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@Amoranemix
SkepticalOne 303I think you, and many people, overly complicate morality. We only need to agree on something by which to measure our actions. Your preference is god. Mine is well-being.PGA2.0 331Well-being in whose eyes? Your subjective eyes? No thank you.His point exactly. You dislike well-being. He dislikes God. In the real world we all have our preferences.
I dislike injustice. Hitler's or Kim Jung-un's or Margret Sanger's or your relative, subjective well-being is only good for the select members of society, not everyone. Thus, it is unjust for where there is not equal justice; there is none.
PGA2.0 331 to SkepticalOneHow does that answer my question? You continue to evade my questions.Read who is writing.
What is your point other than another ad hom?
PGA2.0 331 to SkepticalOneThat is your subjective opinion. What makes that right or anything you say right since you have no objective standard of appeal. Why SHOULD (a moral imperative) I trust your subjective opinion since it appears that is all you have got? Your subjectiveness is what wars are fought over.Religious wars are far more popular than subjectiveness wars.
In most cases, they are the same. The "just wars" are few and far between.
PGA2.0 331Abortion bad -abortion good - abortion bad again - abortion good again.[a] Something you are missing is that in matter of abortion, almost everyone agrees on what has value, i.e. [b] they have shared preferences. [c] Both the rights of the mother and the life of the child have value. [d] The contention is about what has most value. [e] Almost no one is of the opinion that abortion is good. However, many people consider, i.e. are of the opinion, [f] that in some cases no abortion is even worse.
[a] I did not miss it. Tens of millions disagree that abortion is a good thing. The only value comes when saving the woman's life in a tubal pregnancy.
[b] I must remind you that preference makes nothing right, just doable if the person, group, society has the might to act their preferences.
[c] What about the "Rights" of the child/unborn? Why are you only giving the woman rights? Must I again remind you, the most basic natural right for any human being is the right to life.
[d] So, once again, you do not recognize that all human beings have equal rights to life. You join the long list of people like Hitler, Stalin, Mao, Kim Jong-un, Pol Pot, Putin, Yi Jiping, who are selective in who lives and dies. These people dehumanized those that they see as less valuable.
[e] Wrong. Many are of that opinion since they are woefully ignorant about what is being killed. They would not support abortion if they thought is wrong.
[f] 95-99% of abortions are "choice-based" on want or affordability, depending on what source is cited. Since when could anyone other than a mother kill her own offspring based on not wanting them or not being willing to support them?
- 0.36% of abortions done to save the life or health of the mother (5,200 per year)
- 0.09% done in cases of rape or incest (1,300 abortions per year)
- 0.24% done for fetal birth defects (3,470 per year)
- 0.69% done for all the hard cases combined (9,970 per year)
- 99.31% of all abortions are therefore performed for social or economic reasons
Again, I will remind you that you discriminate against one group (the unborn) yet not the other. How is that equal justice? Since when do you or others get to decide who lives and dies based on economic or personal wants? When are you allowed to kill people based on their economic position or because you don't want them? Yet, you advocate this what you call "right" to the woman??
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 330 to SkepticalOneNow you mention two types of foreign slaves, one a war captive and therefore a reparation for the damages suffered [90], and the other bought to serve the Hebrew family from a foreign country, again usually becoming a slave in a foreign land because of poverty or debt. Even so, the type of slavery or servitude was different between the treatment in Israel to that experienced in other ANE nations. But to your point, the foreigner, during a war, would be responsible for the damages inflicted on the victor.[91] [ . . . ][90] I doubt the Israelite's victims found enslavement sufficient compensation for the damage they suffered.
Thanks for yet another doubtful opinionated statement! Are you speaking of matters you know something about? Have you done any research on ANE slavery? What do you know about ANE slavery???
[91] [a] Might makes right morality. In that respect [b] your fictional worldview does not differ from reality.
[a] It was common in ANE cultures to use might. The Mosaic law was based on justice and mercy. I've explained it briefly above and in other posts.
[b] Your same old worn-out tune. Show you can explain morality. That is what this post is about, which worldview is more reasonable concerning morality.
PGA2.0 330 to SkepticalOneWar reparations or restitution was a different principle, the principle of damages owed, damages paid. In our penal system the damages would have to be repaid or else the person would face prison time.I don't know what banana republic you live in, but in our justice system, [a] it is not necessarily the one who lost a conflict that has to pay the damages. [b] If Bob stole and wrecked Alice's car, in my country it would be Bob who would have to repay the damages to Alice, not the other war round.
[a]
[b] You are the one turning it around (give your head a shake). Just as Bob stole Alice's car, so Germany inflicted great loss in many countries during WWII.
Biblically speaking, God owns all things since He made the universe and gives life. He gave Israel the Promised Land and brought judgment on those who practiced wickedness inside the land. Those who attacked or plotted against Israel were intent on damaging Israel for their own gain. In the greater picture, if Israel were defeated, the promised Messiah's bloodline (as prophesied) would be compromised and lost.
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@Amoranemix
Secularmerlin 326 to PGA2.0(EITHER) a person's kidney (and their uterus) are their possessions protected by their right to personal bodily autonomy (in which case NO ONE can use them without consent)(OR) a person's body (such that its use is only a danger to the individual but they could live through the process) is commonwealth and anyone in possession of two kidneys is just as guilty of murder by proxy as a woman who gets an abortion.Actually, just now I get the sense of your analogy. You should have explained it. It thought the kidney stood for the fetus. I suspect PGA2.0 didn't get it either.
It is a common argument used by abortion advocates that stems from Judith Jarvis Thomson's violinist analogy. It would help if you familiarized yourself with such arguments before you make these claims against me. I understand it well, and I disagree with the premise for several reasons, and here are a few of them:
1. The unborn human being is an innocent human being (it has done nothing wrong). It has a body too, thus what about its bodily rights?
2. I would argue that it is most reasonable to believe the unborn is a person from conception, just less developed than you or me.
3. A pregnant woman has an obligation to protect her offspring that she shares her DNA. The violinist is a stranger.
4. The woman (in approximately 95-99% of pregnancies) gives consent to have sex, knowing that with sex, there is a chance of pregnancy and thus moral responsibility.
5. The person being hooked up to a violinist gave no consent to be artificially hooked up to the violinist. Your body is not directly connected to the violinist.
6. The unborn is violently killed, its body being torn and ripped to pieces via suction in one form of abortion. In another, it is chemically burned to death. In a third, it is cut or stabbed and mutilated.
7. Pregnancy is temporary and natural. Pregnancy is common, and our existence as humans depends on it. Being hooked up artificially to a famous violinist is not common, nor does human existence depend on it.
Thus, the analogy fails in comparison in many ways, some of which have been listed.
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@Amoranemix
Have you managed to distill any moral AXIOMS?PGA2.0 288How do you mean? I believe I have.I work from the principle of the Ten Commandments, which delves into most aspects of morality for it deals with what happens when someone wrongs instead of loves others. Abortion centers on the "thou shalt not kill/murder"principle. Abortion is a spiteful act that does not take into account the life of someone else but thinks of self. It is not loving.[87] All human life is created in the image and likeness of God. It is God's right to take human life since we are His creatures.[88]God permits exceptions for civil societies to function. Wrongdoing - life for life; that would be equal justice. The exception to abortion is when the woman will die before the unborn is developed enough to save it. Then it is permissible to take its life because the death of the woman would be unavoidable and so would that of the unborn. At least one is saved, so it is the greater outcome of the two - one dead instead of two. When someone dies unintentionally, in the case of manslaughter, the intent is not to do harm (but sometimes it can be because of carelessness), but an accident results in death. That is not the same thing as malicious or spiteful intent - murder - that the commandment deals with.[89][87] So is rape. [a] Yet I don't see any prohobition against that in the Ten Commandments. From biological evolution point of view on the other hand, rape is useful, as it helps the distribution of the rape gene. No god is required for that.
The principle of love for your neighbour is in the commandments as a prohibition against rape. Jesus expanded on the Ten Commandments then condensed them into two. There are various principles contained in the commandments that apply to rape, like coveting, adultery, and idolatry. You may even include stealing (taking something that has not been given to you). The law is very just when it comes to rape. It takes into account the good of the woman, whether married or single. Remember, this was Ancient Near East culture (ANE) where killing a man (the family's protector) would leave the women and children vulnerable. So, here is what we find:
Deuteronomy 22:25-29 (NASB)
25 “But if the man finds the girl who is betrothed in the field, and the man seizes her and [a]rapes her, then only the man who [b]raped her shall die. 26 And you are not to do anything to the girl; there is no sin in the girl worthy of death, for just as a man rises against his neighbor and murders him, [c]so is this case. 27 When he found her in the field, the betrothed girl [d]cried out, but there was no one to save her.
28 “If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not betrothed, and he seizes her and has sexual relations with her, and they are discovered, 29 then the man who had sexual relations with her shall give the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife, because he has violated her; he is not allowed to divorce her all his days.
25 “But if the man finds the girl who is betrothed in the field, and the man seizes her and [a]rapes her, then only the man who [b]raped her shall die. 26 And you are not to do anything to the girl; there is no sin in the girl worthy of death, for just as a man rises against his neighbor and murders him, [c]so is this case. 27 When he found her in the field, the betrothed girl [d]cried out, but there was no one to save her.
28 “If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not betrothed, and he seizes her and has sexual relations with her, and they are discovered, 29 then the man who had sexual relations with her shall give the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife, because he has violated her; he is not allowed to divorce her all his days.
Verse 25-27 deals with a betrothed or married woman. If such a woman is violated, the guilty man is killed (he will only do it once) if found out.
Verse 28-29 deals with the virgin or single woman. Once the woman is violated, the principle here is she will have a hard time supporting herself or finding a husband, so the guilty party, if agreed by the father, will marry and take care of her. The guilty man will support her all her life (not allowed to divorce her).
I can get into warfare too, but that is more than I want to cover here since my time is short.
It is God's right to take human life since we are His creatures.[88][88] How is that supposed to follow?
You may not like the principle of God taking life, but when you make something, you are free to do with it as you want. It is your creation. Would you agree? God designed humans to know Him. Being in His universe, He has the right to determine how you should live. Sin or wrongdoing against God is something we are accountable for, yet God is merciful and has provided a way in which we can renew our fellowship and relationship with Him.
In Eden, He allowed humanity (represented by Adam) to live in perfect fellowship with Him for eternity. Adam decided to blaze his own way. The result is humanity's inhumanity. Thus, God put roadblocks in our way that we would not live perpetually in disobedience and evil towards Him and also for our learning. First, He barred humans from that close fellowship experienced by Adam and Eve in the Garden (spiritual death). Barring us from Eden, humans could not participate in the tree of life and live forever. Then He provided curses or obstacles in our lives, the world, the universe, that would remind us of our fallenness and evil. Finally, He gave humanity a limited human lifespan in which our physical bodies would return to the ground (dust to dust, ashes to ashes).
These limitations help us to realize the futility of our existence without God. We witness the evil that we do without God's guidance. We witness that there does not seem to be a suitable solution outside of God's provision, and some of us thus seek Him out and find Him. The evil in the world is a constant reminder of our sinfulness. So, the principle - sin causes death. But God is not finished with us. He wants us to know of His merciful provision - forgiveness and restoration to Him in His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. Because of His innocence, we can experience forgiveness and reconciliation with God. Without this forgiveness, we live our futile and often meaningless lives.
God permits exceptions for civil societies to function. Wrongdoing - life for life; that would be equal justice. The exception to abortion is when the woman will die before the unborn is developed enough to save it. Then it is permissible to take its life because the death of the woman would be unavoidable and so would that of the unborn. At least one is saved, so it is the greater outcome of the two - one dead instead of two. When someone dies unintentionally, in the case of manslaughter, the intent is not to do harm (but sometimes it can be because of carelessness), but an accident results in death. That is not the same thing as malicious or spiteful intent - murder - that the commandment deals with.[89][89] I don't see the Ten Commandments mention any of that. Is that just your personal opinion you use to fill the gaps in your moral axioms?
Life for life is equal justice.
Abortion is murder. It kills another human being. Thus it is covered under "You shall not kill/murder."
Miscarriage is not usually malicious, intentional murder. The woman aborting the unborn to save her life is not murder since if she does not, she will die, and so will the unborn due to its lack of viability. In ANE times with tubal pregnancy, both died since the medical knowledge back then was primitive. Today, we can save one.
3RU7AL 294Nope. Please explain.PGA2.0 301Words carry specific meaning when in context. From a context you can determine what is spoken of. If not, the author needs to make his meaning more clear. If you have not grasped the author's meaning, you have not understood what the author said or communicated.What if the author fails to make the meaning more clear?
By questioning him/her, you inquire into the true meaning. When the author is not available to supply the true interpretation, there is obscurity. That is not the biblical case, although you will probably argue otherwise.
I sometimes debate a Christian who keeps throwing moral attributes around without specifying the referenced moral standard.
I have always made it clear that I argue for no god but God (the biblical God). Thus, I am particular when speaking about morality per the thread's title and my opening post. The reference is God, and by His nature and revelation, we come to understand His goodness. Only one God has been revealed as omniscient, omnipotent, omnipresent, omnibenevolent, immutable, and eternal.
He assumes that when different people use the same word, like good or right, they mean the same thing. The author appears to want to sow confusion (the Christian's friend).
I speak of the right and wrong principle and sometimes get into specific examples as I did with abortion. I keep asking you what you mean by "the good" if goodness is relative, and there is no fixed and final standard - God and His nature. You have provided nothing that withstands scrutiny.
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@Amoranemix
Remember that there were 19 million miscarriages last year also. Doesn't god know anything about quality control? Why did god use atoms and 10 sextillion suns to create one planet that life would finally form on?PGA2.0 273How many of those deaths are attributed to the individual and how they live that results in the miscarriage?I don't know and I am not told why He used so many atoms.Cool. Now I can quote you saying “I don't know”, totally out of context and completely misrepresenting what you meant. Just the way you like it.
I don't know the cause of the 19 million miscarriages other than indirectly, the Fall, and I don't know how many suns there are in the universe, but I know they display the power and glory of God.
Who are you to tell me what is a lie regarding God? How reasonable are you being? Do you want to argue against the Christian God specifically? That is the only God I believe in. Do you want to examine the reasonableness of your evidence as opposed to mine? I like to start with prophecy and its reasonableness. We can have a formal debate on that subject if you like.
ludofl3x 249Or the stuff in the universe was always around in various forms, cycling from big bang to big crunch eternally.PGA2.0 280How do you get to the present universe from an infinite of universes? These universes coming and going? They do not all exist simultaneously. So what created the universe? What is this 'stuff' and how can it 'act' as an agent?You can't have an infinite causality and get to the present causality, can you? Explain how it you think soWhat relevance does any of that have?
The relevance? I am answering and challenging a specific statement of his. I am asking him for his explanation.
First, it is off topic.
Directly, yes. Indirectly it ties into morality. Just as with the universe, so how you view the causal tree of the origin of the universe correlates with how you arrive at the moral.
Second, suppose ludofl3x doesnt know, so what? [a] The only attempt at relevance I can see is that you are looking for evidence for the first premise of the God of the gaps argument: [b]P1 Atheists can't explain how this or that is possible.P2 God is responsible for everthing atheists can't explain.C Therefore, God exists.Officially, most Christians admit it is a bad argument, but they use it anyway, because it works. Why do you think it is that so many people still fall for it?
[a] As per above, you come to a false conclusion once again. I gave you an example of further relevance. It is more about atheism of the gaps.
[b] That is not my argument. It is the argument given by Willian Lane Craig, citing Leibniz, in On Guard, p. 54,
P1 Everything that exists has an explanation for its existence.
P2 If the universe has an explanation of its existence, that explanation is God.
P3 The universe exists.
P4 The universe has an explanation for its existence.
C. Therefore, the explanation of the universe's existence is God.
So, do you wish to tackle the four premises or the conclusion?
