook when you deny God.
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@secularmerlin
I believe that we deviate from the norm when we ignore God's word and example. That is the Scriptural teaching. I believe the sinful choices of the father affects the son, up to the third and fourth generation, through example (or lack of) or through gender confusion. If the person does not receive proper reinforcement from the father, or one parent, from a young age I believe they may seek it out in another male role model, or in the case of a girl, a female role model that she lacked. The number of single-family homes would be an explanation of such behaviour occurs (lacking one or the other role model), plus the constant promotion of a gay lifestyle 24/7 in our cultures. Some people just want to experiment.Thus, I believe, a person chooses to find what they are missing. I believe they choose to make themselves more feminine (or in the case of the female more masculine) to attract members of the same sex and try to find what they lacked.That's an interesting belief can you demonstrate that it is true?
I can demonstrate how it is biblical.
I can also give you various opinions and some stats that support this idea. Other than that, you make up your mind on what you are fed via society and particular paradigms.
Homosexuality is a developmental problem that is almost always the result of problems in family relations, particularly between father and son. As a result of failure with father, the boy does not fully internalize male gender-identity, and develops homosexuality. This is the most commonly seen clinical model. - Joseph Nicolosi, Reparative Therapy of Male Homosexuality, 1991
Child Abuse and Lesbianism
There are special needs that little girls have that make them unique. When those needs are denied, ignored, or exploited, the future womanhood of that child is in jeopardy.
Just how are those needs denied, ignored, or exploited? Through abuse....Abuse can be overt, as in physical or sexual abuse, or it may be more subtle. Of course, its more subtle versions wouldn't legally qualify as child abuse, but they are forms of abuse nonetheless, and they have far-reaching consequences. One of those consequences is a distorted sexual identity. I have seen, time and again, clear connections between early abuse and confusion in sexuality. And I cannot ignore the histories of the many women I've known who have survived one form of abuse or another and are also attracted to other women. Although abuse by itself does not cause lesbianism, it can certainly be found in the background of may lesbian women and has in many cases been a contributing factor to their orientation. - Carol Ahrens in Desires in Conflict, 1991
Child Abuse and Lesbianism
There are special needs that little girls have that make them unique. When those needs are denied, ignored, or exploited, the future womanhood of that child is in jeopardy.
Just how are those needs denied, ignored, or exploited? Through abuse....Abuse can be overt, as in physical or sexual abuse, or it may be more subtle. Of course, its more subtle versions wouldn't legally qualify as child abuse, but they are forms of abuse nonetheless, and they have far-reaching consequences. One of those consequences is a distorted sexual identity. I have seen, time and again, clear connections between early abuse and confusion in sexuality. And I cannot ignore the histories of the many women I've known who have survived one form of abuse or another and are also attracted to other women. Although abuse by itself does not cause lesbianism, it can certainly be found in the background of may lesbian women and has in many cases been a contributing factor to their orientation. - Carol Ahrens in Desires in Conflict, 1991
Our societies promote sex, divorce, promiscuous lifestyles through the media and Hollywood. We are bombarded with it. We see the breakdown of family units in everything we watch and through our experiences. So I ask you, is it a reasonable deduction that if you only grew up with one family member then you are more likely to seek the missing family member and shape yourself to fulfilling such missing role models in your relationships (thus we see more and more of the gay lifestyle in society)? If you, as a young girl, were molested by your father, would you not be more inclined to seek a woman as your positive role model because you associate pain and wrongful action from a source that you should have found love from? If you are influenced mainly by the mother figure you would be more likely to exhibit feminine attributes than if you had equal role model influences. If your mother is the dominant role model how much of that rubs off on you? These are all questions that I personally belief affects your upbringing. Thus, the Bible says:
for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me, 6 but showing love to a thousand generations of those who love me and keep my commandments.
So, sins can show up in future generations because the father and mother live sinful lifestyles that rub off on the children and they, in turn, follow suit in sinful actions.
Statistically, does divorce create more problems than remaining married for the offspring? I believe that the case can be made effectively.
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@disgusted
How does looking after the poor coincide with ILLEGAL immigration? These people are breaking the laws of the land. Many are smuggling in illegal drugs and people. Terrorists can negotiate a crossing into your country unhindered. The cost to your country is billions of dollars every year.How many Swedes are crossing the US border illegally?
What does Sweden have to do with this?
(The Swedes have not felt the full brunt of socialism yet)
Stick to the already insane argument you were pursuing and leave your brain rattles at home.
Socialist countries of Central America:
Nicaragua
Socialist Party in Power
Socialist Party in Power
Where are the majority of these illegal immigrants coming from?
