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@TheUnderdog
If they knew they were going to get abortions from their sex, they shouldn't have gotten pregnant and therefore shouldn't have had sex(this applies to the men even more).
But they don't know they're going to get abortions do they? They may (and should) know that it's a possibility, but your opinion doesn't seem a good reason for people to assert what others should or shouldn't do.
If they don't want kids, then yes.
Why? Why should sex be restricted only to those that want children?
You have the right to sex without the desire to conceive. This doesn't mean you should do it.
Ah, so this is purely your opinion of what others should want. People seem to enjoy sex enough to risk those consequences and frankly good luck to them.
My argument isn't a good argument to ban abortion. But it is a reason as to why females wouldn't want one.
I would say that most women don't want an abortion. However, if it's good reason for a woman who doesn't want to have children not to have sex is a different thing entirely. The question becomes is it a good reason for women who don't want children not to have sex? I personally don't see that it is.
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@3RU7AL
That describes the vast majority of people I know.
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@TheUnderdog
What about married women who want abortions? They'd be painful too right? Does that mean feminists should be against sex?
Also it seems to me that the logical statement is more 'I have the right to premarital sex, even though there is the risk of adverse consequences'
The question as to if they have the right to that position or not would seem to me to be more than anything 'does it hurt other people'? If an act carries consequences that may harm you and only you, then why shouldn't you be allowed to make an informed decision to take that act?
Also it seems to me that the logical statement is more 'I have the right to premarital sex, even though there is the risk of adverse consequences'
The question as to if they have the right to that position or not would seem to me to be more than anything 'does it hurt other people'? If an act carries consequences that may harm you and only you, then why shouldn't you be allowed to make an informed decision to take that act?
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Yet I could say I have faith in the principle of physics - which allows me to trust that if I sit on this chair then I wont fall down.
I don't believe physics requires a religious conviction to be trusted, I believe the chair will hold based on past experience, sure it could be wrong, but it's not religious conviction that leads to that belief. Just as its past experience that leads to me trusting the chair... There have been more than a few times I've not risked less than stable looking chairs.
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@Tradesecret
Faith cannot be used to prop up any belief. That is like saying our legs prop up our legs. It makes no sense. Faith and belief are the same things. They are synonyms along with the word trust.
I would say that faith and belief are similar, but I wouldn't say synonymous. Faith is specifically a belief held through religious convictions rather than proof. I can believe in things without having faith in them. I believe my smart phone exists (I'm using it to write this), but I don't have faith in its existence (my belief is neither a religious conviction or lacking in proof).
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@Lemming
If my eldest brother had been charged with the crime of trying to murder him, my faith in him would be a strong 'reason for me personally, in believing that he would not commit such an action.
I find that very interesting. Do you think it would be faith that is the basis of that belief or your experience of your brother and knowledge of his character that led you to trust in said character?
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Atheists, as people who have thought about existence, often make the claim that Atheism is an absence of belief in God or a deity. Does that argument work? I say no. I could claim theism is a lack of belief in atheism or an absence (not the presence) of the denial of God or gods.
Well, I suppose you could. Though atheism as the absence of belief in the existence of god(s) doesn't necessitate the denial of them. This is a common misconception. Belief is the acceptance that something is true or does exist. Denial is the position that something is not true. While I agree everyone who believes 'god(s) don't exist' is an atheist. Not all atheists need believe gods don't exist, they need only not believe they do. It's a false dichotomy my assert that be cause I don't believe X exists, I must believe X doesn't exist. I could simply be uncertain enough of X's existence that I don't feel either position warrants belief. If X is god(s) then it's atheism.
An atheist not believing in God as Creator would have to believe something else as there cause, yet something about God too in their denial of Him. You can't deny something you have no idea of and SkepticalOne definitely has views about God. Thus, atheism is a worldview. It examines life's most basic questions and comes to a conclusion from a standpoint lacking God.
Yet as an atheist I don't deny god(s) I simply see no reason to accept the claims of their existence as true. Does that mean I need to believe alternative views? I'd say no. I find myself uncertain how the universe began, where life came from and most of the other subjects contested. My views are simple. I haven't been presented with the necessity for a creator of the universe so I don't believe in one.
First, what is the origin (reasoning the chain of events back to its furthest point possible) of moral conscious beings? Is such a causal factor intentional (thus mindful) or random, chaotic? A personal Being who has revealed Himself as omniscient, omnipotent, omnibenevolent, immutable, and eternal would have what is necessary in determining what is moral because there would be a fixed measure or reference point in which a comparison can be made as to 'the good' (since there is a best). How does SkepticalOne arrive at best? What is the ideal, the fixed reference point? That necessary Being is reasonable to assume since we only witness or observe moral mindful beings deriving their existence from other moral, mindful beings. With atheism (no God or gods) what is left for the origins of morality and before that conscious beings? I say it is a blind, indifferent, mindless, random chance happenstance. How is that capable of anything, let alone being the cause of moral mindful beings?
The theist position I feel would be preferable if it were true, as of yet I have seen no reason to conclude A personal Being who is omniscient, omnipotent, omnibenevolent, immutable, and eternal has revealed himself. Until such a time as it can be shown that it has I feel it's a moot point which is preferable. Why disclude the worrying possibility that morality is an idea of humans? Not an absolute, not a constant, but a subjective human idea. This is a horrible idea, one that's definitely not what I would prefer to be true. However, what I want to be true is immaterial.
Whereas I believe I derive my moral aptitude from a necessary moral being, you believe you derive yours from chance happenstance. How is that more reasonable? Am I missing something here?
Again, this is dependant on the existence of your supposed necrsary moral being. Until you can show there is a necessary moral being then why would it be reasonable to assume one?
It takes faith to be an atheist, a blind faith if you look at the causal tree of blind indifferent chance as your maker. How is that reasonable in arriving at morality? Somehow, there is a giant leap from chance happenstance to uniformity of nature and sustainability of these natural laws.
You speak of random chance. I don't know the probabilities of this universe forming as it has. I also don't know as anyone does. But that only matters if the universe forming as it has is somehow intended/special. Of course to us it's great that the universe formed as it did (in a way that had life develop as it did) but can you give any reason to assume that this is somehow special rather than simply how it turned out? Why must a universe with life be intended/special rather than simply how it turned out? Is it objectively special or merely special to us because if it was otherwise we wouldn't be here?
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@n8nrgmi
we see things that look supernatural happen to praying theists but there's no reason to assume those things happen to atheists. supernatural healings.
Can I ask what you mean by this? I mean I've known people who are atheist survive what were diagnosed as terminal illness. I know of an atheist who was pulled off a stool to the floor fractions of a second before a bullet lodged into the wall behind where he'd been sitting. Remarkable, but to my knowledge nothing that requires the supernatural.
the large majority of people who have NDEs who are atheists end up believing in God (almost everyone who has those experiences, even skeptics, end up believing in the afterlife, but that's just a related point). there's lots of good evidence for NDEs so we should take them seriously. such as out of body experiences being verified under scientific study. it's stupid to argue that it's common for people to hallucinate elaborate afterlife stories when they die and then give no good reason why that happens, when drugs dont cause that to happen either. dr longs book 'evidence for the afterlife' is full of good evidence.