3RU7AL 254[Complaint about God ordering the killing of women and children in Numbers 31: 15-18]PGA2.0 287I'm not sure if that particular verse teaches the killing of children (among the little ones), but and innocent life God takes (a life that has not committed sin and is not able to reason or yet be accountable) God will restore to a better place. Jesus taught the kingdom of heaven belongs to little children.[a] Why would God need to restore the children to a better place? [b] Whatever God does is good and just according to his own standard.
[a] Because it is not in His nature to punish but to reward the innocent. The better place is an intimately personal relationship with the Almighty God in heaven.
[b] God's nature is the standard. To understand goodness, we look to God.
PGA2.0 287 to 3RU7ALThe point, there are explanations for why this happened.The point is off topic. This is a debate about morality. Behaviours need not be explained, but justified.
I contend that morality goes deeper than human beings. Your subjective mindset is not sufficient for understanding morality.
My analogy goes like this:
What is the root cause of morality? You say human beings, and I say what caused human beings for there to be morality. In thoroughly examining any causal tree, you need to arrive at the root cause to understand the causal factor's relationship. One of the many jobs I have had in my life is one of a Safety Coordinator in which I had to investigate and analyze the root causes of accidents to eliminate accidents in the future. That meant investigating the causal tree and looking at the cause-effect relationship of an incident/accident. That is what I am after with you atheists in your thinking on morality. That involves investigating the root cause or how the chain of events happened to arrive at the incident in question, right and wrong, from the starting point (or however far back we need to determine what caused the incident). The problem is that atheists can't sufficiently identify the root cause and, therefore, how the other causes are traced back to the root. They look at and sometimes identify the symptoms but can't prescribe the cure. They say, "This happened" (i.e., Joe took a gun and shot her for eating sour grapes), but they can't determine what lead to it happening (the motive, the actions to the incident, the reasons involved) to prevent it from happening again. The symptoms are different from preventing it from happening in the first place.
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@Amoranemix
Better is a subjective term. It is only useful if we first have a reference point. If the reference point is human welfare then I believe my viewis "better" at promoting welfare. If the reference point is some possibly fictional god then until the god is demonstrate along with s ok me methodology for unambiguously (not subject to interpretation) determining the will of said god then even if it exists we are still all just guessing. If I understand your method properly it is very suspect specifically because it is subject to interpretation which allows subjective opinions to again enter the conversation.PGA2.0 263How can it be better if it is subjective? Better in relation to what???[83]Well-being, in whose opinion?[84]Human welfare in whose opinion, the woman who kills her unborn human child? How is that well-being for the unborn?[85] You selectively choose who you will apply wellbeing to. When food is short are you still going to be looking for the wellbeing of your neighbour? Look at the world around you and see how, in practicality or livability, this principle of wellbeing works in most countries of the world, especially socialist and communist atheistic states.[86][83] Your worldview is a serious handicap for understanding reality. In order to understand these things you must open up your worldview to it.
No, you're mistaken. Moral relativism can only go to battle with subjective opinion. Open it up to your relativism? Who are you to tell me what is right and wrong unless you can show me that what you believe is based on an actual fixed reference point? Who do you think you are to dictate from your subjectivism that there is no necessary fixed measure? How do you, as a subjective human being, know this is true? You can't even live by your own system of thought. You are inconsistent. That is a troubling sign in a worldview. A fixed reference point is what is necessary for the understanding of morality. Your system of thought on morality is morally bankrupt. When discussing the moral "better" concerning a specific thing, there must be a fixed reference point for it to have meaning or how it can be measured as better. A constantly shifting standard has no comparison for better because things are always in flux. Abortion is a case in point. Before 1973, abortion was considered a moral wrong except in special circumstances. Now it is considered a moral right for the woman to choose whether (or not) to kill her offspring. Which are the correct view and true identity of abortion?
You have nothing sensical to offer.
It can be better by meeting the definition of better described in the (omitted) standard. Better is a relation. Something is better than something else.
Yes, better is a relationship. To have better, there must be a best to compare better to or else how can you gauge something as better? Yes, something is better than something else only if there is an ideal comparison for that something. What is the ideal for the right and wrong of abortion, since I am referencing a specific better and not just speaking of the concept of better anymore? (This is where you get derailed, the difference between an actual case and the concept in your evaluation of what I am saying)
Is it better to murder innocent human beings (ones that have done nothing wrong) if you choose to, or should we protect them and identify murdering them as wrong? How do you determine the moral better in this case?
Well-being, in whose opinion?[84][84] Dude, ask clear questions.
Don't try to obfuscate. The question is clear. Who gets to define what well-being is? Don't isolate the context. I gave you a clear example. You are basing morality on opinion, preference. Why is your opinion of well-bing better than mine regarding the unborn and abortion??????????
Human welfare in whose opinion, the woman who kills her unborn human child? How is that well-being for the unborn?[85][85] Is that well-being for the unborn?
You tell me. I'm asking you a question. Quit evading my questions.
How is it well-being to kill an innocent human being? How is it wellbeing to deny its right to life? Who gives you or the woman the 'right' to decide for it? How just is such a decision? Do you apply the same standards to other human beings? How about the mother's toddler. Can she kill it, too, because she is looking out for its "well-being?" Why are you applying a standard to one human being that is different from another? Is it just your opinion to have unequal justice, where you choose how you will apply fairness? For one, you choose to kill it, and for the other, you choose to let it live. If so, your justice system is unlivable, and if the tables were turned and someone applied the same unfair standard to you that you call justice, then you would be dead.
You selectively choose who you will apply wellbeing to. When food is short are you still going to be looking for the wellbeing of your neighbour? Look at the world around you and see how, in practicality or livability, this principle of wellbeing works in most countries of the world, especially socialist and communist atheistic states.[86][86] Look at the world around you and see how, in practicality or livability, God as a source of morility and justice in most countries of the world, especially in religious states.
The Christian answer: You fail to see the bigger picture. God has given you a will, and you are free to exercise that will for the number of days He has granted you, yet you constantly choose evil. Evil is choosing to go against the good that is God. Thus, without repentance and God's provision for sin, you will, upon death, answer for your sin. We are all accountable to God, and whether we are held accountable in our merit or the merit of another depends on what we believe when we die.
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@Amoranemix
Tradesecret 189Hence, it is impossible for them to argue they have morality - they don't - not as atheists. The only morality they could possibly use is morality they have borrowed from other worldviews. This is their cake - they cannot eat it as well. Either they have morality - which means they have a shared doctrine or dogma or they have no morality of their own - but borrow it from everywhere else.PGA2.0 228I agree with you 100%. I would argue that what atheists call morality is their 'moral' preference, their likes and dislikes.[68] They impose those on others by laws.[69] But what is good or right they have no ideal or fixed standard for, thus you are again correct, they borrow from a system of thought that does. [70] We as Christians have a solid foundation for right and wrong, they do not. We can justify our worldview in this area, they can't.[71]I don't entirely agree with Tradesecret. That atheism would have to borrow from other worldviews, implies it is a worldview itself, in which case it can have it's own morality.
It can't unless an atheist can show they have that exclusive fixed, unchanging, objective reference point. You have not shown they do.
As for a worldview, as I pointed out before, atheists answer the same ultimate questions that other religious worldviews do. Thus, whether you like it or not, atheism qualifies in the same way that Christianity would.
I would argue that what atheists call morality is their 'moral' preference, their likes and dislikes.[68][68] Again, likes and dislikes alone do not make something moral or immoral.
Likes and dislikes are preferences, and preferences do are not count as moral unless they correspond to what is actually the case of right and wrong. The question is, how does an atheist arrive at what is actually right and wrong without a fixed, unchanging, objective standard of reference???
They impose those on others by laws.[69][69] Atheists aren't the only ones who do that.
True, but they don't have the right basic for doing so.
But what is good or right they have no ideal or fixed standard for, thus you are again correct, they borrow from a system of thought that does. [70][70] So you claim, but can you prove that?
Again, Christianity qualifies as having what is necessary. From there, you can test the Bible's internal consistency in several ways, of which prophecy is an excellent reasoning tool. Then, as I have pointed out before, making sense of the universe, existence, morality is more reasonably by presupposing God than chance happenstance. The fine-tuning of the universe, the discovery of natural laws, the fact that we humans think in terms of right and wrong, and look for meaning all are more logical from God's standpoint, but you are entitled to think irrationally if you wish?
We as Christians have a solid foundation for right and wrong, they do not. We can justify our worldview in this area, they can't.[71][71] Corrections: Christians believe they have a solid foundation and Christians believe they can justify their worldview in thisarea.
We all believe things. You, as an atheist, believe things. You believe you can justify various aspects of atheism.
We, as Christians, have a solid foundation for morality. That foundation has what is necessary and can explain morality. Whether you believe it or not is a different matter.
There is much evidence that confirms the Bible. It is reasonable. It says over and over that it is the Word of God, God speaking to humanity.
This whole thread is about one aspect of the Christian worldview versus the atheistic worldview; which is more reasonable to believe, morality from a Christian or atheistic perspective?
Tradesecret 189How of course they are able to measure whether it is good or not - is going to be interesting. They will try and say science - but this is nonsense. Not because science is nonsense - because it is not - but because science is objective - allegedly. Morality is subjective. And cannot be tested scientifically.PGA2.0 228I agree that morality cannot be tested through empirical means that science uses. It requires a different standard.[72] [ . . . ][72] Indeed. Many things are like that, all subjective things. Then comes along a group of people, who base their beliefs on texts written by ancient goat herds, telling us that morality is the exception and expecting skeptics to roll over and accept.
And then comes along another group who base their beliefs on chance happenstance, telling us that there are no exceptions and that we naturally should roll over and accept their subjective preferences. They don't have what is necessary for moral objectivism but like to preach as if their opinions are BETTER than others. So, as Christians, TradeSecret and I inquire why? I ask, what makes your opinions the bee all and end all? Do you have what is necessary for them to be so, or should I take what you say with a grain of salt?
Notice how you were unable to see the inaccuracy of the prediction Tradesecret made.
I don't follow your meaning.
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@Amoranemix
These are two separate and distinct notions . It's a pretty simple principle. You yourself make plenty of arguments like "well it was moral at the time to stone gays, but that changed when JEsus showed up somehow."Stoning was an OT law. It is not carried through to the NT as a physical punishment. Remember, Jesus came to a people who lived under the OT Law. Jesus died to instate a new covenant. That means the old does not apply and there was a transition taking place during the 1st-century between the OT and NT.So, it is the OT law that was wrong. Were the Ten Commandments, being in the OT, wrong too?
The OT law was not wrong. Homosexual relationships were identified as wrong in both. The punishments for these actions have changed for the covenant believer. The NT covenant has Jesus as the sin-bearer. He not only lives the righteous life required under the OT laws, but He also pays the penalty for those who are not able to but have faith in Him. With faith in Jesus, a close relationship with God is once again established, the Holy Spirit is sent to the believer, and the believer is transformed in heart and mind by that relationship. The OT law's purpose was to showcase the holiness and purity of God and how impossible it was for humans living under that covenant law to achieve that right standing by the "works of the law." From inception, the OT law pointed to a better way - the Lord Jesus Christ and "living by grace."
The lesson is that God did not design human beings for a male with another male sexual relationship, just as sex outside of marriage was/is wrong (either fornication or adultery). The objectification of women as sexual objects results from humanity living outside of God's standard of purity - marriage. The adoption of a standard other than what God had sanctioned came with the Fall and humanity choosing its own standards of "righteousness," which polluted what was right and good and turned goodness on its head. Thus, God chooses a nation of people to make known Himself in His purity and teach what was acceptable to God. God's intention for His people (Israel, and indirectly for the NT believer) was what was best. Anyone within that covenant who broke the covenant law was punished in the prescribed manner (death), depending on what law was broken. It foreshadowed the penalties of sin in the final judgment if repentance did not occur and a suitable sacrifice and penalty for sin were not met.
PGA2.0 228 ludofl3xDuring the Old Covenant, an if/then covenant, God illustrated His holiness and purity by laws that addressed the times they lived in (they came from a chattel slave state - Egypt). They were instructed not to adopt thesame practices when they entered the Promised Land. In the case ofmarriage, God's decree was a contract or covenant between one man andone woman. It was a sacred bond (still is) and it was symbolic andtypological of the holy union between Christ and His Bride. Thus, thecovenant between God and Israel was a holy covenant not to be brokenwithout punishment. Since the punishment of sin is death, breaking ofsome of the OT laws required the death penalty.[a] That the punishment of sin is death, does not imply sin requires death as punishment. What is, does not necessarily need to be. [b]That God prefers death being the punishment for sin to satisfy his personal, [c] might-makes-right justice, does not imply it has to be that way.
[a] That was the purpose of faith and trust in God and His provision of the sacrificial system in both covenants. God is holy and pure. Breaking His commandments required a penalty.
[b] God is just and good. A good Judge will not neglect punishing injustice.
[c] Might makes right only when the thing that is done is right. God always does the right.
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 228So, if you want just laws they must be based on what is actually right regardless of how many people like such laws.[66] Abortion is just morally wrong, except were there is no choice in that the woman and unborn will die in the case of a tubal pregnancy. At least one can be saved. It should not be the woman's right to CHOOSE to kill another INNOCENT human being.[67] If humans are to be treated equally under the law, that does not give some humans the 'right' to decide whether or not an innocent human being is killed.[66] Also don't forget, just laws must be based on what is actually right regardless of whether an invisible sky magician likes them.
You miss the point. Do you have such a standard - the actual right? Demonstrate it so.
Abortion is just morally wrong, except where there is no choice in that the woman and unborn will die in the case of a tubal pregnancy. At least one can be saved. It should not be the woman's right to CHOOSE to kill another INNOCENT human being.[67][67] That is what you claim and it may even be what your god claims, but morality should not be decided by the opinion of a minority or their god.
Like Nazi Germany, a majority makes killing innocent Jews right, just like a majority as with Roe v Wade makes it right with abortion? For you, there is no such thing as an objective measure and final reference. You make it up as you go. What you left out is nothing more than an appeal to the people/argumentum ad populum fallacy.
What a ridiculous fallacious argument you are making.
PGA2.0 228 ludofl3xYou country is a Republic but the party in power or the party that controls public opinion so often packs the courts with liberal judges that think in a particular way that legislates rather than inteprets th...Indeed. Donald Trump placed many liberal judges in the Supreme High Court, one of them just two weeks before the elections. That is what republican presidents do and that is why now a majority of the Supreme High Court members are liberals.
You don't know what you speak of. Donald Trump did not place liberal but conservative justices on the Supreme Court. You have everything backwards.
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@Amoranemix
I don't think it's got much to do with what's 'morally right," it just addresses why making laws based on morality requires those laws to be changeable with the majority view.PGA2.0 228Majority view? Is that what you base right upon? That is an appeal to the people or argumentum ad populum. It is based on the false notion that something is true just because the majority accepts it as true.[65] And what are such laws by the majority based upon can be an appeal to emotion? Nazi Germany's persecution of the Jews was both of those, IMO. They villainized the Jews, then passed laws expressing that bias. Were those laws just? No!I remember in [a] our discussion on DDO that you criticized my morality and all [b] you could present as an alternative was an even worse one.
[a] You bet I criticized your morality.
[b] So you say, without a context.
Worse, in whose opinion? Why should I value your subjective opinion? Whenever you speak of better and worse, you must have some fixed standard for it to have meaning. If the meaning is changing, then how can you say it is better???
Majority view? Is that what you base right upon? That is an appeal to the people or argumentum ad populum. It is based on the false notion that something is true just because the majority accepts it as true.[65][65] No, it isn't. If ludofl3x is like me, then he does not believe what you want him to believe. He merely believes in reality.
It is not a majority view; it is just your opinion that coincides with ludofl3x's. Why should I trust yours or his view of moral reality? Are you an authority and expert in moral reality, or is this another appeal to authority - yours?
We all believe in reality. The question is, do you or he correctly represent it in regards to morality? No, you can't provide a fixed, unchanging standard and best to compare better or worse to. You make it up or adopt someone else's relative standard. Why are they right? You give not strong arguments that they are. You think that just because you can present assertions, that makes them reasonable or true.