Central America is now responsible for most of the fluctuation in illegal migrant flows northward. Three countries in particular -- Guatemala, Honduras and El Salvador -- account for the bulk of non-Mexican migrants arrested at the U.S.-Mexico border. Because these countries are much smaller than Mexico, they will never come close to supplying a migration surge on the scale of that seen from Mexico in the 1980s and 1990s. Unlike Mexico, however, their economies aren't getting any better. Each of the three countries suffers from rampant violent crime, due to cocaine trafficking from South America and to street gangs that prey on locals through extortion and frequent killings. For instance, El Salvador's annual murder rate is 80 per 100,000 inhabitants, while Honduras' is 59 per 100,000 -- both more than 10 times the United States'.
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Countries Considered Socialist:
AngolaSocialist Party in Power
Bangladesh
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Barbados
Socialist Party in Power
Bolivia
Socialist Party in Power
China
Marxist-Leninist
Cuba
Marxist-Leninist
Ecuador
Socialist Party in Power
El Salvador
Socialist Party in Power
Ethiopia
Socialist Party in Power
Greece
Socialist Party in Power
Guinea-Bissau
Socialist Party in Power
Guyana
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Laos
Marxist-Leninist
Mauritius
Socialist Party in Power
Mozambique
Socialist Party in Power
Namibia
Socialist Party in Power
Nepal
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Nepal
Socialist Party in Power
Nicaragua
Socialist Party in Power
North Korea
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Portugal
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Republic of the Congo
Socialist Party in Power
Saint Vincent and the Grenadines
Socialist Party in Power
Sri Lanka
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Suriname
Socialist Party in Power
Tanzania
Non-Marxist-Leninist
Tanzania
Socialist Party in Power
Uruguay
Socialist Party in Power
Venezuela
Socialist Party in Power
Vietnam
Marxist-Leninist
Zambia
Socialist Party in Power
Show me a socialist country that does not exploit its people from the above list (remember, I was born in Zambia and lived there for a segment of my life. I have seen it first hand, along with many other countries in Africa).
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@disgusted
Many would argue that those societies have declined since socialism, as I already pointed out. I would agree.By every metric used to determine human well being the citizens of these socialist countries are better off than all other countries, that makes you and your mythical "many" WRONG.
Sweden is a nation with extraordinary high tax rates. The average worker not only pays 30 percent of her or his income in visible taxes, but, additionally, close to 30 percent in hidden taxes. The defenders of the punishing tax burden argue that it is needed to maintain Sweden’s generous welfare system. While this claim may seem reasonable on its surface, a deeper look suggests that it is based on flawed analysis...
Taxes discourage work and encourage tax avoidance. There is strong evidence that Sweden’s highest rate of individual and capital taxation actually reduces public revenue. For this reason, some taxes, such as the wealth tax, have recently been reduced. The result is estimated to be a net increase in tax revenues.
When Swedish municipalities receive increased funding from the state, the money is used to expand the local bureaucracy, a government survey has shown, instead of going to educators and health care workers.
Municipalities provide much of the welfare in Sweden. The Swedish Association of Local Authorities and Regions have shown in a study that funding for Swedish municipalities grew dramatically between 1980 and 2005. Despite this, the general public consensus is that the quality of welfare has declined during the same period.
Welfare provisions don’t necessarily correspond with taxation levels. A 2005 research paper examines the efficiency of the public sector in 23 industrialized countries. The researchers found that Sweden only reaches a mediocre 12th place when it comes to how much the public sector provides in terms of welfare services. When the level of welfare is related to the level of taxation, Sweden falls to the last position in the index.
There is a high variation in how effectively public money is spent within Sweden. The Swedish Taxpayers Association has, in a number of surveys, shown that identical welfare services such as care of the elderly, can vary in cost quite dramatically across Sweden.
There are two important reasons why the average Swedish worker pays a large portion of her or his income in taxes, without necessarily receiving an equally high level of welfare.
First, much of the money is spent on administrative costs at various levels of government. Although a small nation, Sweden has over a hundred public authorities. Vast sums are spent on political projects which fall outside the frames of general welfare. It is, for instance, not unusual for Swedish municipalities to fund bowling alleys, swimming pools, or camping places.
Second, a large fraction of the population is living on benefits rather than working,due to the combination of high taxes, a rigid labour market and generous welfare benefits. Even before the economic crisis hit, for example, almost one out of five children in Sweden’s third largest city, Malmö, were living in a family supported by social security. Sweden has 105 local districts where the majority of the population lives off of various public benefits, and does not work. This unintended consequence of the welfare state has taken a heavy toll on public services, since an increasing share of tax revenue must be diverted to fund welfare payments, rather than social services...
The famous Swedish welfare state is to a large degree a notion of the past...
How does looking after the poor coincide with ILLEGAL immigration? These people are breaking the laws of the land. Many are smuggling in illegal drugs and people. Terrorists can negotiate a crossing into your country unhindered. The cost to your country is billions of dollars every year.How many Swedes are crossing the US border illegally? Stick to the already insane argument you were pursuing and leave your brain rattles at home.
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