So you dismiss the incredible increase in brain activity as a reason people would have experiences while dying? I believe the increase in brain activity is documented? Similarities are suggested to be based on cultural experience, but I'm more interested than convinced either way.
there's the point that the universe is going from high energy to low energy as if it's a clock that got set (how does something happen once within all eternity and never happen again, what does that even mean?)... there's no good alternative hypothesis that has good evidence for it, just speculation.
To argue 'there's no good hypothesis' is begging the question. I personally see an unknown rather than evidence for a creator, I'd be interested in hearing your thoughts on why a creator is necessary.
it's stupid to argue that humans are just elaborate living robots. it should be intuitive that we are more than that, and it's forced and artificial to think that way.
This reads as pure opinion. Got anything to back it up?
there's good and inexplicable evidence for demonic possession.
I'm not sure at all on this so I'd be interested on more information of this evidence. Though again, if the only reason it supports your argument is there's currently no alternative, then it may very well be begging the question.
the design of the universe is weak evidence but it's evidence
Can you show the universe is a design?
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@Polytheist-Witch
I agree with this. I have never and would never argue against the position that a person believes in a god or gods. Nor would I argue against the position that they believe they know that god or gods.
I would never argue against the claim that someone was in love, or that they felt someone was in love with them. I would say I've known the latter to be incorrect on several occasions.
If the discussion was if someone's wife existed however, I might want more evidence.
I would never argue against the claim that someone was in love, or that they felt someone was in love with them. I would say I've known the latter to be incorrect on several occasions.
If the discussion was if someone's wife existed however, I might want more evidence.
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@Tradesecret
Great question. If we are to research what happened to Jesus, then the sources which would be most reliable would be the manuscripts which are closest or oldest to his alleged existence. If we were to research the works of Aristotle or Caesar, we would do the same thing. Interestingly there are copious amounts of manuscripts for the alleged existence of Jesus. Not just close in times of date but also multiple copies of similar documents. For those interested in ancient documents - the narratives around the life of Jesus are quite extraordinary.
Can you give some examples of these sources? I am of course not asking for anything unduly extensive, but manuscripts that support biblical claims of miracles and divine acts would be welcome. I personally see little issue with claims that a Jesus existed, or that he was Crucified.
Beyond his baptism and crucifixion there seems to be little of Jesus' life that is accepted by a wide range of historical scholars. So I'd be interested in some sources you'd suggest that clarify these details.
As for the persecution of Christians, I am again less than versed in the subject than I might like, day to day life gives less time to read than I might like. That said, I do find the idea put forward by some that the early Roman church muddied a lot of our historical records seems reasonable.
The spread of Christianity is interesting, but then Buddhism and and Islam also showed rapid spread if I'm not mistaken. I can certainly see an appeal in Christianities claims of eternal salvation which many religions are less clear. Again, I am always interested in reading material people might suggest.
I take the view that when it comes to understanding the resurrection of Jesus - that the biggest hurdle people have is God not facts. If you don't believe in God, then the resurrection becomes an impossibility, no matter what the facts ought to lead us to conclude.
You aren't concerned that by accepting the existence of God as true leads to a bias? That the spread of Christianity was quick and impressive isn't really the question. The real questions are why did Christianity spread so well, what factors can we attribute to this spread and how does this support the claims put forward by Christianity? Does it really follow that people believing the claims makes them valid? Buddism went from Buddha to being the dominant religion of the Mauryan Empire within a few short centuries after all.
In other words, facts become a side issue - to what we "know with our own experience". This is where many atheists tend to fall down.
I have to disagree here. I feel the issue is more connecting proposed facts to proposed conclusions. To give an example. I won't argue the spread of Christianity is an interesting and remarkable event. However, I don't take that fact to conclude that it's claims are true and see no logical reason to do so.
You can't beat something with nothing. In other words, historians of all positions accept something extraordinary happened in history that took a new Jewish cult in the backwaters of the world from almost next to nothing with few subscribers to a cult that within a couple of hundred years - had captured a very large proportion of the Roman empire. This occurred in a time while Christianity was still illegal and participants could very much expect to be sentenced to death. The question is what happened?
Firstly, that is a very good question. If we had a solid answer for that we'd likely have far less reason for discussion. That said, the contrarian in me has taken an interest in books and papers that question the extent of Christian persecution. My understanding is that it was fairly late... I am tempted to say late 3rd Century, that there were any laws passed that made persecution of Christians a widespread and legally supported act (the exception being Tacticus, but there are disputing theories on how much that was aimed at Christianity and how much it was aimed at finding a scspegoat/arsonist, I don't have enough information at present to dismiss either position). Yet even the Diocletianic persecution targeted those unwilling to sacrifice to the Imperial Cult, rather than Christians in particular. Which also reminds me of Manichaeism which while not surviving spread incredibly quickly despite being younger and just as victimised by Diocletianic persecution. All this often leads me to question more 'why do religions spread so quickly' and 'Why did Christianity manage to survive.' while both interesting questions, I'm not convinced they support the validity of the religions claims so much as the appeal of those claims.
When all of the varied theories put forward to the questions around the death and resurrection are considered - and weighted against plausibility. Against likelihood. Against possibilities, the preponderance of evidence is significant. I think overwhelming. For me - the resurrection of Jesus is not something I believe in faith. In fact I would counsel against Christians to believe such in faith. It is a historical fact for the church.
This I can't quite agree with. I find the questions fascinating, but as of yet, unanswered. Are you proposing that the fact people believed a claim (even to the point of facing persecution and death) is evidence of the claims validity?
Hence the answer to your last questions is FACTS should have us arrive at that conclusion. We ought not let the bias and assumptions we have either in the belief or the disbelief of God come into it.
I agree completely.
For there not to be a resurrection, requires a better, more plausible explanation. At this point in time, that still remains remarkably missing. Many people account for some part of the question - but NOT one takes into the account the entirety of the story. Where is the body? Why were there so many actual witnesses of the resurrection - who were prepared to die - if they knew it was a lie or a conspiracy? What caused the exponential growth of the church - that has so baffled historians?
I would disagree. I would argue that a lack of an answer doesn't on its own make other answers more valid.
The questions are good ones, yet even if the ressurection would answer them all, that alone hardly seems to be reason to accept the ressurection as fact. Occam's razor is a fine principle, but it is hardly a universal principle. If the simple answer requires something extraordinary enough that we have no other documented account of such a thing happening in literally billions of cases, then being intensely sceptical seems reasonable.
Why did Christianity spread so fast? Manicheaism spread to be a primary contender with Christianity, despite similar persecution and not beginning until the third century I believe. This would suggest a faster growth than Christianity. Buddhism spread with incredible speed as well, becoming a state within a few centuries of its inception.
What happened to the body? Not a clue, I haven't read any accounts from authors who I have reason to believe were there, so such deductions seem difficult if not impossible.
As for why they would martyr themselves for a lie or conspiracy. I would say they wouldn't, but how do we know what they did Martyr themselves for didn't require a lie and/or a conspiracy?
You say you can't beat something with nothing. This implies an answer should be accepted unless it can be disproven. I would say the reverse is true. An answer is valid once it. Can be shown to be a plausible explanation for a question.