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@3RU7AL
Then, you disagree that preference makes things right, at least in the area of tasting ice-cream.Is that sugar and chocolate ethically sourced, fair trade, and carbon neutral?
Pardon.
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@FLRW
Chance is a possibility of something happening.
A possibility makes nothing happen. A possibility is a mental concept of what is likely provided; there is a means for it to happen.
In 1954, Einstein said : "About God, I cannot accept any concept based on the authority of the Church. [...] As long as I can remember, I have resented mass indoctrination. I do not believe in the fear of life, in the fear of death, in blind faith. I cannot prove to you that there is no personal God, but [a] if I were to speak of him, I would be a liar. I do not believe in the God of theology who rewards good and punishes evil. My God created laws that take care of that. [b] His universe is not ruled by wishful thinking but by immutable laws."
That is because Einstein was a Jew who rejected the Church. He identifies God as existing, but he refuses to believe it is the Christian God.
[a] Notice, Einstein said, "...if I were to speak of Him..." all the while speaking of Him.
[b] Einstein does not rule out God but attributes to God the laws of the universe. The problem that Einstein seems lacking is that he did not sufficiently inquire into the God of the universe.
Also with regard to God, Einstein stated, "I cannot imagine a God who rewards and punishes the objects of his creation, whose purposes are modeled after our own — a God, in short, who is but a reflection of human frailty. Neither can I believe that the individual survives the death of his body, although feeble souls harbor such thoughts through fear or ridiculous egotisms." "A God who rewards and punishes is inconceivable to him for the simple reason that a man's actions are determined by necessity, external and internal, so that in God's eyes he cannot be responsible, any more than an inanimate object is responsible for the motions it undergoes. Science has therefore been charged with undermining morality, but the charge is unjust. A man's ethical behavior should be based effectually on sympathy, education, and social ties and needs; no religious basis is necessary. Man would indeed be in a poor way if he had to be restrained by fear of punishment and hopes of reward after death. It is therefore easy to see why the churches have always fought science and persecuted its devotees."
Einstein was not an expert on the biblical God. He failed to understand that a just Judge - God - must address evil.
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@Theweakeredge
Some scenarios make sense of our existence others do not. I do not believe an atheistic explanation can be consistent with its starting presuppositions, its causal roots.[a] A god creating it would make more sense, but [b] it makes less sense that a god is presumed to or exists at all.
[a] Exactly!
[b] Does it, though?
We also have lots of philosophic and empirical reasons to believe He does, the impossibility or improbability of the contrary. Overall, atheism can not make sense of many key aspects of life, such as existence, the universe's origin, and morality. It does not have what is necessary for these three aspects.I have already explained life, I have already explained existence, and origin, you have not sufficiently rebutted these.
I have shown that your proofs are very doubtable. You failed to address my rebuttals.
Morality doesn't matter, because you would have to prove that objective morality exists at all, which you haven't.
You can't call something moral unless there is a fixed standard for morality. Different cultures, different groups, and different individuals believe opposite things about what is good. It begs who is actually right. Without an objective, universal, unchanging standard, morality does not exist. What exists is preference.
With the moral aspect we are dealing with here, atheism lacks a fixed reference point or ideal of comparison.Everything lacks a fixed moral point that's demonstratable.
Then it is self-refuting since you have nothing solid/fixed/unchanging to compare the good with. It can mean anything a person wants to make it mean.
Is that too a shifting point of view? Is that too just your personal opinion that cannot be backed up to an objective fixed reference point? If so, why should I value it? How can you demonstrate something is 11.75" long unless you have a fixed scale and measurement. The same for the moral good?
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@FLRW
Dogs and cats are two very different species and they see each other as potential prey. But this doesn't mean that they can't get along. In fact, many households have proven that dogs and cats can become best friends. So they have morals even though they are atheists.
This logic is not sound. There is no correlation between the first three premises and the conclusion. You establish an identity in the first three premises but not the conclusion. The conclusion does not follow from the premises.
1. Dogs and cats see each other as potential prey. (do they; obviously not always)
2. That doesn't mean dogs and cats can't get along.
3. Many dogs and cats do get along.
4. Therefore, dogs and cats have morals.
Your conclusion does not follow. You assume that dogs and cats have morals. The out-of-the-blue conclusion brings in the foreign concept of morality from the rest of the discussion. Just because dogs and cats can get along, you assume they have morals. It could just as easily be that they know from instinct they must get along or get punished by their owners. They associate a slap from their owner or the dog associates getting clawed by the cat as very painful, and the cat associates getting bitten by the dog as very painful. Since they are forced to live together, they gradually become tolerant of each other and displace the lack of dog to dog relationship to a dog-to-cat relationship, or in a pack of dogs, the cat becomes seen as one of them. Alternatively, one or both from a very young age have been brought together in the same environment (a household, for instance), so instinctively they do not develop hostile actions towards each other but associate that they are alike or part of the bigger pack/litter/family.
There is no necessary connection between dogs and cats and morality here. Dogs and cats are animals. Morality is not of the class of animals. Put into a syllogism, here is what you get:
1. Dogs and cats sometimes can get along.
2. Dogs and cats sometimes do get along.
3. Therefore, dogs and cats are moral.
How does that follow? To prove a conclusion, there must be a premise with similar or connective language. You bring in the concept of morality out of the blue. There is no connection here.
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@Amoranemix
secularmerlin 233If this is your objective moral standard it isn't good enough to satisfy my moral intuition. If that is the behavior and decrees of a perfect moral being I have no interest in being moral whatsoever and instead intend to concentrate my efforts on human welfare and the betterment of quality of life.PGA2.0 258Sure it is good enough. As an atheist how do they get to a standard that is anything but arbitrary and changing?[81] How can good vary and fluctuate in respect to the same issue (and I picked abortion as an example in other posts)?[82] How do we identify 'good' when two different people believe the opposite is the case? Who is right then? How does that make sense, two people with opposite views on the same thing both being right? How can it?[81] [a] Most people get it from their [i] genes, [ii] education, [iii] life experience and [iv] the environment. [b] How do Christians get to a standard that is anything but arbitrary and fixed?
[a] [i]How do genes transfer morality from one to another? [ii] Education varies around the world and in different cultures as to what is right morally. For Germany, the standard became killing Jews and other undesirable - i.e., those who did not fit Hiler's idea of the Ayran race. Yes, he was definitely a racist. Educational systems are built by those who design and teach them - subjective human beings. For instance, there is an indoctrination in US colleges and universities that oppose conservative values and shout down any opposition to their mantras. In one study, nine out of ten professors were leftist in their thinking. [iii] Life experience is again a subjective experience. [iv] How does the environment make something moral? Are you speaking of peer pressure or the actual physical environment?
[b] The Christian standard, for starters, is a reasonable standard and a necessary standard. It has what is necessary for morality, a necessary being of whom you are not. Second, Christians come to faith in the biblical God who can make sense of morality. Third, the Bible has reasonable evidence for its claims that are based on a higher being and what He says as being based on history. Fourth, experientially we interact with the biblical God. We pray to Him and see answers to our prayers. We see situations arise in our life that show us God's providence and His protective hand upon us. Fifth, we get answers to life's ultimate questions that other worldviews are incapable of supplying. There are many more reasons, but how are those, for starters?
How can good vary and fluctuate in respect to the same issue (and I picked abortion as an example in other posts)?[82][82] You really still don't know? Try adopting a worldview based on reality i.s.o. on an invisible sky magician and it should become clear to you.
I am asking from your worldview standpoint, not mine. Mine is clear.
There are aspects of reality where you believe God is present. Therefore, learning of these parts of reality, how they work without God, would hinder your God-belief, which would be unacceptable. That makes them off limits to you. Hence explaining them to you over and over again has been and would stay being throwing pearls to the swine.
Nice dodge!
That is a serious drawback of your worldview. Atheists can incorporate real morality in their worldview, while you have to invent an invisilble sky magician to somehow generate morality.
Your opinion does not equal reality regarding morality.
To illustrate something that you may have denied in the mean time: all of your moral claims and questions in that paragraph are ambiguous because they fail to include a reference standard. Ambiguity is good for confusion, the Christian's friend.
Rubbish. Ambiguity is the friend of the atheist. I have answered almost every question asked to the best of my ability.
PGA2.0 258 to secularmerlin[ . . . ]Thus theism andChristianity are more reasonable than atheism in this aspect and others.Your fallacy of choice is the hasty generalization. Even if your claims directed at secularmerlin were correct, that would still not imply they are correct for all atheists.
Okay, you are dishing out fallacies with ad hom's now! Yours is the subjectivist fallacy. Moral good is true for all people, not just your subjective mind, nor does your subjective mind make it good.
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@Amoranemix
secularmerlin 233Well let's look at the Yahweh's actions and pronouncements as described by the bible.Commands, condones and commits genocide.PGA2.0 258Nope, He brings judgment on the cultures that inhabited the Promised Land for their wickedness.Can you prove that the victims of Israelite oppression were wicked?
Since you are your own moral compass and final authority, I doubt it. What would you accept since you are the moral standard that morality revolves around, according to you? I can't argue against such a standard. You are always right!!! Or do you build your moral standards on the backs of others??? There is no reasoning that you will accept my reasoning since you have admitted you are the standard.
I can give you historical accounts about the Canaanites and their child sacrifices. It is reasonable to believe they are accurate. If you think not, then present your proofs against such works. The question is, do you, as your own moral compass and final authority of which no greater can be appealed to, think child sacrifice is evil and if not, would you consider sacrificing your own?
secularmerlin 233Holds people guilty until proven innocent (original sin).PGA2.0 258God is omniscient, He knows all things. He knows that if it was you or me in the Garden we would have chosen to disobey God, just like Adam. With Adam came the corruption of what God created as good. Adam passed down his traits and influence to his progeny.[a] Even after your embellishments, [b] I still dislike the biblical god's morality and justice, [c] as I suspect do most people who are not infatuated with him. [d] Assuming God's existence (something yet to be proven), [e] why should those people adopt God's morality and justice [f] i.s.o just relying on their own?All these great, subjective attributes you praise God with, [g] presumably reflect your and God's personal opinions, but [h] why should people who find the guy a power-hungry, immature jerk, worship [the] him?
[a] It is reasonable to believe based on the biblical accounts. If you think otherwise, then present your arguments instead of just asserting once again. Why should I value your assertions? That is all you present. I gave you a reasoned argument. Show otherwise from a biblical perspective since we are speaking about the Bible.
[b] Ah! Your dislike! Coming from no greater authority than you who crafts morality in your own likeness and preference, there is no point in further discussion since you think what you believe is the moral right without justification. You just state it, and that makes it moral to you.
[c] Rather than infatuated with you, such as I witness with 3BRU7AL.
[d] I can and have given you reasoned evidence for His existence. Can you give a more reasonable argument against His existence? That is the point of this thread. I can also show you how prophecy is a reasonable proof and from the information available from history a better explanation and reasoning than I believe you or others can present. If you think otherwise, then put your money where your mouth is and show otherwise instead of making assertions. You can open another thread on the topic of prophecy if you like?
[e] If the biblical God's morality is evil in your opinion - you shall not murder, lie/bear false witness, steal, covet what is not yours, commit adultery, you shall honour your parents, then what is yours? What do you propose? You shall murder, lie/bear false witness, steal, covet things belonging to others, commit adultery, dishonour your parents. Is that your moral standard that you want others to adopt???
Then the question becomes why should I believe you, a relative, limited, subjective being who thinks their moral standard, the one they make up, is the actual good, the actual right.
[f] Show me your own has what is necessary for morality and is not just a subjective opinion that has nothing to fix morality on that is not shifting and changing. Show me you have a real unchanging best to compare better with. With quantitative values, I can show you the actual standard of best measures and what we compare better with when there is a dispute. How does your qualitative standard have such a comparison? You say you are the standard that better is measured against. Why should I believe that you, a relative, subjective, limited in your thinking being, can provide such a necessary standard, especially when you can't even justify why abortion is right when I believe it is wrong. You are masquerading as a standard that should be trusted, aren't you? If not, why do you believe what you do? You do not fool me, although you may fool others.
[g] They are not my own. They are a revelation of another. The biblical God is spoken of as revealing to us (God said...The Lord spoke...). You start somewhere; so do I. I start with God (and not just any god, the biblical God); you start with chance happenstance. Which is more reasonable? You and atheists construct a whole worldview based on chance happenstance, looking strictly within the confines of a natural explanation. You look in the box for the explanation of the box.
[h] First, you grossly misrepresent the biblical God or what is revealed about such a God. Your own prejudice gets in the way of thinking this through, IMO. The biblical God reveals He rewards the innocent but justly judges the wicked. That is what you read in the pages of the OT. I could cite you many examples but do not wish to document them now. You see that God identifies the wickedness and then brings judgment on it. Jesus says that the kingdom of heaven belongs to little children - those pure of wrong actions. You see how God brings to life in a better place those who are innocent. You witness humanity's inhumanity, and you continually blame a God who you deny. Go figure??? It makes no sense.
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@3RU7AL
@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 247 to zedvictor4Job also understood that God is just. He understood that God would not do wrong, as did his friends, and that human beings are wicked and act wickedly when they live outside of God's good decrees and commandments.[a] So what? I am sure there were plenty of Nazis around who knew what a wonderful guy Adolf Hitler was and who knew that Jews were wicked. Does that imply any of it is true? No. It is an appeal to authority fallacy.
[a] So, the biblical God provides what is necessary to know the good. Hitler does not. The Nazis appealed to a false authority or, better said, as an inappropriate appeal to authority. From an atheist perspective, can you point to an appeal to authority that is suited? I don't believe you can since you do not have what is necessary. Hitler wasn't an expert in moral law. He invented his own subjective preferences based on the hatred of the Jews prevalent in Europe before he even came on the scene. To use Hitler as your reference would be to use someone who is not even an authority on moral law, let alone an expert. So, I still invite you to show me one person, just one, who you think is that expert and authority on the topic of morality - just one. And, human authority does not justify the truth in the matter of morality, IMO. Demonstrate otherwise. Can you?
You cannot demonstrate God is just, moral, best or whatever you want him to be without choosing a reference standard. [a] And you won't do that in the same paragraph, because that would it make it obvious your claims are empty and [b] because you are not as stupid as you pretend, you know that.
[a] Put yourself to the same standards and tests what you require of me with yourself.
I can demonstrate God is necessary and show how His moral laws protect the innocent. I can point to His nature, the one described in the Bible, as meeting the necessary requirement - omniscient, omnipotent, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal. I can give evidence of the reasonableness of belief in Him, not only in making sense of existence, the universe, morality, but also because of the biblical evidence and how it corresponds with history. How about you address this paragraph and provide how you arrive at moral justice and the good or best?
[b] And by the way, thanks for yet another slur! Resorting to ad hom's shows an argument is feeble. You infer, I am pretending to be stupid. So far, you have shown your bias, but you have not provided a suitable explanation from your morality from your worldview perspective that sufficiently explains the good. Go ahead. I am still waiting to see if you have what is necessary.
PGA2.0 247 to zedvictor4In an atheistic worldview, the atheist still has to account for evil.[76] How do you do that as an atheist?[77] Go ahead, explain how this is done. First, what is the standard by which you, as an atheist, judge evil?[78] Can you answer that? I would like to tear it apart in its unreasonableness.[80] [ . . . ][76] So you claim, but can you prove it?
I have been arguing all along that I can provide the necessary standard. I have also argued that I do not believe an atheist can. I have continually asked you to show differently. Go ahead!
How do you do that as an atheist?[77][77] Atheists don't do that. I do. People noticed the following:“that which is evil; evil quality, intention, or conduct: to choose the lesser of two evils.the force in nature that governs and [c] gives rise to wickedness and sin.”[a] and they decided to call that evil.[b] Relevance?
Anyone else who is reading this (3BRU7AL), please note how once again, as per usual, Amoranemix has avoided the question and passed the buck back to me. This is a standard tactic of an atheist. How has he answered or account for the problem of evil? The quotations in your paragraph, are they your words or are you quoting me? How does "atheists don't do that, I do" answer the problem of evil? You assert your moral standard is capable of judging evil and good. You decide to call something evil. Is that it? How does your personal opinion make something evil? Is it based on the "force of nature?" How is that evil? Things just happen. And how do you get intent from an amoral, mindless happenstance? It makes no sense. Nature does not choose. You are personifying Nature and giving it human qualities. Nature does not govern. Things just happen if there is no intent (i.e., mind) behind Nature.
