Determinism vs Free Will

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@Athias
Galen pointed out that immaterialism/materialism and determinism/indeterminism aren't relevant. It's claiming that those thing matter that are merely a claim. It's special pleading to just say that if you're an indetermined immaterial soul then that's not what you are. In fact, if that's what you are then that's what you are. Far from just being a claim, that's a tautology. If you do what you do because of what you are and you are X then you do what you do because of X. It doesn't matter whether X is indeterministic or immaterial or not. If you do Y because of X then you do Y because X ... regardless of the nature of X. What do you mean "What does the way were are" mean? We are the way we are regardless  of materialism, immaterialism, determinism or indeterminism.

Schopenhauer may not agree with the entirety of Galen's position but he did say that we cannot choose our motives and he also said that motives are causes from within ... and that's suffering that Galen would agree with. Also, it's irrelevant what a particular philosopher thought or didn't think about X if X is sound.

What do you mean "How can he allege that it's not causi sui"? Galen says that Libertarian Free Will would have to require that. The reason why it's not reasonable is because it would require an infinite regress of causation and we are not infinite beings. We would have to always require a further cause and we'd never reach free will. He's offering an infinite regress argument against free will. 

Libertarian Free Will requires a sort of ultimate SELF-determinism. In other words, we'd have to be the ultimate cause of ourselves. So neither us being ultimately caused by other things (determinism) nor us being uncaused (indeterminism) will suffice.

And the reason why Galen Strawson refuses to define the mind as a materially closed system is because like he said ... giving us indeterminism and a soul won't help either. If that's what we are then that won't help. You ask what it means to say "the way we are" in such a case but I will instead ask "What does it even mean to say that "the way we are" only makes sense in a materially closed system?".

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@Athias
Where did you ascertain this definition? Or did you conceive it yourself?
I'm willing to move forward with any definition you personally prefer.

However, if you select "a free action is one that is un-coerced" keep in mind that is the compatibalist's definition and a compatibalist is a determinist (or indeterminist).

Libertarian free will means that our choices are free from the determination or constraints of human nature and free from any predetermination by God.

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@Athias
Once again: that depends on how one defines random. So how do you define random?
I'm willing to move forward with any definition you personally prefer.
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@simplybeourselves
Galen pointed out that immaterialism/materialism and determinism/indeterminism aren't relevant. It's claiming that those thing matter that are merely a claim. It's special pleading to just say that if you're an indetermined immaterial soul then that's not what you are. In fact, if that's what you are then that's what you are. Far from just being a claim, that's a tautology. If you do what you do because of what you are and you are X then you do what you do because of X. It doesn't matter whether X is indeterministic or immaterial or not. If you do Y because of X then you do Y because X ... regardless of the nature of X. What do you mean "What does the way were are" mean? We are the way we are regardless  of materialism, immaterialism, determinism or indeterminism.

And yet somehow he's arguing that X, which is the way we are, is not self-caused and independent of agency. So then that begs the question: what causes "what we are"? And when the interviewer presses his response, he argues it irrelevant (i.e. genetics or immaterial soul doesn't matter.) And he continues to posit that "the way we are" is not "causa sui" but doesn't define the constitution of "the way we are." The way we are is a spurious a priori at this point because it has yet to be substantiated. And there's no tautological dispute here: I'm not attempting a contradiction of the way we are being the way we are. I'm asking, "what is the way that we are"?


Schopenhauer may not agree with the entirety of Galen's position but he did say that we cannot choose our motives and he also said that motives are causes from within ... and that's suffering that Galen would agree with. Also, it's irrelevant what a particular philosopher thought or didn't think about X if X is sound.
No it's not. I'm not arguing that Schopenhauer's thoughts qualify the veracity of Strawson's premise. (I don't know how you got that from my statement.) I'm merely refuting that Strawson's position resembles Schopenhauer's. And in that context, it is relevant.
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@Athias
'We do what we do because of the way we are' is a premise that you can accept or reject ... not a question begged. For it to beg the question it would have to be synonymous with the conclusion but it isn't.

To cause the way we are we *would* have to be the cause of ourselves but we can't be the cause of ourselves. 

It really doesn't matter what the nature of way we are is if we do what we do because of the way we are.

By asking "What is the way we are?" I have to just again ask in response "How is that relevant?". Again, how is the nature of X relevant when X is the cause of what we do and we can't be the cause of X?