I'm not ready to take an explanation that goes against all human experience as true without some very serious backing. The questions of:
why did Christianity spread so quickly?
Why were people willing to die for a lie/conspiracy?
and
what happened to a body?
Don't seem suitable reasons to believe a person rose from the dead, at least not without very extensive accounts of said ressurection. This is why I ask what sources you'd suggest, because I need a lot more to convince me than the biblical texts and the fact that some people were committed enough to a cause to die for it.
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@Tradesecret
Can I ask what sources you'd suggest as being reliable for genuine research. As for the simplest solution being the most likely. I agree up to a point, but where does that end? At what point do we consider if the 'simplest solution matches what we know to be possible? What should lead us to conclude a dead man being ressurected is the most plausible explanation?
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@RoderickSpode
It's not so much that's it's an impossibility, but it's a huge stretch.Sure, some assumed male common ancestor way back when, while sniffing around for a female CA in heat, may have all of a sudden started pondering their existence. But why would I assume such a thing?
Yet you're willing to assume a creator. We have no example of any intelligence being able to create life from scratch, we have no example at all of life ever coming from scratch, with the information (or lack of) available then why should we assume a creator? How do you show that the assumption of a creator is more logical than the assumption of abiogensis? Ultimately why not avoid the assumption altogether? Why not withhold conclusion until such a time as we've managed to gather enough information for an informed answer?
Again, I'm not claiming it's impossible.Wouldn't you agree that it's a bit shaky?And not to mention the fact that there's just no proof that early man made up the concept from imagination.
What exactly is shaky about believing that human imagination could be responsible for the concept of gods? More relevant to this discussion, why is it more shaky than assuming the universe originated with an intelligence that we're unable to show exists, I have seen human imagination, I have evidence that it can create concepts of things that don't or can't possibly be expected to exist. I see no way this isn't at the very least at least as reasonable an explanation for the origin of god concepts as the existence of a god. But again that isn't my point, my point isn't to make that assumption it's to ask why we should assume your position rather than simply continue to accept that we need more information before we can know? My position isn't that god is a figment of human imagination, it's that I won't accept the position that a god exists until evidence is provided to support that claim.
Yes, babies are people.Do they know whether or not God exists?No?Ah! They must also be agnostic then.
Two points here, firstly babies can't be agnostic. Agnosticism isn't the knowledge of gods existence or nature, it's the belief that gods existence and nature is unknown and unknowable. Iroincally if you don't know of the concept of god you can't be an agnostic. Secondly, if babies were agnostic it'd have no bearing on if they were atheist or not.
Again, not claiming an impossibility. But why should I consider it beyond a mere suggested possibility?
Then you're now beginning to see what my position is on the existence of a god. My position is rather than taking a position that can't be shown to be true assume that it is and then also assume that ideas that conflict with that are false, why not accept we don't have enough information to make a logical and accurate conclusion and try to avoid forming a bias (as much as possible) until we have sufficient information? So far I have no evidence of a god or gods, I have no evidence that a creator is needed for the universe to form, I haven't the information necessary to determine how likely life is to start on its own or the universe or any of the other things we see in the universe, with that in mind I have no reasonable way to determine the likelihood of either position. When we can determine that likelihood, when we can figure out the chances, then we can make reasonable assumptions, when we can show that something in nature necessitated a creator then I'll believe in a god. Before then, it seems logical to believe only that the universe as it exists, life as it exists stem from a currently indeterminate origin.
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@ethang5
Three things...1. There is no known instance of life ever starting without prior lifeThis neither removes the possibility of such an instance nor shows intelligence must be involved.Agreed. But yet it is more in favor of intelligence being involved than not. So you have less reason to assume abiogenesis than I have to assume creation.
Not really, can you present the variables that allow us to determine if it's more likely that life began from non-life (something we have no example of true) or that it began from an eternal, living creator (that we have no example of either)? How do you determine which is more or less likely?
So the only example we have of intelligence hasn't been able to create life and this is evidence that life must require an intelligence to form?Not must, but highly likely. It is more reasonable to conclude that life comes from life than to assume abiogenesis when not only is there absolutely no evidence for abiogenesis, but there is a ton of evidence for life only from prior life.
How do you determine this likelihood? If all life must come from life then don't we have an infinite regression? If not where did the first life come from? If we talk an eternal creator, then how do you show that's more probable than abiogenesis?
How does this prove the necessity of an intelligence at all? It really only seems to show what we can't do.Why can't we do it? The science seems to indicate because abiogenesis is incorrect/impossible.
The first part of this is an argument from ignorance, the second is a pretty broad assumption. That we can't do something doesn't suggest that it is impossible. It may suggest our ideas on how abiogenesis is inaccurate, but that again only goes to show our shortcomings, it does nothing to prove nor disprove abiogenesis. You could equally argue that the fact that the only intelligent beings we know to exist being incapable of creating life would seem to indicate that intelligence can't create life. Both seem to be unsound and leave us having only the position that humans can't create life from scratch. Nothing in the argument suggests a reason to assume we can make a reasonable assumption as to how life came to begin.
3. Life makes, uses, and adapts information, and information creation & manipulation requires intelligence.I agree that life creates and manipulates information if you define information as"What is conveyed or represented by a particular arrangement or sequence of things.Acceptable.Then however I would ask why that requires an intelligence? What would prevent natural processes forming and manipulating such sequences?Only intelligence can produce a "particular" arrangement or sequence. Non-intelligence can only produce random arrangements or sequences.Without the information in DNA/RNA, life cannot start. Without life, we cannot have DNA/RNA. It's simple and intuitive
Yet don't naturally occurring forces interacting produce the same results if all the variables are consistent? If the variables are usually consistent wouldn't we expect to see the same particular arrangement form? When we consistent particular results that would suggest that the variables hadn't changed, when we see different results that simply suggests that one of the variables had changed. In the first case we'd get a repeating pattern.
Again we derive information from sequences, nothing seems to suggest these sequences. Why must these sequences be formed by an intelligence?Because only intelligence can produce, use and store "particular" information.S.E.T.I. was based on this truism. Otherwise, we could never know if a thing like a spaceship or a novel was a product of intelligence of of random chance.Though the reasons to conclude intelligence in crestion life are not ironclad, there is absolutely no logical reason to assume abiogenesis. None whatsoever.
SETI is quite selective in what it wants to see to my understanding. It's not so much about information, but about information in a form familiar to how we (the only known sample of intelligent life) produce information. Ultimately I would say there is no evidence for either position, everything presented seems highly inconclusive, with that conclusion accepting either claim as true seems unfounded.
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@EtrnlVw
Disbelief and (or) lack of belief are being used synonymously, because it is specific to the existence of God or gods. Atheism isn't defined as "lack of beliefs" it is specific to the rejection (or disbelief) in God (or more specific, to the existence of God), as opposed to Theism. The definition would not exist without the cognition and understanding of theism, thus an understanding of God is necessary. This is so simple to understand, I have a "lack of" patience engaging any further in the topic at hand.