[a] Some call it evil; others call it good. Once again, there are opposing standards of belief. Which is right? Again, in your worldview, it boils down to opinion.
[b] You seem to think that your subjective opinion determines what is evil. Why are you the standard that I should follow? What makes your subjective thoughts the definition and norm for evil or good?
[c] I almost missed this one. Minds, human beings, are what give rise to evil and sin. Inanimate inorganic objects/things cannot, as you imply (forces of nature governing). We know this experientially. To say the force of Nature governs and gives rise to wickedness and sin has not been proven, but asserted by you. An assertion requires proof/evidence to be justified. Go ahead.
First, what is the standard by which you, as an atheist, judge evil?[78][78] His own standard.
An appeal to your own authority!!! Nice! Please explain how you are the expert on morality. Why SHOULD I believe you? Why are you the authority on evil and wickedness? I have already argued you are the wrong one. Can two opposing standards regarding the same thing both be right? So, what makes your opinion better than mine, if that is all morality is based upon?
Can you answer that? I would like to tear it apart in its unreasonableness.[80][80] I am sure you would like that. ;)
(^8
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@Amoranemix
Partly due to laziness and partlty due to seeing a lecture on God and morality, I only managed to reach post 800. But I did reach the first of my posts, i.e. 798.
Well done. I admire your tenacity. I am on your post 888. Your posts take the longest time to answer since everything is included. (^8
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 247 to zedvictor4Why do we discover (no intent) the laws of nature? These questions are usually left blank by atheists. Do you care to answer them, or should we expect the usual silence?[74]How does an atheist worldview make sense of any of this? Why is it so inconsistent with its starting points?[75] Why? Because it is an unreasonable system of thought. Its foundation is rotten.[74] Your question is a contradictio in terminis. Why questions imply intent. There can be no intent in the absense of intent.Try asking intelligent, clear questions for a change.
Your spelling and run together words make things unclear. Try clearing up your own grammar before you accuse others. I have done so in the past, yet EVERY single post by you is corrupted in grammar and spelling. Is there something wrong with your computer or your copy and paste feature??????????????????
You have intent. You constantly answer why questions, yet you are devoid of the why when it comes to beginnings. You can't even provide meaning since meaning is an intentional attribute and from where you begin (in the beginning) there is none. What is more, you find intent and meaning in so many things but cannot offer it here because your worldview is insufficient in answering why questions regarding origins. That is yet another point I am making regarding your worldview. This attempt is your escape hatch.
[75] Your fallacy of choice is the loaded question. You have so far [a] been unable to demonstrate that an atheist worldview is inconsistent with its starting points and you never will be able to demonstrate that.
How is it a fallacy of choice? How is it loaded when the Christian worldview has an answer, but an atheist worldview cannot give an answer, or a Christian worldview inquires of other worldviews for their answers?
I demonstrate an atheist worldview inconsistent by pointing out that its starting points or beginning presuppositions do not answer life's ultimate questions or by challenging atheists to make sense of existence, the universe, morality, and life. They live in a borrowed universe, one in which they think their limited subjective opinions of things are relevant to existence all the while borrowing from the Christian worldview in reasoning and making sense of things. Your relativism is not sufficient for, as you demonstrate, you are incapable of providing any concrete proof of your belief as valid. Atheists are incapable of the 'why' in making sense of existence. Your worldview constantly demonstrates its lack of answers. It can't explain how reason, meaning, existence comes from something devoid of it (or perhaps comes from nothing, as if that is even possible). It does not have what is necessary to do so. I am constantly revealing such feeblemindedness in the atheistic worldview in these areas of contention.
[a] Not true. I have demonstrated to date your worldview inconsistent. You, nor any other atheist, have provided cogent answers to the questions of existence, the universe, morality on this thread. What is more, from such a starting point (blind, indifferent random chance happenstance), is it any wonder?
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@Amoranemix
@PGA :You often mention the identity of things that do not appear to have an identity, like the good or right. I'll assume what you mean is meaning.
The identity of THINGS that do not appear to have an identity? How can a 'thing' not have an identity?
I am not following what you are getting at. It is very vaguely stated. The Christian reference point for comparing good is God. Are you saying that the good or right does not have an identity, that, say for a specific example such as abortion, the right cannot be ascertained?
All moral values deal with meaning.
The point is that it isn't a stretch that humans would object to getting killed and understand that taking measures against individuals who cannot be trusted not to kill is preferred to no such measure. What else is necessary in order for us to agree that killing people is wrong than the mutual agreement that we would not like to kill each other, be killed by each other or see each other killed?PGA2.0 230Tell that to Kim Jong Un or Xi Jinping.Nice dodge.
Sure, humans object to being killed, but they also kill people for a host of reasons. Pointing to Jong Un or Xi Jiping also illustrates a point. What you think applies to all is a subjective 'moral' (if you can call it moral at all) preference.
If China can become the dominant political, economic and military strength globally, what is and is not acceptable will be determined by the select elite few as they govern the many. Xi Jinping is already doing that on a smaller scale, the 1.4 billion under his control. His preference and preference of a few could impact the whole world community soon if people like the US Democrats act too late. That is why the current election results will play a significant role in the world as to whether China can carry out its policies. With Xi Jinping (already stated his global initiative of being the leading military and economic power by 2035), what happened in Hong Kong is possible on a global scale. In such an authoritarian world, any dissidents may well be put to death for these elites' political 'good.' That is the danger of allowing US Democrats to govern. They will lie down and appease China. I am not dodging.
[ . . . ] The onus therefore of proving any god(s) or any such code on the one claiming they exist. Humans agreeing to live in (relative) harmony with one another is not evidence for any such.PGA2.0 230We can, but others can't. That is the problem. Some do not recognize some of these aforementioned things as wrong.[73] But since you do, are you proposing an objective moral standard? If so, what is the best you derive that from since I have shown you that people do not have the same views on fairness or wellbeing? In[73] The world has many problems. People have invented deities, but the problems persist. Religion has even created problems, as people disagreed on which deity to worship.
Human-made deities, yes. Religion, yes. The problem persists because people do not recognize the necessary standard and authority.
Logically speaking, the most reasonable answer to this problem is there is only one true deity. Every deity humanity makes glaring contradictions to the next. Denying any deity at all lands you with a host of other problems.
PGA2.0 231 to secularmarlinThen, how does such a standard originate from chance happenstance? There are many hurdles to straddle.How does such a standard originate from God?
Very simple - His sovereign will command His creatures to live righteously or be answerable to Him. He sets out the standard, The Ten Commandments, which reflects His nature of good, is a school teacher or guardian to lead us to Christ. We witness all around us how impossible it is to live by relative subjectivism. We see the results of humanity living apart from God's good purposes.
SkepticalOne 97God, by your own definition, is infinite. That makes god as an explanation infinitely complex. Occam's razor favors multiple explanations given that they are infinitely less complex.PGA2.0 231You are confusing God as a person with God as an explanation. God as an explanation is simple.Assuming God the explanation and God the person are the same, how can the former be less complicated than the latter?
It is straightforward. God says, "You shall not murder; you shall not lie" before Him. The penalty is alienation from Him. You shall not murder is a command, not an explanation. The command reflects His will and nature. His nature is more complex. The explanation is for our benefit. The explanation is that such things are wrong - period.
You have addressed that in post 278 to SkepticalOne :"That is not my argument. The explanation is simple. He merely spoke the universe into existence. Very simple in comparison to let's say the Big Bang."Don't be silly. Calling only part of the explanation the explanation does not make it any more likely. The complete explanation matters. Otherwise you would require an additional explanation for your explanation. In this example : God.
The Big Bang is a cause. What is the explanation for it? Do tell.
You have explanations for everything before it. What is the explanation for it? The simplest explanation is God spoke, and it was so because He chose to create it.
Do you have any explanation for the Big Bang?
PGA2.0 247 to zedvictor4If there is no intention there is no meaning to the universe or behind it. Thus, there is nothing good or bad about anything ultimately. Thus, as an atheist you would be lying to yourself by acting as if there is. Sure you can make up meaning, but ultimately it means nothing.What does ultimately mean in that context? What is the difference not having an attribute and not having an attribute ultimately? [a] What is the difference between meaning nothing and ultimately meaning nothing?
The final or fundamental; the last or furthest progression in a series.
adjective
last; furthest or farthest; ending a process or series: the ultimate point in a journey; the ultimate style in hats.
maximum; decisive; conclusive: the ultimate authority; the ultimate weapon.
highest; not subsidiary: ultimate goal in life.
basic; fundamental; representing a limit beyond which further progress, as in investigation or analysis, is impossible: the ultimate particle; ultimate principles.
noun
the final point; final result.
a fundamental fact or principle.
[a] You could argue that there is no difference but experientially you believe there is. In the one case you, at this point in time, can say this is meaningful because you are selecting an arbitrary meaning, something that has no fixed measure. In the final analysis, that meaning is pointless because it is fleeting, and you return to the meaningless, return to the greater picture of what is - meaninglessness. The meaning you arbitrarily make up is null and void once you cease to exist and in the universe itself since such a worldview believes the universe is without meaning because it is not mindful. Not only this, you have no fixed address for meaning so you cannot identify meaning, just preference.
PGA2.0 247 to zedvictor4Why do atheists seek meaning? Why do they understand information and order and detail and complexity that would have to come from chaos, in their worldview? Why would that happen? No reason, right? Reason requires mindfulness. Why is there uniformity of nature, these natural laws that keep sustaining the universe and things in the universe? Why are we able to do science in a universe that is operational by chance happenstance (no intent)?[a] What relevance does any of that have? [b] What would an atheist doing the effort of answering, without any compensation for the work, contribute to add useful, relevant knowledge to this discussion?
[a] The relevance is that atheists live inconsistently with their starting presuppositions. They are not logically consistent with where they begin. From a supposed meaningless universe, they seek reason and meaning. You are constantly asking for reason and meaning from me, the Christian. I can make sense of it, you can't.
Christians are logically consistent with where they start, their core presuppositions and what they would expect to find with such a starting point. Atheists are not.
[b] You tell me?
Why would there be God?
The reason for contingent beings and things that start to exist. The necessity of making sense of anything.
God provides logical reasons for making sense of existence, the universe, morality.
Do you think there is something to be made sense of, and why can you make sense of things in the universe if there is ultimately (tracing things back to the last or final point) no sense (nonsense) to be made of the universe, existence, morality? You continually find meaning in this universe. Why would you expect to find meaning and reasons for things in a meaningless, unintentional universe? You would not, yet you do.
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@SkepticalOne
...why should we avoid checkmate?It is not desirable for our egos. It ends the game and we lose.It is interesting to me that you acknowledge the subjectivity of chess and still look for a 'best' move. Aren't you the same person that claims there can be no 'best' without a fixed (absolute, universal) reference point? You are contradicting yourself.We are subjective in our thinking, but in chess (as in morality), there is the best move in any given circumstance. If you could look ahead to every move 'til the endgame and play the perfect game, there would be a fixed reference point for every move, depending on what opening is employed. I still can't decide if the game would end in a draw with particular openings if both players could make every move the perfect move. They can stunt the potential. I believe in tempo, therefore white has the initial advantage. White is able to open up first and should be one step ahead of black in the development of pieces and opening files in putting pressure on the opponent's position. Having said that, some openings are downright weak (i.e., P-R4). Opening up the middle gives the pieces more freedom although the Indian defences can be very effective too.There is a set move for white for those fool's mate scenarios I gave you earlier that also depend on a set move for black. These are fixed. If white does 'a' and black responds with 'b' it leads to those forced scenarios of checkmate. We do not have the foresight to determine the fixed and best move every time, like when we get ten moves into the game, both players playing a sound game. There are books on openings in which every scenario has been analyzed and documented for a great number of moves for any given opening. When one player exploits the other player's weakness, there again becomes obvious fixed (best) moves five or ten moves ahead that result in checkmate. Every move of your opponent is forced in these checkmate scenarios.Peter, you have already responded to this post, and we've moved the conversation well beyond. Either you're very disorganized or you're trying to pretend we've never had this exchange.Let me know when you catch up to where the conversation actually is.#860#870#872#874
Where did I respond to this, Skone?
I usually systematically go down the list in order, but I scan ahead and find a post that interests a response once in a while. If that happened, I apologize.
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@SkepticalOne
Moral opinions have no basis for the good unless there is an objective, universal, unchanging best to compare "good" with. What are you comparing "good" with - someone else's shifting standard?Kim Jung-un: My standard of good is killing others before you are killed, looking out for my own interests above all others.Jack the Ripper: My standard of good is killing others for fun.Adolf Hitler: My standard of good is ridding society of undesirable groups that are an inferior race. Those who meet my standard are safe from persecution.Jeremy Bentham's Utilitarianism: Whatever promotes happiness and well-being for most by avoiding harm is good, depending on how you define well-being, good, and harm.Jesus Christ: THE standard of good is to love others as yourselves and love God.[a] It is questionable that the first three have a "standard of good" which includes killing others. For instance, Jack the Ripper skulked around and [b] hid his actions from the world as though he knew he was doing wrong. Secondly, it can be argued (and it has in this thread) [c] Adolf Hitler's views were informed by Christianity - [d] his hatred of Jews was, at the very least, inspired by their role in the crucifixion of Jesus. Finally, [e] Kim Jung-un thinks he IS a god and might argue a his own 'universal, objective, and unchanging' standard. Despite how we might disagree with his views, he has the advantage of [f] less than 2 millennia of changing standards Christianity suffers.
[a] My point is to illustrate that without an objective, universal standard subjective beliefs become what is thought of as morally good to a person's thinking. I have not looked at Jack the Ripper (the person alleged to have savagely murdered at least five people) to ascertain his motives, and the case is sketchy, but the five Whitechapel victims were prostitutes. For some reason, someone had a sick aversion to mutilate prostitutes regardless of what society thought.
[b] That is one outlook and just as highly speculative. He may have thought that society thought it wrong, yet he justified killing them nonetheless. Thus, his idea of the good was in killing them, perhaps with the idea of helping to rid society of a few of what was considered a bad profession. It is obvious he took pleasure in doing this because of the amount of detailed mutilation.
[c] His views were never informed by Christianity but by his aberration of Christianity mixed with social Darwinism. The Darwinian struggle for existence where the strong survive influenced Hitler in his Ayran cleansing of the impure stock (Mein Kampf - "My Struggle") by portraying the Jews and others as inferior to God's and his ideal. Hitler totally butchered the biblical narrative to justify his means, just as was done with Apartheid in South Africa. I believe he used Christianity as lip service in achieving his purposes, the final solution.
[d] Jesus was a Jew.
[e] It just goes to show how a human being with human frailties can impose his subjective standard on others without being able to justify it. He forced others to conform to his views. Again, what he believes does not have the requirements for a necessary objective, universal moral standard.
[f] Jesus was of Jewish lineage. He only elaborated on an already existing standard that was revealed biblically as imposed by the Judeo-Christian God.
That being said, it should be noted only two from your list were actually engaged in a discussion of morality. The others are a distraction.
The point is that only one qualifies as having what is necessary for morality - Jesus Christ. The others do not have what is necessary for morality.
Every one of these first four standards is conflicting and logically cannot all be true because they state opposites. They have different identities, which is inconsistent with the laws of logic.The Law of Identity would apply to all five options - Jesus is not immune from logic.
No, the law of identity would not apply to them all, for they all have differing views of the good. Good has different identities to each one of these people. Jesus, the living Word, is revealed as the logos. His logic is perfectly justifiable as meeting the law of identity standard - a fixed, unchanging, eternal, omniscient measure or standard of reference.
Your 'objective, universal, unchanging standard' has already been shown overkill. A compass works because it points to a non-universal, changing reference point known to be in a general direction. Time to update your argument/views, sir.