No, an understanding of god is necessary to define oneself as an atheist. In no way does being an atheist require you to define yourself as one or even know that the term exists. You fail to understand the difference between defining the word and the state itself. Before theists all humans would have been atheists. However, they wouldn't have defined themselves as such, that doesn't mean they weren't atheists. Also, atheism very much is defined as the lack of belief in a god. It's defined as 'Disbelief or lack of belief in the existence of God or gods.' Notice lack of belief right in there. It most certainly isn't specific to the rejection of god. In no way does it state or imply this. Atheism covers those who believe n gods non-existence sure, but it also includes every other position on the existence of god that isn't the acceptance of the existence of a god or gods.
Lets call a disbelief in leprechauns A-gnomism.....as opposed to gnomism which is a belief in leprechauns.....Saying I lack belief in leprechauns is also saying I disbelieve in them, or have no belief why? because I first have cognition of them to have no belief specific to the existence of leprechauns. Claiming I lack beliefs is not the same, it has no relevance to A-gnomism specifically.
This isn't an apt analogy. To make this relevant we'd have to define A-gnomism as 'disbelief or lack of belief in the existence of leprechauns' if we do that then we can easily say that it's fair to say George has never heard of leprechauns, he's agnomist because he lacks belief in leprechauns.
A-gnomism is not a lack of beliefs, that's not how it is defined, it is a disbelief (or lack of belief) in leprechauns. Again, the misconception that atheism means a lack of beliefs is somewhat silly, because we all know that without the cognition of Theism the term makes zero sense, it no longer means anything not to mention the reality that the definition itself insists the cognition of the existence of God or gods. There is no word for "lack of beliefs", other than saying "lack of belief". Babies can lack beliefs, but can't disbelieve in God (which is synonymous with a "lack of belief" IN GOD). .
Your definition isn't no, because you never defined it as such. However, the term atheist is defined as the lack of belief specifically. It also isn't a misconception, it's literally the oxford dictionary definition of atheist/atheism. That entire paragraph is in direct conflict with the oxford dictionary definition of atheist, the definition I very clearly expressed as how I define atheist right back when I started posting. Also, again, the thing can exist without us being able to define it or even knowing it exists. The definition doesn't insist the cognition or atheists on the part of the atheist, it simply acknowledges that the people using the term atheist are aware of the claims of gods existence. In no way does that mean that all atheists are aware of the claim they're not accepting as true. Lack of belief in the existence of a god or gods is atheism by definition.
A-theism was intended as a term for the lack of belief (or disbelief) in God specifically, for one to have no beliefs in the existence of God specifically one has to be aware of such concept otherwise a-theism is a worthless term. Without a belief in God there can be no term opposing it, and upon opposing it or rejecting it the term a-theism now has relevance. A baby cannot be an atheist (which is an opposing position to the existence of God or gods), though they can lack beliefs.
A-theism was intended as a term for the lack of belief (or disbelief) in God specifically, for one to have no beliefs in the existence of God specifically one has to be aware of such concept otherwise a-theism is a worthless term. Without a belief in God there can be no term opposing it, and upon opposing it or rejecting it the term a-theism now has relevance. A baby cannot be an atheist (which is an opposing position to the existence of God or gods), though they can lack beliefs.
This is incorrect. One doesn't need to be aware of god not to have belief in the existence of god specifically. They would need to be aware of god to refer to themselves as not believing in the existence of gods specifically, but if they don't know of the god claim/concept, then they most certainly have no beliefs in the existence of god or gods specifically. Again you slip from discussing the relevance of the thing itself and the relevance of the term. I'm not sure if this is deliberate or simply a mistake on your part.
Your argument that the term atheist would be meaningless without theist is true, but that doesn't mean that an atheist must reject god or even be aware of god, only that someone must.
The state of being an atheist doesn't require knowledge of the claims or concepts of gods at all.
The term atheist is dependent on someone being aware of the claims or concepts of a god or gods existing.
In no way does the atheist have to be in the aware group, nothing about the definition suggests that, it is simply that state of not accepting as true the existence of a god or gods, anyone who doesn't know that there is a claim of such a thing doesn't have that specific belief, so they fit the definition of atheist.
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@ethang5
If you want to assert that we should look at Atheism as a-theism or atheist as a-theist for purposes of definition then it follows that. Atheism is not theism, the word itself would certainly have required an atheist to make sense, but that doesn't mean there weren't atheists before theism, in fact, if there were people before theism then they were most certainly atheists, even if they didn't know that themselves, this is made clear by the fact that they were people who weren't theists. If we're looking at the word by definition: 'A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods ' then they were atheists, being people who disbelieved in the existence of a god or gods. If we're using the a-theist in the literal sense of not-theist, then they fit because they were no theists. Infants fit for the same reason.
Untrue. The "people" requirement is due to the fact that only people think. If you remove the thinking requirement, you lose the logical reason for restricting the definition to people.
This is your repeated assertion, it is however unfounded. I have addressed this, it addresses humanity. It addresses the fact that humans are the only beings we know of relevant to the discussion of religion.
By discounting infants from the group of people who disbelieve in the existence of a god or gods you are effectively either claiming they believe in gods or dismissing them as humans. The first would require evidence as a claim, the second is something I'm not willing to do.
1. Why is personhood necessary for atheism? Why can't a scarf be an atheist?2. What is it that makes a lemon tree different from a person, and thus, unqualified as an atheist?
I haven't dodged any question, I've already answered this question. It's because of humanity, of all known species humans are relevant in the discussion of belief in a god.
Where our difference of opinion lies in both in the importance of identifying when they become relevant. I won't dismiss babies from the position of being human. Nor will I accept the effort of theists to shoehorn in 'rejection' into atheism/atheist. There is no implication or necessity or rejection or knowledge of god in the definition of atheist, only that one is human and doesn't believe in god.
As for the second question. Photosynthesis and the ability to grow lemons among many other things. What makes a lemon tree unqualified to be an atheist is not being a human and as such not being a person.
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@ethang5
Sorry, it simply doesn't make sense. There is a reason atheists have been restricted to people. That reason is not true for babies. Babies are people, but do not qualify under the definition.Your only 2 logical choices are to,1. Ditch the peoplehood/thinking requirement, rendering all inanimate objects as qualifying as atheists, or...2. Keep the peoplehood/thinking requirement, rendering all infants as unqualified under the definition.
Point one is a strawman there is no people/thinking requirement, simply a people requirement. Infants fit that. They are people, they fit the first criteria to be an atheist.
Point two is also flawed in assuming person = thinking. I consider infants people. They fit perfectly under the definition. Can you support the claim as to the reason atheist requiring thinking to be part of the definition?
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Now you say, flat head screwdrivers aren't people. So, tell us, why is people-hood is a criteria? Because only people think. But babies don't think! It is not being people Alone that makes one an atheist, it is being people + rejecting belief in God.if you say babies are atheists, then it must be only their people-hood causing them to be atheist, for they have rejected nothing! That is on its face illogical.
This is a blatant strawman, you repeatedly assert rejection as a requirement. Being an atheist requires being a person + not believing in a god. This is made clear by the definition. Atheist: A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods. Notice there is no need to reject the existence of a god or gods. Simply to lack belief in the existence of a god or gods. We agree infants are people, we seem to agree that infants don't believe in god. This makes them atheists. No where does it specify a need for rejection, knowledge of or even ability to comprehend the concept of gods, merely that they be people who don't believe in gods.