Nope. While the compass magnetic north points in the north's general direction, true north is a defined geographic location on earth. True north or the North Pole has an exact grid location.
"The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is (subject to the caveats explained below) defined as the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth's axis of rotation meets its surface. It is called True North Pole to distinguish from the Magnetic North Pole."
The shifting north pole is the magnetic north pole. The true north pole is a specific geographic location.
"The northernmost point on the Earth's surface is the geographic North Pole, also known as True North. It is located at 90° North latitude but it has no specific line of longitude since all lines of longitude converge at the pole. The Earth's axis runs through the North and South poles and it is the line around which the Earth rotates.
The geographic North Pole is located approximately 450 miles (725 km) north of Greenland, in the middle of the Arctic Ocean: the sea there has a depth of 13,410 feet (4087 meters)."
So, even if the axis changes (wobbles), the true north location will always be specific (a precise grid location that can be located). To bolster this argument, the true south, which is on a continent, also has an exact location.
"the South Pole lies on a continental land mass known as Antarctica. Because the ice on top of Antarctica moves only a few meters a year, the United States Antarctica program has installed a marker here to delineate the true South Pole."
"The North Pole is the northernmost point on Earth. It is the precise point of the intersection of the Earth's axis and the Earth's surface."
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@Amoranemix
HOW DOES THE PRINCIPLE OF AXIOMS APPLY TO MORALITY??PGA2.0 217They are established by the Ten Commandments. Most nations, most cultures, most groups, most individuals of the world recognize the fundamentals of the Ten Commandments as they relate to human beings - do not murder, steal, lie, covet, commit adultery, and do honour your parents. In most legal systems these principles are ruled upon.There is overlap, but there are important differences between most legislations and the 10 commandments, even among the ones you listed, like the ones about lying, covetting, committing adultry and honouring your parents.
How so?
Morality shifts over time, and laws change accordingly, in a democratic society. Christians once thought it was moral to own black people. It was the better moral judgement of others, including some other Christians, that it is in fact immoral, in spite of what's in the bible on the matter. In any case, at least one group of Christians was reading the bible incorrectly.PGA2.0 227Morals shift if there is no objective, fixed standard. Humans make laws that shift. That brings up the question of what is true to what is?Such ambiguous questions are typically brought up by enemies of clarity (the skeptic's friend).
Nice ad hom! Your own statement is very ambiguous. I only see one question. Which others are you speaking of from Post 227?
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 193 to secularmismBut you don'tunderstand the problem. You (all of those of accountable age, plus also through the representation of our federal head - Adam) have wronged your Creator by your willful sin. Thus, you are accountable to Him. Your nature has too been affected by Adam's sin. It is no longer open to God. Because of His grace the Son chose to address our problem and make our relationship with God good again. Since He made us for relationship with Him He is willing to fix the wrong without sacrificing His justice and righteousness. A good Judge does not overlook the law or what is right. Neither did God.In this case the judge wrote the law : “Worshipping me is mandatory. Failure to comply is punishable by death.”Then God, pointing to a heretic : “Hey you! You failed to worhip me! I am sorry, but the law is clear. I have to punishe you. Otherwise I would be a bad judge.”I wonder how God would feel when he found himself at the other end of such justice. I doubt he would still like might makes right justice.
Worship is giving Someone who deserves it their due. Christians realize that God is worthy of such worship as the greatest Being possible and our Creator and Redeemer. Worship is deserved! And when are before His majesty and glory and realize who He is, you will bow before Him you of your own accord, even though you do not think that is possible now.
Without explicit MORAL AXIOMS, your claim to "universal" "objective" morality is indistinguishable from your personal preference.Please present your moral mathematics.For example, [MORALMATHEMATICS]PGA2.0 217Again, the presentation relies on your merit, your good deeds outweighing your bad deeds. It does not take into account God's moral purity and holiness, and the wrongs we have done that deserve addressing. Remember, God is a good Judge.[63] He does not wink at evil or wrongdoing but addresses it.[64] Thus, I realize my good deeds do not measure up to His perfection and that I have fallen short of the mark He has set for intimate fellowship and peace and joy with Him. That is why I look to the works of another, the Lord Jesus Christ in setting my record straight.[63] [a] God is a good judge according to who? Himself? Remember, [b] Adolf Hitler was also a good judge according to himself. Kim Jong Un is also fond of his own justice.
[a] According to the greatest Being, God Himself. No greater appeal can be made.
[b] That is the problem with subjectivity that I am arguing against. How can you say Kim Jong-Un's morality is better than yours if the standard is changing and subjective?
He does not wink at evil or wrongdoing but addresses it.[64][64] So did Adolf Hitler and so does Kim Jong Un.
That is just my point. You can't argue that AH's morality is any "better" than yours unless there is an objective court of appeal.
I suspect your good deed didn't even measure up to AH's imperfection.
Not if morality is subjective. I argue that for morality to exist, it must have a universal fixed, unchanging measure. That is not AH or you or me.
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 179 to secularismWhether or not it passes the liveability test, some people just don't care. If there is no universal wrong does it matter?[60] If there is no universal accountability what does it matter if you get away with treating others unfairly?[61] That is the problem with atheism.[62] It has no objective, universal court of appeal. Everything is subjective.
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Whether or not it passes the liveability test, some people just don't care. If there is no universal wrong does it matter?[60][60] Does what matter?
What people do to one another. If this life is all you have and there is no ultimate meaning in anything, does it matter that you are trying to create meaning for the insignificant number of days you will live? Are you not creating artificial meaning (there is no fixed value for meaning, humans just invent it). Before you existed nothing mattered, and after you die nothing will matter, yet for some reason, you are trying to make it matter now. It seems inconsistent with your core beliefs - a chance happenstance universe.
If there is no universal accountability what does it matter if you get away with treating others unfairly?[61][61] Personally, I like getting away with treating people unfairly. It is people getting away with treating me unfairly that I have issues with.
Your right, ultimately it does not matter how you treat others if God does not exist and we owe our existence to blind indifferent chance happenstance. Why should I care what you like if there is no universal accountability and ultimately everything is meaningless? I would probably join in by treating you unfairly if I lived consistently with such a worldview devoid of God (dog eat dog!) unless you were willing to do something beneficial for me.
That is the problem with atheism.[62][62] That would only be true if we define atheism as a worldview. The worldviews of most atheists are based on reality and therefore tend to include many of reality's problems. Does your worldview exclude reality's problems?
As I have argued before, it is a worldview. The same criterion used to classify other worldviews is operational in an atheist's thinking. You look at everything from a naturalistic framework that excludes God.
And opinions and preferences are subjective, sometimes a collective subjectivity. Morality requires an objective standard or else it is relative and subjective.
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@Amoranemix
Wow seems like you have found a perfectly reasonable standard for determining the moral correctness of an action which requires no god(s) and no dogma.PGA2.0 179No, you are wrong. Although I can reason killing innocent people is wrong, if someone else thinks the opposite it becomes a battle of wills or might unless there is an objective, universal fixed standard of appeal - a should or should not that is universal and fixed. All I am saying is that you can't live by a system of thought that does not treat innocent human beings equally, because eventually, you are going to have the tables turned on you where you are innocent and treated unfairly.[59] While you can argue it matters, how would it ultimately matter in a universe devoid of meaning? And it might matter for you but someone else might not give a damn. [ . . . ][59] Indeed. Such things happen in the real world. Are they not possible in your worldview?
My Christian worldview operates in this physical realm so such things happen and Christians do not live up to the ideal of our Saviour, yet unequal treatment of innocent people opposes the Christian worldview.
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
People not giving a damn, is that also not possible in your worldview?
Yes, it is possible when people do not live up to the Christian standard of loving our neighbours as ourselves. And Jesus defined a neighbour as more than the person who lives in close proximity (i.e., everyone).
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@Amoranemix
Powered by The Force my zeal let me plow through up to post 775.
Congratulations! You are not far behind me. I am on your Post 875. You have slowed me down to a crawl! (^8
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@Amoranemix
There is no "universal" "one-true" language.PGA2.0 176So your conclusion is that because of that there can be no universal or true moral values?[55] As I have said before, you can think such thoughts but you can't live practically with those beliefs [56] for the minute someone cuts in line in front or harms your innocent family members, or tortures you sadistically for fun against your will, you know it is wrong [57], and if you don't I would say you have major problems[58]. There is no, 'Well that is your choice but I would prefer you did not do it.' There is a definite, 'What you are doing is wrong.'
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So your conclusion is that because of that there can be no universal or true moral values?[55][55] [a] Although it is unclear what a universal or true moral value is, [b] it looks like such things do not exist.
[a] It is unclear what is universal for you because you do not have what is necessary to make sense of morality. If you think otherwise, then show me how you do.
[b] Are you then saying that what you believe is not moral, but what you like?
As I have said before, you can think such thoughts but you can't live practically with those beliefs[56][56] That a belief is impractical doesn't make it wrong. In school they teach students the Newtonian theory of gravity in stead of the more accurate theory of general relativity. The latter would be impractical in most situations.
We are speaking apples and oranges again. I was giving a moral example. Newton's laws are not moral. I was speaking of morality. Can you live practically or experientially with a moral issue?
Morally wise, what I was referring to fails a reasoning test, experience. If you could not live by it, would it be reasonable to impose it on someone else? Sure, you can espouse something, but if it makes it impossible to live by such a standard once turned upon you, you will not be around long.
for the minute someone cuts in line in front or harms your innocent family members, or tortures you sadistically for fun against your will, you know it is wrong [57][57] a) Wrong according to who?
Seriously? Do you not think it is wrong, universally, for someone to torture innocent people? That is definitely a problem you have with your worldview. You do not appear to have the means to universally say it is wrong to torture innocent little children for fun. You just leave it to each person to decide for themselves. That is the downfall of relative changing values. Anything can go, depending on who holds the view and is capable of enforcing it.
b) In such situations one can probably not think rationally and would find phylosophical considerations unimportant. Hence one's knowledge would then probably not be reliable. In such situations one is guided by instinct and emotions, in accordance with the rules of biological evolution.
Again, can you say for certain for everyone that torturing innocent little children for fun is wrong???
c) Why would something being wrong, e.g. according to God's moral standard, imply that there that are true or universal moral values?
Because God is loving and good (being omniscient), knows all things and knows the short term and long term effects of moral action. You do not.
[58] If me or my family were tortured, I would have a major problem, indeed. Would you not if you or your family were tortured?
But can you say for certain that torturing your innocent family members is wrong for everyone and know this is so? If not, all you can do when someone does such harm (heaven forbid it would happen, but if it did) is morally "right" for them and even though I don't like it, to each his/her own. Again, it comes down to not being able to live experientially with such a system of thought. It is not reasonable to think about such things in the way you are.
I notice that the way you establish the alleged fact that something is wrong, is by referring to someone's knowledge. I think, that if that is the only way to establish something, all you get is an opinion. Can you think of a counter-example, an example of a fact (in a different field than morality) that can be established only by relying on someone's knowledge?
How can you establish something as knowledge unless it conforms to what is - the fact? I am asking what is necessary for the knowledge of morality? I am saying you need an objective, universal, omniscient, unchanging, eternal standard as best to compare moral values against. Do you have such a system, and if not, then how do you establish morality? I am saying, out of necessity, that all facts are God's facts. He made things for what they are in this physical universe, and He made us reflect on His moral virtues. The Fall changed the paradigm. We jettisoned godly values and imposed our own. Thus, we have a relative system of values that can't make sense of itself when pressed. As an atheist, I am asking you to show how you can make sense of morality because I believe I can show it is not reasonable to believe like the biblical explanation of morality is reasonable to believe.
[a] What if two moral knowledges contradict each other? [b] What if someone knows that snitching one's mischievous friend to the authorities is wrong, while someone else knows that that is right? They can't both be correct. So who is correct and who is mistaken ?
[a] Then one must be false. The contrary of true is false, the contrary of right is wrong. A standard that is contrary is the opposite.
[b] It depends on the moral degree of the wrong. Stealing a pen does not warrant turning your friend over to the police. Any wrong is wrong. It depends on whether the friend has actually done something wrong (the has to be a standard of comparison) and the severity of the wrong as to whether it is right to turn them in. Each circumstance would be different.
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@Amoranemix
Why is your preference significant if there are not absolute, objective standards, like with atheism?
It is not unless I can charismatically convince others or force my views on those who don't like them, for that is all I would have if there were no objective, universal, unchanging standard to appeal to. But the Christian claim is that God has revealed, so we have that objective standard as our appeal.
Maybe you don't like it, but what makes that wrong for someone who does?
Exactly! What makes it wrong? If there is no objective, universal standard, what makes your opinion any better than mine?
PGA2.0 176 to 3RU7ALAgain, it is God who is wronged. He is just and will not let those who practice evil and will not repent a close relationship with Him and those who do. God has a right to do with His creation as He wishes[54] and He will not punish innocent creatures. Since we are designed for fellowship with Him forever and if we do not choose as much then the option is separation for eternity, which will be hell since you think the moral relativism now is bad. When there are no restraints it will be worse.If God is just by definition, then his existence will be very hard to prove and I doubt that will ever happen. If that is merely a property of God, then [a] on top of God's existence, you would have to prove his justness. I doubt that will ever happen.
I do not limit God, but your language certainly shows how closed you are. Your statements beg the question of what you would accept. Let me test you on this further.
Do you think a just and good judge would compromise justice? Would such a judge overlook evil, or would that judge address it and issue a penalty for doing evil?
Why is there evil, or do you not recognize anything as evil? That is a question both the atheist and Christian has to answer. So I await your answer before I proceed further.
[a] Why does it have to be on top of God's nature? Why can't justice be part of His nature, to want good and to punish evil? If God has given humanity a will, a volition, then eventually we will all be accountable to Him, yet He may choose to let us use our wills to discover the problem of evil. Evil would be doing something again His good nature and against the light of His revealed word.
God has a right to do with His creation as He wishes[54] and He will not punish innocent creatures.[54] According to himself no doubt and being as powerful as he is, he is the one who gets to decide. [a] If I were as mighty as God, I too would like might makes right morality.
Yes, according to Himself. Who greater could He appeal to? Do you think your authority and your limited mind would be greater than God's? You still have not been able to show me that your moral views are true and right. I am still awaiting you to reveal a semblance of logic on why what you believe is right and good. I actually focused on abortion to get your opinion on what is right with that particular judgment of yours.
You forget, the biblical God is revealed as omniscient. Thus, He knows all things. Thus, He commands us, as creatures with the ability to know and reason, to live righteously, or we will answer for our wrongs (in one of two ways - on our own imperfect merit alone, or on the merit of Another who has met God's righteous requirements). Since we are His creatures, made by Him, made in His image and likeness, He has the right to determine what should and should not be done.
[a] You are under the mistaken idea that might, in itself, actually make something right. Explain why you think so.
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@Amoranemix
I notice that you are again systematically omitting to mention the reference standard for almost all your qualitative claims and questions, making them ambiguous. That contributes to you goal of maintaining confusion (the skeptic's enemy).
In reference to what? Give examples. I think your statement is misleading. I am usually referencing, critiquing or asking what the atheist would have to believe and asking them to defend their beliefs.
Whenever I defend my own standards, I refer to the Christian God and no other god. You have actually quoted me saying "without God." I am a Christian. I speak of no other God. That is my reference standard, and it has what is necessary for objective morality, providing this God exists. You even quote me in Post 175 (see below) as saying without God... My statements and inferences find their bearing in the biblical God.
You're basically saying your moral preferences are universal and authoritative.PGA2.0 175I'm saying without God, a necessary being, what is right is a shifting preference that cannot be locked down. It always shifting and that is what we see with most cultures for they have rejected the biblical God.[53a] Thus, might makes right and wars are fought over who is right, so this 'moral' preference (although I don't know how you can call it right or good without a best to compare good to) has no fixed address.[53b][53a] [i] So you claim, but most cultures have rejected most gods. Maybe reality is the way it is because of the rejection of some other god. [ii] Or maybe the reality is the way it is because there are no gods. Or maybe reality is the way it is because so many believe in a god.
[i] That is my point. Without God (and to clarify repeatedly, I speak of no other God than the Judeo-Christian God as my standard), as an objective fixed, unchanging standard, morality is the way it is because humans are relative and changing. What is moral, when there is no fixed, objective, unchanging standard, you can't call it morality but a subjective preference.
[ii] That is all you have, maybe.
It boils down to one of two options, the God or chance happenstance option. The whole idea of this thread is to examine which is more reasonable. Show me your rejection of God answers the question of morality. Please show me your standard is something more than fleeting and relative and show me why what you say as of right is actually so.
I have been inviting atheists to demonstrate they can make sense of morality since this thread's inception with little success.
Thus, might makes right and wars are fought over who is right, so this 'moral' preference (although I don't know how you can call it right or good without a best to compare good to) has no fixed address.[53b][54b] So what? [i] You are supposed to argue that adding your god to a naturalistic worldview would make that worldview a [ii] better tool for generating an explanation for the existence for morality. In stead you are complaning about reality. Yet again.
You mean [53b], right?
So what? So, the atheist cannot explain morality, just preference. How is preference good or right? It just is what you like/desire/feel/want. So what? Provide the standard you use to measure morality.
[i] No, you are misrepresenting me again. I am arguing a supernatural worldview as opposed to a naturalistic worldview answers morality. A naturalistic worldview does not address morality. I am arguing for what is capable/necessary for making sense of morality. Is the atheistic or Christian God more reasonable? To do this, I have listed what would be necessary, and the Christian God fits the description.
[ii] You are using a term (better) that is comparative. You can't use it without thinking of a standard of comparison. Better requires a standard. Without God, how do you measure better morally?
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@SkepticalOne
It is interesting to me that you acknowledge the subjectivity of chess and still look for a 'best' move. Aren't you the same person that claims there can be no 'best' without a fixed (absolute, universal) reference point? You are contradicting yourself.You are comparing apples to oranges again. How is chess a moral issue unless I cheat?I believe you are making a category error. How are evaluations of chess actions and evaluations of life actions fundamentally different...other than you saying so?No, you are making a categorical error. One set of evaluations has to do with what is (the descriptive), the other with what ought to be (the prescriptive). If I make the wrong chess move, resulting in my loss to you, it is not morally wrong, just an oversight that affects a game's outcome. It was not my intention to lose, and I played the game for my enjoyment. If I steal and lie to you, and it results in an injury to you, I have harmed you by intent. My evaluation has nothing to do with a moral wrong in a chess game. It does when I intentionally hurt an innocent person for my enjoyment and greed.That is no answer at all. An evaluation of chess action isn't descriptive because it causes no intentional harm. Likewise, an evaluation of a life action isn't prescriptive because harm might hang in the balance. You are claiming a difference, but providing no explanation beyond assertion. 'Harm' isn't the metric by which we apply the labels "prescriptive" or "descriptive".
a) It is not moral or immoral to play chess. It is immoral to lie and deceive someone with the intent of physically hurting them. It was not required (a moral obligation) to play chess; I did so because I enjoyed doing it. It was not a moral obligation. Thus the categories are not the same or similar as Skone has stated.
b) Describing the harm is descriptive. John is murdering Joe is descriptive. It describes a moral wrong. The moral wrong is prescriptive (You shall not murder), something that should not be done. Describing a behaviour does not determine moral wrong. It can describe a moral wrong. We can apply the label right or wrong only if there is such a right and wrong. If there is no fixed, absolute, objective, unchanging thing as right, there is nothing to compare "better" against. Once Skone uses the term "better" in a moral sense, he compares something to a standard. What is that standard? Is it descriptive in the sense that you can use your senses to measure it? No, moral standards are not of that sought. They are qualitative, not quantitative. Qualitative values are not tangible. They are abstract, non-physical values and concepts. You can't describe moral right in a physical sense like you can a game of chess. So, if the right does not exist as anything other than a relative opinion, then it is meaningless, for it can mean anything, whatever Skone wants to make it mean. Right and wrong are moral concepts, not physically tangible things. They are non-descript in a physically observable sense, for you cannot grab hold of right, taste or touch it. They do not express what is but what ought to be. Thus, you cannot put them in the same category as a chess game for these reasons (a + b).
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@FLRW
So, somehow organic molecules happen from inorganic matterMethane, water, hydrogen, and ammonia, these were the prominent elements that made up the early earth, and are thought to be one of the key requirements for abiogenesis. The Miller-Urey experiment reduced a controlled environment to these exclusive ingredients, then shot electric sparks through the mixture. The experiment is hailed for its results as it produced amino acids and other “organic” compounds. This essentially proved that in the right conditions, by chance alone, the building blocks for proteins could come into existence. While this experiment did not create life, it took a very unique set of environmental requirements and proved that components of life could naturally occur.
Louis Pasteur created doubts on spontaneous generation/abiogenesis, some arguing he disproved the theory, at least as it was thought of during his era. Now for the Miller-Urey experiment. First, the environment was CONTROLLED. There was an agency there that directed the experiment. The thought went into it as to what ingredients were present to create such desired results and those with the notion that we can determine the distant past working in the present (i.e., the present is the KEY to the past in that the present is all we have to work from). Thus, there are many assumptions as to what the past entailed and exactly what ingredients were present. Some have identified the experiment's flaws, like whether oxygen (21% of the atmosphere of the current earth) was present (also water - H2O), which they believe would destroy the other organic molecules, along with the UV sunlight. Various scientists have objections to the chemical composition suppositions; for instance, Dr. David Deamer believes "a number of geochemical studies showed that significant amounts of free oxygen were also present even before the advent of plant life, probably as the result of the photo-dissociation of water vapor" - not methane, ammonia, and hydrogen. Jon Cohen (Science) is another of many dissenters regarding the Miller and Urey experiment and the early earth's atmosphere. Not only this, amino acids as the "building blocks" of proteins have to be present in the right sequence/combination and that does not even produce life. Then you get into the biological complexity of single-celled organisms and what is necessary there.
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@FLRW
It is from the Book of Numbers which is the fourth book of the Hebrew Bible,and the fourth of five books of the Jewish Torah. In Numbers 5 the woman has to drink a concoctionthat is part water, part dry earth taken from the floor of the sanctuary, andpart an inky residue from a parchment inscribed with a curse. The imprecationis to the effect that if she is guilty of adultery her belly will swell and her thighwill rot, referring, almost certainly, to her uterus and genital area. By and large,critics and translators assume that she is pregnant and thatthe effect of the curse is to cause a miscarriage in the guilty. Num 5:28 is explicitlyabout the innocent: “She shall be free, and retain seed,” that is, her consciencebeing clear, she will carry her child to term.
That is a wrong assumption. The word for pregnancy is not mentioned here, and this is not about abortion but adultery. The context is on marital unfaithfulness. Consider the fuller context here:
The Adultery Test
11 Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 12 “Speak to the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘If any man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him, 13 and a man has sexual relations with her and it is hidden from the eyes of her husband and she remains undiscovered, although she has defiled herself, and there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act, 14 [f]if [g]an attitude of jealousy comes over him and he is jealous of his wife when she has defiled herself, or if [h]an attitude of jealousy comes over him and he is jealous of his wife when she has not defiled herself, 15 the man shall then bring his wife to the priest, and shall bring as [i]an offering for her a tenth of an [j]ephah of barley meal; he shall not pour oil on it nor put frankincense on it, because it is a grain offering of jealousy, a grain offering of reminder, a reminder of wrongdoing.
16 ‘Then the priest shall bring her forward and have her stand before the Lord, 17 and the priest shall take holy water in an earthenware container; and [k]he shall take some of the dust that is on the floor of the tabernacle and put it in the water. 18 The priest shall then have the woman stand before the Lord and let down the hair of the woman’s head, and place the grain offering of reminder [l]in her hands, that is, the grain offering of jealousy; and in the hand of the priest is to be the water of bitterness that brings a curse. 19 And the priest shall have her take an oath and shall say to the woman, “If no man has had sexual relations with you and if you have not gone astray into uncleanness, as you are under the authority of your husband, be [m]immune to this water of bitterness that brings a curse; 20 if, however, you have gone astray, though under the authority of your husband, and if you have defiled yourself and a man other than your husband has had sexual intercourse with you” 21 (then the priest shall have the woman swear with the oath of the curse, and the priest shall say to the woman), “may the Lord make you a curse and an oath among your people by the Lord’s making your thigh [n]shriveled and your [o]belly swollen; 22 and this water that brings a curse shall go into your [p]stomach, to make your belly swell up and your thigh [q]shrivel.” And the woman shall say, “Amen, Amen.”
23 ‘The priest shall then write these curses on a scroll, and he shall [r]wash them off into the water of bitterness. 24 Then he shall make the woman drink the water of bitterness that brings a curse, so that the water which brings a curse will go into her [s]and cause bitterness. 25 And the priest shall take the grain offering of jealousy from the woman’s hand, and he shall wave the grain offering before the Lord and bring it to the altar; 26 and the priest shall take a handful of the grain offering as its reminder offering and offer it up in smoke on the altar, and afterward he shall make the woman drink the water. 27 When he has made her drink the water, then it will come about, if she has defiled herself and has been unfaithful to her husband, that the water which brings a curse will go into her [t]and cause bitterness, and her belly will swell up and her thigh will [u]shrivel, and the woman will become a curse among her people. 28 But if the woman has not defiled herself and is clean, she will be [v]immune and conceive [w]children.
29 ‘This is the law of jealousy: when a wife, who is under the authority of her husband, goes astray and defiles herself, 30 or when [x]an attitude of jealousy comes over a man and he is jealous of his wife, he shall then have the woman stand before the Lord, and the priest shall apply all of this law to her. 31 The man, moreover, will be free of [y]guilt, but that woman shall bear the consequences of her [z]guilt.’”
11 Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 12 “Speak to the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘If any man’s wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him, 13 and a man has sexual relations with her and it is hidden from the eyes of her husband and she remains undiscovered, although she has defiled herself, and there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act, 14 [f]if [g]an attitude of jealousy comes over him and he is jealous of his wife when she has defiled herself, or if [h]an attitude of jealousy comes over him and he is jealous of his wife when she has not defiled herself, 15 the man shall then bring his wife to the priest, and shall bring as [i]an offering for her a tenth of an [j]ephah of barley meal; he shall not pour oil on it nor put frankincense on it, because it is a grain offering of jealousy, a grain offering of reminder, a reminder of wrongdoing.
16 ‘Then the priest shall bring her forward and have her stand before the Lord, 17 and the priest shall take holy water in an earthenware container; and [k]he shall take some of the dust that is on the floor of the tabernacle and put it in the water. 18 The priest shall then have the woman stand before the Lord and let down the hair of the woman’s head, and place the grain offering of reminder [l]in her hands, that is, the grain offering of jealousy; and in the hand of the priest is to be the water of bitterness that brings a curse. 19 And the priest shall have her take an oath and shall say to the woman, “If no man has had sexual relations with you and if you have not gone astray into uncleanness, as you are under the authority of your husband, be [m]immune to this water of bitterness that brings a curse; 20 if, however, you have gone astray, though under the authority of your husband, and if you have defiled yourself and a man other than your husband has had sexual intercourse with you” 21 (then the priest shall have the woman swear with the oath of the curse, and the priest shall say to the woman), “may the Lord make you a curse and an oath among your people by the Lord’s making your thigh [n]shriveled and your [o]belly swollen; 22 and this water that brings a curse shall go into your [p]stomach, to make your belly swell up and your thigh [q]shrivel.” And the woman shall say, “Amen, Amen.”
23 ‘The priest shall then write these curses on a scroll, and he shall [r]wash them off into the water of bitterness. 24 Then he shall make the woman drink the water of bitterness that brings a curse, so that the water which brings a curse will go into her [s]and cause bitterness. 25 And the priest shall take the grain offering of jealousy from the woman’s hand, and he shall wave the grain offering before the Lord and bring it to the altar; 26 and the priest shall take a handful of the grain offering as its reminder offering and offer it up in smoke on the altar, and afterward he shall make the woman drink the water. 27 When he has made her drink the water, then it will come about, if she has defiled herself and has been unfaithful to her husband, that the water which brings a curse will go into her [t]and cause bitterness, and her belly will swell up and her thigh will [u]shrivel, and the woman will become a curse among her people. 28 But if the woman has not defiled herself and is clean, she will be [v]immune and conceive [w]children.
29 ‘This is the law of jealousy: when a wife, who is under the authority of her husband, goes astray and defiles herself, 30 or when [x]an attitude of jealousy comes over a man and he is jealous of his wife, he shall then have the woman stand before the Lord, and the priest shall apply all of this law to her. 31 The man, moreover, will be free of [y]guilt, but that woman shall bear the consequences of her [z]guilt.’”
Notice the heading is "The Adultery Test," not "The Pregnancy or Abortion Test."
So, this was a test for the suspicion of adultery, not to do with abortion or pregnancy. If the woman were found guilty, she would be barren for lying to her husband and the priest (more directly, the punishment was for breaking God's laws) and doing wrong. It has nothing to do with abortion. Glenn Miller, in refuting the exact same claim by someone else wrote this,
"...neither pregnancy nor abortion are in view in the passage-counter to your entire position!"
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@3RU7AL
I am saying that without a reasoning being who created the universe, the universe is without reason for its existence.Oh boy.Is that what you're hung up on?The teleological fallacy?
You are saying that is a false statement. Explain why. The reasoning behind such a statement (underlined) is self-evident. Reason requires mindful being. If the universe is without a mind behind it, there is no reason for the universe. Why is that fallacious???
In other posts, I am also asking the atheist to explain how something that lacks reason and mind can acquire these things. Please explain how so we can investigate the logic further.
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@Amoranemix
What kind of fallacy is that, claiming that when many people who share a (lack of) belief make claims, the (lack of) belief also makes those claims?Atheism at best excludes some explanations for the origin of life.
Atheism substitutes belief in God for belief in naturalism. I usually identify four to six areas of thinking that incorporate a religious worldview, and atheists believe in all those areas. Those areas of belief include answering such questions as 1) What am I, 2) Who am I, 3) Why am I here, 4) What difference does it make, 5) How do I know, 6) What happens to me when I die? So they show that they have beliefs that are contrary to the Christian beliefs and contrary to God or gods. Others identify and broaden the scope of a worldview to include more topics, such as the link that provides twelve.
I seldom deal with an atheist who does not include what they believe about origins when asked.
Here is a quote from the American Humanist Organization,
"We atheists and humanists are on the common ground of nature. We are naturalists in that we share the idea that only natural (as opposed to supernatural) laws and forces operatein the world."
PGA2.0 168 to 3RU7ALIf there is no objective and universal reference point then you do not have right and wrong. You just have 'I like this,' or 'I like that.'Morality is a framework that humans use to discern right and wrong but if there is no final measure it is arbitrary, relative, subjective and contingent. How does a shifting system of belief make something right or good? It just forces its views on others.[a] I don't know what a system of beliefis, but I shall try to answer the question: “How do preferences make something good?” [b] The question assumes that there are preferences that do make something good. I will start from that assumption.[c] One should ask those with those preferences that claim something is good because of them. [d] Whatever explanation they come up with, according to you, it will be because they like it. [e] Thus, if you are correct, liking something makes it good. Hence, according to you, if preferences make something good, it would be by being liked.
[a] What do you mean by the underlined?
[b] First, I could find various posts on these threads where atheists have identified morality as moral preferences. They have said there is no objective absolute standard of reference for the good. That raises the question of how they determine the moral good? Since they believe there is no objective source to reference, it boils down to what is liked and disliked. There are a few, like SkepticalOne, who have mentioned they believe morality is objective but have not been able to demonstrate this is true from their belief system. Usually, it comes down to utilitarianism, the greatest "good" for the greatest number; whatever they define that "good" to be.
[c] Okay, what is your explanation for how good is determined? I believe you have already explained it but I will give you a chance to explain it again.
[d] That has been the case to date. They like it as the means of determining the good. They think it answers the question. The problem is that different people have opposite opinions on the good. Throughout the world, people have different ideas of the good for the same issue. I ask you, can they all be right? Please answer that.