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@ethang5
Then the White House is an atheist. You can't have your cake and eat it too. Your own definition specifies the rejection as a condition.
Are you asserting the White House is a person? Because the definition of atheist clearly states being a person as a criteria.
Then trees and platypuses do too. Your definition said rejection of a belief in God or gods was a criteria. A rejection requires knowledge of. Babies do not meet the criteria
No not once does it state rejection is necessary. Being a person is necessary, which none of the above are. Disbelief or lack of belief is necessary. Lack of belief doesn't require rejection of the claim.
Then flat head screwdrivers are atheists too!Now you say, flat head screwdrivers aren't people. So, tell us, why is people-hood is a criteria? Because only people think. But babies don't think! It is not being people Alone that makes one an atheist, it is being people + rejecting belief in God.if you say babies are atheists, then it must be only their people-hood causing them to be atheist, for they have rejected nothing! That is on its face illogical.If you think the only criteria is not having a belief in god, then frisbees are atheists, for your criteria of people-hood must be coherant. In other words, why must an atheist be a people? Do you have an answer?
Of course, it's because it is the discussion of humanity that is relevant. The debate of and search for religion is by all evidence a deeply human enterprise. Infants are humans. They lack belief in gods, so they are atheist, if that changes or not depends entirely on if they should ever come to accept as true the existence of a god or gods. To not recognise them as atheists would be to either force beliefs upon them or reject their humanity, I will do neither.
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@3RU7AL
If you don't believe in a god then I'd say you fall into the definition of atheist. Being an atheist isn't concerned with the belief of any claim of gods non-existence, but with the belief in gods existence.
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Three things...1. There is no known instance of life ever starting without prior life
This neither removes the possibility of such an instance nor shows intelligence must be involved.
2. Man has not been able to create life at all
So the only example we have of intelligence hasn't been able to create life and this is evidence that life must require an intelligence to form? How does this prove the necessity of an intelligence at all? It really only seems to show what we can't do.
3. Life makes, uses, and adapts information, and information creation & manipulation requires intelligence.
I agree that life creates and manipulates information if you define information as
"What is conveyed or represented by a particular arrangement or sequence of things."
Then however I would ask why that requires an intelligence? What would prevent natural processes forming and manipulating such sequences?
Without the information in DNA/RNA, life cannot start. Without life, we cannot have DNA/RNA. It's simple and intuitive.
Again we derive information from sequences, nothing seems to suggest these sequences. Why must these sequences be formed by an intelligence?
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No sir. Being people and rejecting a belief in the existence of a god or gods, makes people atheists. No one is atheist simply because they exist.
Atheist: A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods
Nowhere does this definition state that one may know of god or gods, nor does it state anything about rejection of any claim.
Of course not. One is illogical and the other is irrelevant.
The first that an infant is a person is relevant to defining if they're atheists, as it's a criteria that must be met to be an atheist.
The statement that infants lack belief in the existence of a god or gods is also true. We can establish this because either by establishing that they cannot believe or because they don't know the concept of god or gods.
Infants fit all the criteria to be defined as atheists, why this would please or displease anyone I have no idea, but it is the only conclusion that makes sense given the above definition of atheist.
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@ethang5
So what? Infants have not rejected belief in god.
An atheist isn't necessarily someone who has rejected belief in god. An atheist is simply a person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods. Rejection is not required for that definition to apply knowledge of the claim isn't necessary for that definition to apply. Infants are people.
Tautology. They have no belief in anything and cannot have beliefs in anything. Saying of a baby, "It doesn't have belief in the existence of a god or gods is silliness when a baby cannot have belief in the existence of a god or gods.
The statement that infants lack belief in the existence of a god or gods is meaningful to this discussion. It directly Impacts if they meet the criteria necessary to be an atheist. So far we have established that we agree they're people. This leaves us to determine if they disbelieve or lack belief in the existence of a god or gods. It is directly relevant to the determination of if they are atheists or not. Since we seem to be in agreement that they don't believe a god or gods exists. We now simply seem to be discussing if their not believing is meaningful. For the purpose of determining if they're atheist, I would say very much so. Their lack of belief in the existence in a god or gods is what makes them atheists.
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@3RU7AL
Please present your personally preferred definition of "ATHEIST".
A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods.
All it takes to be an atheist by definition is to not believe in the existence of a god or gods. Anyone who believes a god or gods exist isn't an atheist. They neither lack belief nor disbelieve in the existence of a god or gods.
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@EtrnlVw
That's easy, so we would use common sense and correlation. The universe is constructed through a succession of processes, processes are associated with intelligence or agency
This doesn't follow.
To be clear I would agree that the universe contains and likely develops through processes (using the specific dictionary definition of processes as a change through time), or as the interaction of forces. I don't feel you have in any way shown that all processes involve intelligence. To avoid miscommunication can you give me your definition of process please?
Here's a good way to consider it, every time you observe energy you observe awareness, every time you observe awareness you observe energy. Basically they co-exist. I can make that claim simply by how energy acts within our universe.
And what about the way energy acts demonstrates awareness? How do you determine that energy must possess or be guided by an intelligence?
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@ethang5
...nothing has been presented to me that would demonstrate the necessity of a creator.Life doesn't?
Not in any demonstrable way no. What about life necessitates a creator (for the sake of clarity here I am being colloquial and mean an intelligent creator). Most of the arguments I've heard are essentially arguments from ignorance. How do you propose life demonstrates the necessity of an intelligence in its formation?
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@ethang5
Tautology in reference to a baby. Babies cannot accept or not accept any preposition.
Infants are specific human beings. This makes them people. They don't have belief in the existence of a god or gods (trees I suspect also lack belief in god as does anything that doesn't believe a god or gods exists) being both people and not believing in the existence of a god or gods makes Infants atheists.
The religious leanings of the authors are immaterial. I've shown that babies do NOT qualify under of the definition YOU offered. Your definition required atheists to have had NOT accepted as true (believe) the existence of a god or gods. Babies have NOT done that. Babies are not atheists because they have not NOT accepted as true (believe) the existence of a god or gods, a requirements of being an atheist by your definition.
Which of the following do you assert is false?
Infants do not believe in the existence of a god or gods.
Infants are people.
You keep skirting that directly relevant question. Do you agree with those statements?
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@3RU7AL
Nah, to be an atheist you have to disbelieve or lack belief in the existence of a god or gods. Can't believe in the existence of something you believe to be real. They may reject the concept of god, they may hate the concept of god and they may take the position that if a god existed they'd refuse to worship, but if they don't believe then they're not atheist.
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@ethang5
Then babies are not atheists because they have not NOT accepted as true (believe) the existence of a god or gods! Even by your revised definition, babies do not qualify.
You're wrong. By the simple law of non-contradiction if they haven't accepted the existence of a god or gods as true then they have not accepted the existence of a god or gods as true. If they haven't accepted the existence of a god or gods as true then they do not believe in the existence of a god or gods. That means they lack belief in the existence of a god or gods.
Are unborn babies "people"?I bet you believe unborn babies are not people and thus are pro-abortion. So babies are " people" when you want to label them atheists, but not "people" when you want to kill them for your convenience.
This is a red herring. I'm not going to be drawn into a debate on abortion with you. I accept infants as people the only question now is do you?
The reason that atheists restrict the definition to "people" is because people think. A reasonable restriction. But babies don't think. And neither do trees. So then, why is the definition restricted to people? If not because of thinking, then why?If the restriction is due to the fact that only people think, then a baby cannot be included. Or perhaps you are saying babies magically become atheists the moment they exit the birth canal?
Firstly how do you propose atheists restrict the definition to people? I have used a dictionary definition. The Oxford dictionary certainly isn't an atheist, can you show that its authors were or is this just supposition.
I say infants are people do you disagree?
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Lack of belief is not the same as lack of belief in God. Once you add the words "in god" you've added content that needs to be understood. I can have lack of belief in general, but a lack of belief in fairies presupposes an understanding of that concept. This is simple to understand. For a baby to lack belief in God, it must have an understanding of God's existence. A baby therefore cannot deny the existence of God, or have a lack of belief in that. It simply does not know either way, and certainly has no understanding of existence or nonexistence.
No. You haven't presupposed understanding of the concept, you have simply specified which concept is being addressed. You don't need to know about fairies to lack belief in them, in fact you can't help but lack belief in fairies if you don't know of the concept. I mean how could they possibly not lack that belief if they don't know the concept they're believing in? You don't have a concept of fairies, gods, dragons or anything else for that matter, then you cannot have belief in them so you must lack belief in them. Same for their existence.
As for infants taking a philosophical position. They're not, being an atheist doesn't necessitate taking a philosophical position at all, atheists can take philosophical positions, there are philosophical positions that are atheistic, but an atheist is simply someone who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods, this doesn't need to be a philosophical position at all, they don't need to have any reason or argument, they simply need to disbelieve or lack belief. Babies if they lack belief in the existence of god fit the criteria.
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@EtrnlVw
To make this more clear, you should understand why the term atheist even exists. It's a term created in direct opposition to theist. One party says I believe God exists, the other party says I don't believe God exists (a lack of belief God exists). Both are a position...In other words, I don't have a belief that God exists, I believe that God does not exist.... that's not the same as having a neutral position. One believes and the other disbelieves, they are in contrast to one another. If there is no theism in a baby then there is no atheism in a baby, they are locked in a default position between the two. That's the simplest way I can break it down for you.
No, the term atheist defines someone who isn't a theist. There's a subtle but important difference. Namely atheist covers lack of belief, lack of belief doesn't require knowledge of the claim, only that the claim not be accepted as true. This is supported by the definition we have both accepted.
The misconception is coming from the misleading statement that atheism is to have lack of belief. But actually, more accurately they have disbelief in god, or a lack of belief in the existence of God as proposed by Theists (which a baby has no understanding of). A-theism is a counter position to Theism. A baby cannot have a counter position to theism, which is why they are agnostic if anything. But again, I take the position that they cannot have any philosophical stances at all. Intuition though, is an entirely different matter.
You have however accepted and used the definition of an atheist being a person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods. The misconception is actually coming from your misunderstanding of what lack means as defined by the oxford dictionary. To be without something is by the oxford dictionary definition to lack it. To lack belief in the existence of a god or gods is to be an atheist. So it follows that infants if they are unable to believe in a god or gods lack belief in the existence of a god or gods and that makes them atheists. You can twist and squirm around this as much as you like, but the fact is that we have been discussing all this time using a definition of atheism that certainly does include infants unless they believe gods exist... Or aren't people, I have no reason to believe either of those things, so short of moving goal posts and suddenly rejecting the definition we've been using for the duration of our discussion (and I clearly stated as the definition I was using in my original post) you have no argument against my position, which is fairly simple.
Infants are people who seem incapable of having a concept of god. Without the concept of god they are without (lack) belief in gods existence and so are atheists. This all follows clear definitions.
A baby cannot reason within themselves that they have no belief in God, or that they "lack" belief in God. They cannot reason that they have one, in order that a baby have a belief in God or have a lack of belief in God (disbelieve) they first must have an understanding of that concept. Having a "lack" of belief in the existence of God is the same as not believing in God, or disbelieving in God. That is why the term "disbelief" is within the definition. Disbelief or lack of belief are being used synonymously.
To lack something is to be without or deficient in. Why would the fact that they cannot reason within themselves prevent them from being without a belief in gods existence? You keep trying to twist that around, but being without belief in god means they lack belief in the existence of god, which fits nicely within the definition of an atheist. Why this is such a big deal for people I can't understand. It changes nothing, they no more or less believe in the existence of gods, they simply are atheists because they fit the definition of an atheist.
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@EtrnlVw
I'm asserting one must be aware of such a concept to either believe it or disbelieve it, and there is no such a thing as a lack of belief in God in a baby without first a belief in God. A baby cannot have a lack of belief in God because that asserts that a baby is deficient of something or does not have something....which creates a negative position. That's why there is a third category, a default position. Basically you have a scale, with atheism on the left, a neutral position in the middle and theism on the right. Because again, atheism cannot exist unless theism does. Both theism and atheism create such a contrast, and if there is a contrast of beliefs then that makes a middle ground.
Not true. Atheists can exist without theism or theists, if there are people who aren't theists then they are by definition atheists. They wouldn't know they were atheists, but they would fit the criteria to be atheists. They would be people who lack belief in god. I fail to see why this presents an issue for you. The Oxford dictionary defines an atheist as someone who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods. The Oxford dictionary defines lack as:
NOUN
mass nounusually lack of
- The state of being without or not having enough of something.‘there is no lack of entertainment aboard ship’
VERB
[WITH OBJECT]
- Be without or deficient in.‘the novel lacks imagination’
Note that both the definitions for lack given accept that to be without something is to lack it. Are you suggesting that the Oxford Dictionary isn't using the Oxford Dictionaries definition of lack in its definition or atheist? Or are you suggesting that we can not believe in god while also not being without that belief?
But that is how it is defined, "Disbelief or lack of belief in the existence of God or gods". My claim is that there cannot be a disbelief or a lack of that belief, which would require the missing of something. A baby is not missing a belief in God, they simply can't have belief either way. Again which is why we have a neutral category.
A baby is without belief in the existence of god.
VERB
[WITH OBJECT]
- Be without or deficient in.‘the novel lacks imagination’
so by definition, infants lack belief in the existence of god unless you are saying they believe in the existence of god.
They are not lacking anything, they are neither having nor missing something.
Then you wouldn't say that not having something is to be without it? You're really making some efforts at linguistic acrobatics at this point.
They neither have a belief nor a lack of belief. And lets not pretend that atheism is not defined as a disbelief.
I am pretending nothing. The fact is that by definition all that is required for one to be an atheist is that they be a person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of a god or gods, as defined by the Oxford dictionary. The oxford dictionary defines lack several ways, but they all include being without as sufficient. As such being a person and being without belief in the existence of god fits all the necessary criteria to be an atheist.
I'm saying there is a default position, with theism and atheism being positions.