[e] Liking something makes it good is not what I believe. I have explained this many times before. I am saying that atheists generally explain the good because they like something, such as 3RU7AL and you have exhibited in posts, such as your example with Hitler and his morality.
People have different likes. As I pointed out in another post, the Marquis de Sade liked torturing little children. Therefore based on your definition of morality, that would be "good for him." You said as much with Hitler. Thus, you have identified yourself as a moral relativist and based good for Hitler on his preferences. On the other hand, I believe that what Hitler called good or right was a fixed objective evil and wrong, coming from a necessary objective standard to determine this.
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 163 to 3RU7ALHow do you know you commit to God as He is? It is easy to assert such things, but show me some evidence. You see, the Christian God is strongly evidenced. There is 66 writings that in themselves give verification to the reasonableness of His Being.[49] These writings have manyverifications from the world of history and archeology as well that Iassert makes your system weak and not as reasonable or sufficient incomparison.[50] The unity is not of one book but of many that areinternally consistent although often misunderstood.[49] These are indirect claims by ancient people. Relying on them to support the existence of Yahweh would constitute an appeal to authority fallacy.
It is reasonable/evidential to believe they are direct claims by eyewitnesses as to what they claimed happened concerning Jesus Christ - Yeshua the Messiah, the Anointed One. These eyewitness accounts have been seen as valid by our legal standards in the evidence they presented. They also speak extensively about the OT Mosaic law and its verifiable fulfillment as existing and disappearing in AD 70, which brings in the prophetic argument as additional proof.
You are guilty of an either/or fallacy/false dilemma. You exclude that these claims can be true because you believe these ancient people cannot tell the truth or are not authorities in the matters they speak of and appeal to. You are working on the assertion that ancient accounts of any kind that are indirect are false instead of looking at each work's merits. There is good evidence that these people were eyewitnesses. You could give such a negative argument for any ancient work based on indirect evidence, but the quality of this work does not suggest it is false. These disciples actually believe that this man - Jesus - existed and that they communed with Him. Their unified collected accounts include many verifiable facts from that time period - people, places, events. There are also various accounts, both biblical and otherwise, that verify these authors went to their deaths proclaiming that Jesus Christ had risen from the dead, as well as believing He was God incarnate.
You are offering only the one possibility for indirect ancient claims; there is no authority to such claims, and that these people were not experts in what they spoke of.
An appeal to authority is perfectly valid. An appeal to an inappropriate authority is not. An appeal to an inappropriate authority assumes justification when there is none there, perhaps because the authority is not one in this specific area, or there is no justification the "authority" is actually one.
[50] Those verifications only verify part of those writings. That some of it is confirmed, does prove all of it.
While this is true, it gives evidence that at least some aspects are trustworthy. When you combined this evidence with other reasoning, God becomes the most reasonable explanation, such as what we are doing here in discussing the moral argument from two different philosophical positions. The Bible speaks of three lines of evidence for the existence of God, 1) the creation/universe, 2) His Word, the Bible/His Son (the living Word), and 3) His Spirit who speaks to the believers' spirit. I have tried to get you to engage in the first, the created order, by speaking of morality. The validity of the Bible is a different topic and so is the experiential evidence.
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 162 to 3RU7AL[ . . . ] Quantitative values such as length, weight, height, size can bemeasured and we have a fixed system of measurement. I argue we do also with qualitative values, by necessity. As with quantitative values there has to be a best or fixed measure as a comparison.How would one measure the quality beauty? What is the ultimate, fixed reference for beauty?
Are you speaking of a physical trait or an inner quality? I will address the inner quality.
Although beauty is not a moral value, I would still argue that its ideal is God. He is again the fixed reference point. What is beautiful comes from God. As humans, we are created in His image and likeness, and when we reflect God's qualities, we reflect what is beautiful, like a kind gesture or giving someone who can't afford it a meal.
If two tribes have conflicting or opposite views on beauty, then which tribe has the true view ?
Again, it is not a moral issue, and what aspect are you speaking of? For humans, physical beauty is largely in the eye of the beholder. For inner qualities, sometimes evil qualities can appeal to us as beautiful, for we mar what is beautiful and good. That is when the value can turn into a moral issue, IMO.
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 157 to 3RU7AL[ . . . ] Although this thread was not created to debate this but rather which worldview better explains and is justified in answering the question of morality, you have not addressed the question. Here it is again:Morality - Is Atheism More Reasonable than Theism?[a] I suppose that atheism can be world view if it is considered to be the collection of all worldviews that do not incorporate a deity.
[a] Atheists usually seek to explain everything through natural means.
[b] However, many will have different explanations for morality. I think a better question would be whether nature can account for morality and [c] whether adding one or more deities to nature would sufficiently improve one's ability with the worldview to account for morality to warrant the cost of doing so.
[b] That is dealt with in the is/ought problem and the chance happenstance problem.
[c] Atheism is the denial of God or gods. You are speaking of deism or polytheism as a worldview.
[d] Nature alone can generate morality through evolution by natural selection. [e] In social animals, morality is advantageous. [f] For humans we more or less expect what we see: varying degrees and kinds of rightness and wickedness, more favouring group-thinking [g] (loyalty is good, treason bad) and of course people contradicting each other. [h] I am not clear on what extra mystery a deity would explain, nor how, especially the Christian one.
[d] Can it, though? That is a big assumption on your part that needs proof and reason. Go ahead!
[e] Advantageous in what way? For the animal or pack that might starve, it is eat to survive, to hell with the others. The advantage of hunting with others is mitigated by the principle of the strongest individuals survive.
[f] Kinds of righteousness? Who determines that, and why are they right? Which contrary person? Can two opposing values both be right? That defies common sense and logic. Right loses its identity. Right can mean two opposite things depending on who holds the view.
[g] Again, loyalty and trust is a biblical principle.
[h] It explains the best by comparison. There is a permanent, absolute, unchanging moral value for right.
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 144 to 3RU7ALAgain, atheists usually incorporate naturalism in their belief system, if they have done any serious reflection on origins.If you do not ascribe to God or gods, what is left?[47] It would be a system of belief that looks to nature or matter for the answers in origins. Without personal being there would be no intent, no meaning, no value, no purpose.[48] If you want to space our existence that one step further back you could pose aliens, but if they too are not eternal or almighy then there must be another cause beyond them.[49] Or you could pose the ridiculous and unbelievable that everything comes from nothing.[47] How about nature? [a] Most of the people I thought were atheists believe in nature.
[47] Precisely! Is that their god, their creator, what they attribute their origin too? Now, the question is, how reasonable is this? No intent, no purpose, no meaning, just indifferent chance happenstance.
[a] True, what else would they believe in if they deny God or gods [i.e., personal intentional being(s)]?
[48] There are plenty of personal beings.
Are they necessary beings? And atheists deny the existence of God or gods as plausible or real. That would leave them with a purely naturalistic explanation, correct?
[49] Maybe so, but Christianity would still be false.
Why?
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 119 to fauxlawMorality is complicated and there are lots of examples or scenarios of how Israel was to handle the day to day life of Israel under that covenant law. Some of these Old Covenant examples have been adopted into many legal systems and the principles of the Ten Commandments apply in these legal systems. There are laws for murder, stealing, perjury, adultery, built into most (if not all) legal systems. The idea of two or three credible eyewitnesse testimony is a principle still used in courts for proving guilt and innocence. It is where a country deviates from such a rule of law that injustice happens, like in the case of abortion in the USA. The framers of the Consstitution recognized some basic godly principles such as equality under the law for there to be justice.What evidence can you present that the rejection of group responsibility and inheritance responsibility, as promoted by the Old Testament, causes injustice?
A logical argument that morality needs a best and a necessary revealed being - God - is sufficient in explaining morality. Without Him as the standard, anything can pass off as moral. People call good evil and evil good when there is no fixed reference point. In seeking foreign gods, Israel suffered all kinds of misfortune from poor choices, just like we do when we veer from those Ten Commandments that deal with human relationships. When we don't hold others responsible for injustice, as is happening in Democratic-run cities in the USA, people get hurt. Individuals take the law into their own hands and cause injury. Peaceful protests do not harm others by looting (stealing), killing (murder), deceiving by false narratives (lying), or coveting or destroying what belongs to others. I could present a picture of injustice anywhere in this world where people neglect these relational commandments, which Jesus summed up in two - love God and love your neighbour. Loving your neighbour does not hurt them but looks out for their best interests. If there is no ideal, how would you know what is right? Right in reference to what?
PGA2.0 137 to 3RU7ALThe funny thing about an atheist is that they make themselves or some other relative, subjective human being the object of worship. They become their own authority on all things or leave that in the hands of their idols, their subjective human gods. They pick and choose who they want to believe in every branch of science, or they take other means such as perhaps an atheistic philosopher instead of a scientist as the guru god.Apparrently I was mistaken in believing I was an agnostic atheist.
Good for you! What is the difference between an agnostic and an atheist? They both ignore the biblical God and look for subjective reasoning for morality. What do you explain in/about life by appealing to the biblical God? Nothing intentionally, right? Instead, you deny Him His existence. You treat Him as if He does not exist. In that sense, how do you differ from a full-fledged "strong" atheist?
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@Amoranemix
You're putting the cart before the horse.We can only begin our epistemological exploration right here, within ourselves.PGA2.0 104Although we have our reason and logic to work with are we necessary beings? Not if we derive our existence from something or someone else. If that is the case we are contingent beings. Thus, we have to start somewhere else beyond ourselves[46], unless you want to contend that you are all there is and everything is your mind in operation? Alternatively, you are having an imaginary conversation with your ultra ego because you are lonely.[46] How is that supposed to follow? (No. [a] I am not asking you to repeat all the problems you have identified with reality, nor to repeat the questions you have asked too many times already.)
[a] It was not addressed to you. (^8
What I am saying is that we are contingent, not necessary beings. We, as human beings, owe our existence to something beyond ourselves as humans. It follows that we either come from something that is living or from the material universe. I'm asking 3Bru7al to explain how the latter is possible. Since you raise the concern, I would ask you to.
We gather data, check it for logical coherence and efficacy.We (as individuals) are the origin, our individual curiosity is ground zero.PGA2.0 104You are not the origin of yourself if you had a beginning. So you have to start somewhere else, besides yourself, even though you are using your mind to reason this out, unless you are all there is. So which is it? Did you begin to exist, and do you owe your existence to something or someone else?He probably started with his parents in a bedroom. What relevance does that have to morality?
I'm not asking for the immediate cause but the root cause. That is what I have asked all along. The relevance is that either morality arises from non-living matter or a necessary Being(s). If the former, how? If we traced our origins back to the furthest point possible, what would we find? You assume it would be a natural, not a supernatural, explanation because that is the only avenue you have opened yourself to. You reject the biblical God, a revelational God. So, as an atheist/agnostic, I ask how such things are possible. I ask how you make sense of chance happenstance as your supposed maker? I ask, from such a beginning how you get morality, the ought from the is (NIFO)
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@Amoranemix
PGA2.0 101 to secularmarlinSince you say you are an atheist, where do your moral values come from? Are they just made up? If so, by who, and why are they right?When I trace your starting point back as far as I can reasonably go, to origins, how does existence happen? What causes the 'beginning' if you believe there was one. Next, how does something nonliving become living? Then from what is, how do you get what ought to be?[a] Where do God's moral values come from? Are they just made up? If so, by who, and why are they right?[b] From what is, how does your god get to what ought to be?
[a] They are His nature. He is all-knowing and always does what is good, right, and just.
[b] You misunderstand the is and ought. The natural realm is what is. God is not of this physical realm. He created it. God is a transcendent Spirit, a mindful Being. Morality requires a mind. Rocks, inorganic things that are, don't think, nor can they moralize. There is a gap between those things and us. Our essence, as humans, are both physical and spiritual. Thus, the Bible can say we are made in His image and likeness, with the ability to communicate, reason, know, and love. We also have the innate ability to moralize, to conceive of and judge right and wrong. Without God, we have no fixed ideal or best to compare qualitative values against. Because our knowledge is not exhaustive but limited, we are subjective beings. We don't always know the fact, or what is. Thus, once again, without God, we tend to be relative beings in our moral judgments. As with the physical world, we need a fixed reference point for values that are abstract and non-physical. A revelation God supplies those values.
PGA2.0 101 to secularmarlinLikewise, to understand what I mean you must get my meaning not anything you want to make it be or else we have failed to communicate.You want that communication to fail to promote confusion (the Christian's friend).
What are you talking about, and how does it relate to our discussion. I consider this yet another Ad hominem. Are you suggesting my motive is impure or that I cannot communicate what I mean instead of responding to my point about what is necessary for communication to occur?
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@Amoranemix
How exactly does the existence of some god(s) solve the problem (if it is a problem) of opinion based morals?PGA2.0 101There is a fixed and final reference point with the biblical God. Thus, I have what is necessary for I realize that in and of myself I am not necessary in determining the moral good.What would prevent people from picking a different fixed, final moral standard, or people picking a changing, subjective moral standard, or people picking your god's moral standard, but changing their mind or disagreeing on what it entails?
Can you demonstrate there is more than one absolute, objective, universal, fixed, eternal standard? If so, let's examine it to see if it has what is necessary and is logically and experiential consistent.
If it is a human standard, let's see how it passes the subjectivity test.
Thought experiment time!If your preferred god came to you in a dream and told you to murder your child would it be better to do the"moral" thing or to spare your child and not follow this beings horrible commands?PGA2.0 101Why do you think God would do such a thing?Nice dodge.
Sometimes I need to inquire to find out where a person is coming from. Is he referencing the biblical example of Abraham, or is he referring to another example? If the Abrahamic example, I have a particular response. If some other example, I have another response.
God used the Abrahamic example as a teaching tool. It was symbolic, typological, and prophetic of His own Son - the Lord Jesus Christ. He was testing Abraham and had no intention of Abraham killing His son. God had already promised Abraham that his offspring would be blessed through Isaac. Abraham reasoned that if God wanted him to kill Isaac, He would restore his life. God rewarded Abraham for his faith in believing God. As God restored Christ from death to life, so is the imagery of restoring life to Isaac. The son, Isaac, was born through the promise of God, just like God promised another would be born who would bless and save His people from their sins.
So, there was a reason for God commanding Abraham to sacrifice Isaac, and God provided the sacrifice after Abraham showed he was willing to follow God's decree. Again, the imagery is that God will provide the sacrifice, and the sacrifice for sin was the one time sacrifice of the Son who God again provided.
For God requiring us to murder children, the Bible specifically forbids it. So, since Scripture is fixed, nothing more can be added necessary for our salvation; we know through His teaching that it is strictly forbidden, and God punished those nations that offered child sacrifices. Such acts were detestable to Him.
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@SkepticalOne
It is interesting to me that you acknowledge the subjectivity of chess and still look for a 'best' move. Aren't you the same person that claims there can be no 'best' without a fixed (absolute, universal) reference point? You are contradicting yourself.You are comparing apples to oranges again. How is chess a moral issue unless I cheat?I believe you are making a category error. How are evaluations of chess actions and evaluations of life actions fundamentally different...other than you saying so?
I don't think so. Chess is only subjective because of our limited knowledge and ability to think through the best combinations, starting from the first moves through to the last. In some situations, we can think of all the best moves for ourselves when our opponent makes an error or chooses a weak opening, such as the various fool's mate openings or a forced mate later in the game. In those situations, you can name mate in four or five or how many moves because for each move; the opponent is forced to reply in a fixed way to avoid mate happening sooner. Your opponent is forced to respond in a specific way to prolong the inevitable. If both players played a perfect game (no errors, playing the optimum move every time), it becomes more difficult because of the massive possibilities available. I don't think we are capable of that with some opening, but the tempo would go to White and be countered by Black until White's next move, and so on. Thus, I think such a perfect game, selecting the strongest opening by both, would result in a draw, or win by White, but I cannot say for sure since I don't know anyone who has determined the best, most perfect move for every opposing best and most perfect move. We know that some openings are stronger than others because they develop the pieces faster and pressure the opponent's defences.