If the default position is anything other than the belief in the existence of a god or gods then it's a lack of belief in the existence of a god or gods, using definitions I've shown above cited from the same source as the definition for atheism we've both been using for a while and is as such atheism.
to be deficient or missingto be short or have need of somethingdeficiency or absence of something neededsomething missing or neededA baby is not lacking belief in gods existence or disbelieving it, an atheist is. A baby is in a position of not missing anything, it is not lacking anything, and it does not disbelieve. It is agnostic if anything, do you make the claim agnosticism is not a usable term? if it is, could you please explain why a baby is not an agnostic?
Where did you get that definition of lack? Because as I've shown above the oxford dictionary definition is clear that being without something is to lack it. Since the definition of atheism I've been using is drawn from the definition in the Oxford dictionary and you seem to have been using the same definition, it stands to reason that the oxford dictionary's definition of lack is what they mean. Or do you suppose they use a different definition for lack?
Agnostic
NOUN
- A person who believes that nothing is known or can be known of the existence or nature of God.
Oxford Dictionary.
Notice that this is an active belief. Infants can't logically be agnostic any more than they can be theists unless they have a concept of god. Yet that can be without belief in the existence of any god, regardless of their knowledge of the concept of god. In fact if they have no concept of god, they can't help but be without belief in the existence of gods, that makes them atheists.
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@EtrnlVw
The term atheist cannot exist without the term theist, which is why we also use the term agnostic. That's three positions with one only being neutral, if a baby has no ability to reason wouldn't you put that baby in a neutral category? we have two categories here with one being a default position, the other two being that of chosen positions, or negative or positive....again the term atheist can only exist if I come along as a theist, every time I say hey! God exists (because of so and so), you say hey, no god exists (because of so and so). Before I came along and said God exists, there was a neutral category. Both atheism and theism are philosophical positions because there first needs to be the ability to reason.
The term atheist can't exist without the term theist sure. But if there are people then by definition atheists would have to exist if there were no theists, since there would be people who lacked belief in god. Lack as defined in the Oxford dictionary of English (the dictionary we're drawing the definition of atheist we've been using from I might add for the sake of consistency)
NOUN
mass noun usually lack of
- The state of being without or not having enough of something.‘there is no lack of entertainment aboard ship’
Or possibly.
VERB
[WITH OBJECT]
- Be without or deficient in.‘the novel lacks imagination’
Notice that both of those state that being without something is to lack it. How can someone not have a belief in the existence of god or gods and not be without said belief?
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@EtrnlVw
The term atheist cannot exist without the term theist, which is why we also use the term agnostic. That's three positions with one only being neutral, if a baby has no ability to reason wouldn't you put that baby in a neutral category?
I actually agree with this. Though not the way you mean. Again citing the Oxford dictionary an agnostic is a person who believes nothing is known or can be known of the existence or nature of god. Agnostism is separate from theism and atheism as it addresses knowledge not belief. It would ironically require one to have knowledge of the concept of god for them to believe we will never be able to know the nature or existence of God. Atheism however still only requires one not to believe gods exist.
we have two categories here with The term atheist cannot exist without the term theist, which is why we also use the term agnostic.
I agree with the highlighted section. The word atheist wouldn't exist without the word theist, since if we look at its etymology, then we see it means theist. However atheists could exist if there had never been a theist. We circle back around to what it means to lack belief. Surely we lack (are without) belief in anything we don't even have a concept of? Do you want to assert it is possible to believe in a thing you don't even have a concept of? Or do you disagree that to be without something is to lack it?
That's three positions with one only being neutral, if a baby has no ability to reason wouldn't you put that baby in a neutral category?
Yes, only atheism is neutral of the three positions, as it's the only one that doesn't require a positive or negative claim or position (theism is the claim god exists and agnosticism is the claim that we cannot know of gods nature or existence).
being a default position, the other two being that of chosen positions, or negative or positive....again the term atheist can only exist if I come along as a theist, every time I say hey! God exists (because of so and so), you say hey, no god exists (because of so and so).
Atheism isn't a negative position, it's simply the state of not taking the positive position in regards to the claims of gods existence. If you haven't heard the claim of gods existence. You cannot have taken a position and so are logically an atheist. To say that an atheist states 'no gods exist' isn't a necessity of atheism. All it takes is to lack belief. People who believe no god exists, people who don't accept either the positive or negative claim of gods existence and people who don't know of the concept of god are all atheists because they are all lacking in a belief of a god or gods.
Before I came along and said God exists, there was a neutral category. Both atheism and theism are philosophical positions because there first needs to be the ability to reason.
I have spoken with theists and atheists who have convinced me there doesn't need to be that much ability to reason on either side. That said. Atheism requires only that you're a person who lacks belief in the existence of a god. We come back to the same questions time and again.
If you don't have something, do you lack it?
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@EtrnlVw
We went over that already, to have a disbelief or a lack of belief there needs to be an understanding of God. As I wrote above, atheism is not a lack of belief, it is the lack of belief in gods.....see the difference there?
Are you asserting then that one can have belief in the existence of gods, if they're unaware of gods, or the concept of gods?
Correct, which is why a baby cannot be atheist lol. They have no concept of God, therefore they cannot have a disbelief.
I never said that they disbelieve in gods, simply that if they don't believe gods exist then by simple definition they lack belief in the existence of gods. To not lack belief in the existence of gods one must have belief in gods. Do you assert infants have belief in the existence of gods?
That's ridiculous....One has to be aware of the concept of God to reject that concept, or have a lack of belief in that concept, babies are not aware of concepts. That is why agnostic fits better. Because a baby simply doesn't know and are ignorant. Therefore atheism is not a default position. It is a chosen position, either by asserting or rejecting a belief.
I will say I agree with with that statement. Though when it comes to lack of belief, please be so kind as to answer a couple of questions.
Do you assert that infants have belief in the existence of a god or gods?
Do you accept that to be without a thing is to lack it?
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And that's precisely why babies are not atheists, a baby cannot choose to believe or disbelieve in Gods existence. They cannot have a lack of belief either obviously, because again, there first needs to be an understanding of what the counter position is.
Belief isn't passive, belief is active. Belief is (again according to the the Oxford dictionary)
1: An acceptance something exist or is true especially without one proof
1.1: Something one accepts as true or real a firmly held opinion.
1.2: A religious conviction.
2: (belief in) Trust, faith or confidence in (someone or something).
None of these positions are possible towards something you're unaware of.
Do you assert that infants have belief in god(s)?
If not then how do you propose they don't lack (The state of being without or not having enough of something.) belief?
No where does the definition of atheism require an atheist be aware that some people belive in god(s).
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@EtrnlVw
Atheism is the disbelief or lack of belief in a god or gods. This is atheism as defined by the Oxford dictionary of English an atheist is someone who lacks belief or disbelieves in the existence of a god or gods.
As such the traits necessary to be an atheist are to be a person and to lack belief or disbelief in a god or gods. To assert that infants aren't atheist would require the claim that infants aren't people, are aware of the concept of god (and accept it as true), or that it's possible to believe in something without being aware of the concept of it. This is of course a semantic argument. There seems to be a group of people who refuse to accept that by definition of the Oxford Dictionary of English anyone who doesn't actively believe in a god is an atheist. The real question does anyone assert infants believe in god(s)? If not then by my definition (the one in the Oxford dictionary), they are atheists.
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@Tradesecret
Evidence for me would be anything that shows by necessity the natural world required an intelligence to create it. To be clear, I said by necessity. I don't in any way insist there is no god, only that nothing has been presented to me that would demonstrate the necessity of a creator.