I am saying (comparing apples to oranges) that you are making the categorical error in comparing Chess to morality. Best in Chess is not the same as best regarding morality. I can verify best in chess through the senses/empirically. It could be demonstrated in some situations because the best would lead to an opponent's loss if they did not respond in kind. How do you verify something abstract like the good? One is a qualitative value (morality), the other a quantitative value (a Chess move). One can be demonstrated through the senses; the other cannot.
Now, if God exists and has revealed, then we can know the moral best in as much as He has revealed it. And from the Ten Commandments, as well as God disclosing His nature and attributes, we can deduce the good from the bad in other scenarios and from the examples of His interaction in the OT and His physical appearance in the NT. The Bible reveals He created us in His image and likeness (moral beings), so it is possible to know the right, the good. I believe we have an innate sense of the good, but that too can be marred by our subjectivity and ignoring His objective decrees. We choose to be relativists.
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@3RU7AL
Now I am not saying that the meanings cannot change with use if enough people like the new buzzword or new meanings for the word. When that happens, another definition is added to the word meaning in a dictionary.I'm ever so glad we can agree on this crucial point.
Yay!
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@ludofl3x
God is eternal. He has no beginning, so the premise does not apply to Him.Meh, forget it, I don't have the energy to explain special pleading to you.
I justify the principle of God's existence through the Bible and by the impossibility of the contrary. I also argue from the standpoint of a necessary being, of which you are not that being. Why should I value your thinking on origins??? You have a universe of the gaps.
Special pleading is an informal fallacy wherein one cites something as an exception to a general or universal principle (without justifying the special exception). This is the application of a double standard. In the classic distinction among material fallacies, cognitive fallacies, and formal fallacies, special pleading most likely falls within the category of a cognitive fallacy, as it would seem to relate to "lip service", rationalization and diversion (abandonment of discussion).
You special plead for the universe causing itself, or that something was before it, or that it is eternal, depending on which stance you take. Where do you ever see something creating itself? There is always a cause for something, right up to the Big Bang. What caused the Big Bang? Where do you find evidence for something beyond the universe that is natural, being responsible for it? Where is the evidence for that? Where is the evidence that the universe is eternal? How could it be?
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@Theweakeredge
1. With Him, there is a reason for the universe.You could mean this a couple of different ways:Perhaps you mean to say that with God, there is a reason for the existence of the universe, that he created it. If this is what you meant then it fairly easy to refute by pointing out that anything could possibly explain a universe would have the standard that god does for existing.
I am saying that without a reasoning being who created the universe, the universe is without reason for its existence. It just is. And I continually point out that you find reason after reason for the way the universe works. Why would that be so in a chance happenstance universe? Why would you EXPECT to find uniformity of nature (i.e., nature's laws and their sustainability)? There would be no reason that you should.
If "Nature" is all, there is then nothing that transcends it.
Do you understand what nothing is? It is not a thing - no thing. 'Nothing' is not something. Do you understand that? Thus you either have to believe the universe began to exist from nothing (an impossibility - self-creation), or you have to believe the universe is eternal (impossible to count or get to infinity from the present). Which is it? Not simple to explain, is it? It requires a lot of juggling things that do not make sense.
So, I will await your answer so we can proceed further.
The cause of the universe cannot be itself. That would mean it would have to exist before it existed, a self-refuting argument. I.e., It would have to exist before it could create itself.
In another sense you could mean this give the universe reason, as in some reason to exist more philosophically speaking, this doesn't really matter, nor would it prove the existence of a god, it would simply mean that if he did exist he could do this, sorry.
Your second premise is hard to understand because of how you framed it, perhaps a spelling omission. What does this mean - "you could mean this give the universe reason?" Do you mean, "you could mean this gives the universe reason?" What gives the universe meaning - God!
As I have stated elsewhere, we discover all kinds of reasons for the existence of things in the universe. You can find the causal tree of explanations (thus reason) by tracing everything back to the Big Bang, then no further. Thus, without God, why would this be? First, why would you expect to find reasons for things in an unreasoning, pure chance universe? There is no reason that you would, yet you do. The simple explanation, there is a God behind the universe, Someone sufficient to explain it and give the reason for its existence.
You can trace the reason (causes) back to the universe's start but no further, based on the Big Bang Model. Time had a beginning; it is finite. Space had a beginning (the Friedman-Lemaitre model, among other reasons, since it is expanding from this cosmological singularity). It is reasonable to say that energy (2nd law of thermodynamics/a closed system) and matter had a beginning because they exist within the space-time framework or continuum.
So, we see that there is a cause for every effect, with one exception in your atheistic framework, the Big Bang (taxicab fallacy). An uncaused cause - God - is a simple explanation for the cause of the universe. He is timeless (eternal) and transcendent (beyond the natural). The atheist is inconsistent once again. He can find a cause for everything that has a beginning until he gets to why something exists rather than nothing. In fact, the atheist has no answer to life's ultimate questions. He cannot answer why. He/she says no explanation is needed. Again, he/she is inconsistent because they find a reason for everything except these ultimate questions.
If you meant something else, please do clarify, and if you meant either of those two things, well... yeah just refuted them.2. God has what is necessary for the universe. He transcends time and space, so He is not of the physical realm, which began.[a] You would be forced to demonstrate this beings existence, it isn't unreasonable to say that claiming an agent who transcends space and time is a [b] rather huge claim, and would [c] require proportionate evidence. Not to mention, again, just because if something was true it would explain x or y, does not logically follow that that something is true.
[a] Can you provide some reason why the universe and natural realm began to exist? If the universe is all there is, or was, or will ever be (Carl Sagan), why would there be a reason? A necessary being is a sufficient reason, one that makes sense. You are not that being. So far, you have no agency for the beginning. You admit chance is not an agent. Thus, you have agency from the Big Bang forward but an insufficient cause (none) and no agency for the Big Bang.
The Christian worldview can make sense of the universe, cause and effect, agency and intention, and reason. It is reasonable to believe. Your worldview is not.
[b] So are atheistic claims that either there is no reason or cause for the universe or the Big Bang (which you admit chance has no agency or intent) is the cause. Is this not also a huge claim? You bet it is—another hypocritical double-standard by the atheist.
[c] We find causes and reasons for everything from what an atheist claims is a chance happenstance universe. Why not for the universe? It does have an explanation that you do not want to accept. God would be a sufficient explanation. We find the anthropic principle and fine-tuning at work from what we understand about the universe. We find laws, principles that don't make sense from chance happenstance. We, as human beings, make laws and understand that laws require a lawgiver. So, several logical and philosophical reasons give proportional evidence of God, not to mention the reasonableness of the Bible, of which prophecy has reasonable historical verification.
3. He is the simplest reason since the Big Bang can morph into many other scenarios, with black holes, wormholes, an expanding and contracting universe, a steady-state universe, multiverses, etc.No, first of all this is a straw man of Occam's razor, which is to make the least assumptions possible, not be the simplest possible. Lexico says this:NOUN
The principle (attributed to William of Occam) that in explaining a thing no more assumptions should be made [a] than are necessary. The principle is often invoked to defend reductionism or nominalism.Second of all, god would not raise to the level of some of these theories or hypothesis, as they each have some contingent or empirical evidence to support them, whereas the [b] god proposition only has, "Would make sense [c] given the facts" [d] with no direct evidence supporting it. As well as it would make one assume bigger and more things, the level of the assumption also matters here.
[a] "Than is necessary." The universe, if it had a beginning, is not necessary. The least assumption is God created.
[b] God is sufficient in making sense of the universe. Blind, indifferent, mindless chance happenstance is not. The latter brings in far more assumptions. It assumes that non-conscious inorganic matter can give rise to conscious organic beings. It assumes that these things can happen without a mind behind them. It assumes that meaninglessness can give rise to meaning, and perhaps millions of other assumptions.
[c] You a begging the facts are what they are because of chance happenstance, and how do you know they are the facts of the universe? You work on your starting presupposition - no God. Thus, you eliminate God as the reason that things are what they are. As a limited being, you only grasp aspects of the truth with a lot of falsehoods built-in for things. You are not a necessary being in determining what happened, yet you act as if you are, pontificating God's non-existence.
[d] Join the crowd. You have no direct evidence either. And I would argue that the Bible is the direct evidence for His existence as well as the creation itself and the impossibility of it creating itself (self-creation). Someone is speaking to you from its pages, and that Someone says He is God.
You were not there to witness the origin of the universe or life. You start with a naturalistic explanation and then look for reasons to justify that assumption, ignoring the anomalies that contradict it. You believe that the present is the key to the past because all you have is the near-present (human history) to interpret that data by. I believe there would be countless assumptions built into those assumptions, more than we are capable of comprehending.
4. Experientially and observationally, every cause has an explanation, yet when you get to the Big Bang, you don't know? You trace the cause and effect back to a point in time, a singularity, then no further. With God, that is not the case. We can go beyond the universe."You" is wrong, Nobody knows,
How do you know I'm wrong if, as you say, 'nobody knows?' You are illogical again. Your worldview does not have what is necessary for the knowledge of origins.
[a] we don't yet have the technology nor the understanding to measure what came before it, if we were to apply the, "Cause and effect only go as far back as time" then it is entirely [b] possible that the universe literally did pop into existence from nothing, [c] this is not using my reasoning, but yours. Not to mention, [d] there has still been no demonstration of a god.
[a] You don't have what is necessary, yet you believe you one day will. The Christian worldview already has what is necessary, an omniscient, omnipotent, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal Being.
[b] Again, something from nothing is illogical, impossible. That is just fanciful thinking.
[c] It is not my reason that nothing existed and created something. That is a fool's thoughts that lack wisdom and logic.
[d] There is reasonable evidence, some of which we discuss in the thread - morality and what that means from an atheist and Christian perspective. The atheist cannot account for morality. All they can account for is preference.
Perhaps my favourite evidence for the existence of God is the prophetic argument. I have not found an atheist on this forum (or any other) that understands the evidence's complexity and proofs. They always read things into Scripture that are not stated, as SkepticalOne did in both our debates on prophecy. I give him credit, at least he attempted to argue his case, and the jury did not understand the complexity of evidence either.
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@Theweakeredge
[a] Any god that did not exist [b] would not be God.Yes it would. Simply not your definition of god.
[a] (^8
"Any god that does not exist would not be God." Are you saying that a being who does not exist can be God?
[b] If God is not the supreme being of which no greater can be thought of then that being is not God. There would be a greater being.
God, as a supernatural Being, is the Occam razor of explanations.This is incorrect, because [a] you are assuming supernatural things to exist, that a god exists, that the god is super natural, that the god did x or y, and that the god a, b, c characteristics. So no, this is not true either.
[a] And you are assuming supernatural beings do not exist. For you, nature is all that there is then. How do you know that? You don't. You assume it. Let's face it, all the different theories of the universe are complicated explanations that don't really answer the question of existence. It is not simple for you to answer why something exists rather than nothing, or how it can. If you think otherwise, then show your proof on how the universe does exist and how existence can come from nothing (no supernatural for you; nothing that supersedes the natural). A supreme, ultimate, omniscient Being who just speaks the universe into existence is far simpler.
Then God said, “Let there be light”; and there was light.
Then God said, “Let there be an expanse in the midst of the waters, and let it separate the waters from the waters.”
Then God said, “Let the waters below the heavens be gathered into one place, and let the dry land appear”; and it was so.
Then God said, “Let the earth sprout vegetation, plants yielding seed, and fruit trees on the earth bearing fruit according to their kind with seed in them”; and it was so.
Then God said, “Let there be lights in the expanse of the heavens to separate the day from the night, and they shall serve as signs and for seasons, and for days and years;
Then God said, “Let the waters teem with swarms of living creatures, and let birds fly above the earth in the open expanse of the heavens.”
Then God said, “Let the earth produce living creatures according to their kind: livestock and crawling things and animals of the earth according to their kind”; and it was so.
Then God said, “Let Us make mankind in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the livestock and over all the earth, and over every crawling thing that crawls on the earth.”
Very simple. God said, and it was so.
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@Theweakeredge
[1] What is "chance?"Lexico (An English and Spanish Oxford Dictionary, Thesaurus) defines chance as the following:NOUN
1 A possibility of something happening.‘there is a chance of winning the raffle’ 1.1 chances The probability of something desirable happening. 'he played down his chances of becoming chairman 1.2 in singular An opportunity to do or achieve something. ‘I gave her a chance to answer’ 2 mass noun The occurrence of events in the absence of any obvious intention or cause. ‘he met his brother by chance’ADJECTIVEattributive
Fortuitous; accidental.‘a chance meeting’More example sentencesVERB
1 no object, with infinitive Do something by accident or without intending to.‘he was very effusive if they chanced to meet’ 1.1 chance upon/on/across Find or see by accident. ‘he chanced upon an interesting advertisement’ 2 informal with object Do (something) despite its being dangerous or of uncertain outcome.In this case I am referring to the 2nd definition of chance under nouns:Chance - "The occurrence of events in the absence of any obvious intention or cause."
The absence of an obvious cause or intentionality.
Show me it has the ability to do anything.Chance is [b] not an agent or something that causes things, but a noun to refer to [c] an event does not have an intention or cause. It can also be an adjective to describe something that has happened in what may seem unfavorable circumstances. [a] This seems like either semantics or you being dishonest.
[a] I'm not dishonest, just working with your definition. So, it is your semantics.
[b] You admit it has no intent or agency to do anything. So nothing happened. That is what you are saying.
[c] If there is no cause, nothing happened. You are speaking of something from nothing (no cause) since the universe began to exist, or are you thinking it is eternal? It began to exist from nothing, for there was no cause for it. Do you understand the senselessness of that? This once again shows the inconsistency of your thinking.
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@ludofl3x
@Amoranemix
Then your system of thought is irrational and illogical, as I have explained before. I don't think I can reason with you.I agree, we're talking past each other , and I don't have the time to sort through your repetitive screeds. I'll go on not torturing little kids for fun even though I don't believe in god.
My "repetitive screeds" are an attempt to obtain accountability from the atheistic worldview. IMO, you guys pick and choose what you will answer and refuse to look at your starting presuppositions and why they make no sense. In a meaningless universe where you are a biological bag of atoms and derive your morality from genetic and environmental factors, why is it wrong to torture or kill innocent human beings? How does the atheistic worldview account for objective moral values? You borrow from the Christian worldview in thinking it is wrong. Thus, I continually point out how inconsistent the atheist is in their thinking. Many atheists on this forum admit that morality is a relative preference. They admit that it was good to murder the undesirables of the German society for Hitler, as he understood the good. So Amoranemix sees this as an actual good for Hitler.
AMORANEMIX: "Adolf Hitler (AH) was necessary for us to know what is good according to AH and we have what is best according to AH to compare values against."
Amoranemix can not identify something really wrong because he has no absolute, objective standard to identify the good. Thus he is willing to concede that people make up good according to their preferences. For him, what Hitler did was evil, but for Hitler, it was good (moral relativism). It is all based on preference. You see, he can't say that what Hitler did was wrong for Hitler. He does not recognize it as wrong for Hitler. He does not recognize an absolute, objective standard, so for some, torturing little children for fun would be good, such as for the Marquis de Sade.
ME: "In Hitler's Germany, the 'codified mob rule' or law was to round up Jews and other undesirables' and kill them. Fine, unless you happen to be a Jew, right? Then the practice is definitely wrong.[33]"
AMORANEMIX: "[33] According to you perhaps and according to me, but not according to the Nazis."
Amoranemix does not see this as wrong for those who choose to see it that way. He cannot recognize an absolute, universal wrong. It is absurd, and yet he is consistent with the atheist worldview. Morality is whatever you make it with such a worldview because there is no absolute standard. The atheist is usually inconsistent with his/her belief when they say, "I'll go on not torturing little kids for fun even though I don't believe in god." So you will, but what about those other relativists who think differently? Unless you have an absolute standard, all you are doing is expressing your personal opinion. Can you say it is absolutely, universally, objectively wrong? If you can, then what is your absolute, objective, unchanging, universal standard in doing so? Let's see how consistent you are with atheism (a universe in which our lives are ultimately meaningless).
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