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@RoderickSpode
Let's just say for the sake of argument, there were common ancestors. With which common ancestor would the superstition, and God concept begin with?
I don't know and it's immaterial. If we assume common ancestors, then we can logically conclude that at some point one of them had the concept of god for the first time. If you want to assert that can only have been so if it was given to them by god, then I ask can you show that this is the case? If it could have formed without revelation from a god, then why is it unreasonable to consider that a possibility?
The only concern in the animal kingdom is food, sex, and sleep. Some animal infants are lucky if their parents nurture them instead of eat them.So logically the further we would go back in the alleged evolutionary chain, the less likely of any concern outside of basic needs and pleasure.
This is again immaterial. Would you agree that humans are capable of having ideas? Would you say it's possible for humans to create complex fictions? If so, then why couldn't a humanity entirely devoid of the concept of gods imagined their way to that concept on their own? What relevance does our ability or inability to pin point when we became capable of conceiving of god have to do with the question of if babies are atheists?
Do claim babies believe in a god?
Do you accept babies are people?
If God didn't exist, I would say the earliest humans would have less thought of a creator than a john in Amsterdam
Sure, but that's your opinion. We know that people can imagine. We know that we can come up with ideas that are either true or false (intentionally or otherwise) and that people can believe ideas, regardless of if they are true or not.
Why is it so implausible a position to consider that early humans anthropomorphised the world around them? We anthroporphise a great deal after all.
As for why they'd take the time, the world was scary and dangerous and brutal. Don't you think the idea that intelligence and powerful beings that bring good and bad events into our lives wouldn't have been more comforting than the idea that disasters were simply beyond their control? At least with a being doing it we can hope to bargain or at least find reason to the events.
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No, because the OD is giving a definition in the "scope" of our society, where thinking people either choose, or reject the IDEA of God or gods. If there isn't even an IDEA of God or gods, then a person cannot be said to be atheist. Babies are just that. A-THEIST makes no sense if there aren't THEISTS.
This seems very much a semantic argument. It would be true that if no one were to ever have presented a concept of god(s), then it would be true that no one would be called an atheist, the term wouldn't exist. Yet that wouldn't mean they weren't atheists. They would still be people who lack belief in god(s). You don't need to self-identify to be an atheist, you simply need to not believe in gods. I would like to think that we can both agree infants are people? If so then the only question is do they believe in god(a) ? I have seen no evidence to show that they do.
As for rejecting the idea that an atheist would ever become a theist, or that no one would have originally thought up a concept of primitive gods due to superstition and a tendency to anthropomorphism. Is there a reason this is an unreasonable assumption?
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@ethang5
A more concise answer for why trees aren't atheists. An atheist is
A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of God or gods.
Trees aren't people.
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@ethang5
Then you're asserting it's possible to believe in something that you have no concept of?
If not then any person (human being) who doesn't have a concept of god or gods lacks belief in gods and is by definition an atheist. The only requirement for one to be an atheist is to be a person and to not accept as true (believe) the existence of a god or gods.
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@RoderickSpode
This depends on your definition of atheist. I am English, the definition of Atheist that I grew up with, used and continue to use was derived from the Oxford dictionary as someone who lacks belief or disbelieves in the existence of a god or gods. By that definition, it would certainly seem that people start off as atheists until they're introduced to the conncept of a god or gods.
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@n8nrgmi
No, I've already given you another explanation, one that you simply ignore, why couldn't it be similar brains processing information through similar filters (cultural beliefs/stories) results in similar outcomes? Why isn't this a logical and reasonable explanation?
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@n8nrgmi
Or as I've already said, the human brains are similar and draw on similar cultural information to interpret something they cannot accurately interpret (the information generated by a dying brain). You keep ignoring the possibility without having ever addressed it isn't valid, which was my question to begin. Until you can address that then my question will be the same and valid.
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@n8nrgmi
I notice you still can't actually address the question. Why is it necessary for a 'story' to be 'embedded' in a brain for it to respond to stimulation. There is more than one experience that is an NDE, there isn't one story that everyone or even the vast majority of people see. These break downs seem to fall into cultural groups, so why is it not possible or even likely that when the brain receives confusing information to the part responsible for receiving sensory information it draws on cultural cues and memories to try and make sense of it. There's no need to have any 'story' 'embedded' in the brain if this model is assumed, only that the brain is capable of processing sensory information that isn't generated by the senses (since we know people can hallucinate this seems hard to argue) and that the human brain is able to connect the information it receives with information it has stored.
As for studies, look at the study Resuscitation. It is the largest study undertaken on the subject to my knowledge. It suggests that survivors of NDE's undergo a broad range of themes. Now it does point out that some two percent are aware and conscious. This is fascinating and warrants open-minded investigation. It could be that it will reveal the soul, but as far as I can see, it could also show just how incomplete our understanding of the human brain truly is. Ultimately, you still sit on the problem of not having shown anything about NDE's that prove a soul is necessary. I have yet to hear of one case of revival of someone whose brain is completely inactive (including the brain stem) has ever been revived. If not then why must the soul be part of the equation?
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@ludofl3x
Sounds pretty reasonable to me.
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@3RU7AL
Possibly, though their consciousness during NDE's and the actual existence of what they see is far more in question than the in universe Vorlons.
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@n8nrgmi
"you think there's elaborate stories embedded in our brain when we're dying. that, on it's face, is far fetched. why not just take it for what it looks like? people die and experience something that looks like the after life. it's plain evidence but atheists are too dense to acknowledge it. "
The first sentence of this is a strawman. I haven't once said I think there're stories embedded in the brain at all. In fact, I've addressed why that isn't my position. My position is to question why NDE's couldn't just be the brain processing stimulus as always, only in this case the stimulus isn't caused by the senses as is standard. You haven't actually said why this is far fetched only that you think it is. Why is it far fetched to think NDE's are the brain processing activity within the brain? Why do you insist this must require an 'embedded story' When as I've stated, many different stories of NDE's exist? You simply swung at a strawman, one that had already been addressed. Have the common decency to address what I'm actually saying please.
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@n8nrgmi
No. What I ask, is why you dismiss the possibility that human brains being very similar process the information that goes through them when near to death and extremely active in similar ways? Note there's not a single NDE experience, there are similar traits, but these seem dependent on belief, culture and age. Studies suggest children see loved ones more than most, Indians often report seeing Hindu gods and Americans Jesus. Some people have out of body experiences others don't. Some experiences are positive, some negative some experience what they perceive as oblivion. With all this variation, why rule out the possibility that it's not simply the brain drawing on cultural data (it's usually stored a lot of that by the time of an NDE) to interpret the massive activity taking place.
As for why it seems real, why wouldn't it? If the brain is processing the same activity as it would when it sees a picture, hears music or smells flowers why would it matter if the senses caused that activity or not? Why would it change how real it appears?
I notice you haven't actually addressed why any of these positions aren't valid. You may ask 'how can you know they're correct' without addressing how you know they're invalid, to which I will answer honestly. I don't, my position, however, is that NDE's can't be shown as evidence for a soul as long as there are explanations that are valid that are explanations for NDE's.
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