I didn't say that Strawson's position perfectly resembles Schopenhauer's. I'm saying that it resembles it in the relevant sense. Namely, that our motives are causes from within and that we can do what we will but we can't will what we will. *That* is part of Schopenhauer's position that Strawson is very much in agreement with and *that* is the relevant resemblance. 

What's more, why did you say "no" in response to me saying that it doesn't matter what a philosopher thinks of X if X is sound? Do you not agree that if X is sound then X is sound regardless of what another philosopher thinks of X in such a case? Who cares what Schopenahauer thinks in such a case, anyway, if X is sound anyway. The part about Schopenhauer was just part of the quote from Wikipedia. It was really Strawson's argument from that page that was important ... and I just try to not leave out context  that I'm quoting from.
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@3RU7AL
@3RU7AL:

What do you think of this description?:

The Libertarian view - According to libertarianism, the idea that God causesmen to act in a certain way, but that man has free will in acting that way islogically false. Free means uncaused. Man has free will, and his decisions areinfluenced, but not caused. God limits the actions of men, but not their mind orwill. Man has the ability to turn to God in Christ and sincerely ask for help,selfishly perhaps, apart from specific (special) divine enablement. According toArminianism, God, in his freedom, not only sets a condition on salvation andwills only to save those who would ask Him to rescue them. God, then,predestines those who He "foreknew" to salvation. Or, according to Open Theism,God is anxiously waiting to see what each person will do, for he cannot knowahead of time what the choice might be.
By the way, this is from your cited link. (Of course, this description would undermine the argument for God's omniscience.) There's a disconnect between this description and yours:

However, if you select "a free action is one that is un-coerced" keep in mind that is the compatibalist's definition and a compatibalist is a determinist (or indeterminist).

Libertarian free will means that our choices are free from the determination or constraints of human nature and free from any predetermination by God.
When you argue "free from" are you using it in a context where its synonymous with "uninfluenced"?

And if God grants us free will, then is there any "predetermination"?

I'm willing to move forward with any definition you personally prefer.
You submitted your premises. It's only appropriate that you submit their definitions.
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@Athias
Free means uncaused.
How would you justify hair-splitting between "uncaused" and "uninfluenced"??
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@simplybeourselves
'We do what we do because of the way we are' is a premise that you can accept or reject ... not a question begged.
That's not the question begged. I take no issue accepting the premise that we do that which we do by reason of the way we are. I'm asking, what is the way that we are? Is it a composite of personal experiences? Is it genetically influenced behaviors? Is it perspective? All of the above? And how does it necessarily exclude assuming moral responsibility? 

To cause the way we are we *would* have to be the cause of ourselves but we can't be the cause of ourselves. 
Why not? Presuming of course we're not discussing anything corporeal.

By asking "What is the way we are?" I have to just again ask in response "How is that relevant?". Again, how is the nature of X relevant when X is the cause of what we do and we can't be the cause of X?
Because you're (Strawson's) arguing that X excludes free will. And you haven't substantiated  the reason we can't be the cause of X. Hence, the nature of X is important because understanding its nature helps us understands its cause where we can render conclusions soundly on that which causes or does not cause X.

I didn't say that Strawson's position perfectly resembles Schopenhauer's. I'm saying that it resembles it in the relevant sense. Namely, that our motives are causes from within and that we can do what we will but we can't will what we will. *That* is part of Schopenhauer's position that Strawson is very much in agreement with and *that* is the relevant resemblance. 
Yes, they can agree on certain points, but that is not the same as resembling a position. Schopenhauer would be a proponent of free will for the reason I mentioned. I don't disagree with all of Strawson's points either, but that doesn't mean that my positions reflects his. Strawson's third premise especially is unsubstantiated, and he doesn't define "what we are." And until he does, there are no grounds for him to exclude one's being responsible.

What's more, why did you say "no" in response to me saying that it doesn't matter what a philosopher thinks of X if X is sound?
Because the context of my response doesn't concern the veracity of Strawson's premise, only whether it resembled Schopenhauer's position--sound or not. I'm not stating that by reason of Schopenhauer's agreement with the contrary, Strawson's premise, X, is therefore false. I'm stating that by reason of Schopenhauer's agreement with the contrary, Strawson's position doesn't resemble Schopenhauer's. That's all.

Do you not agree that if X is sound then X is sound regardless of what another philosopher thinks of X in such a case?
Yes, I agree. My agreement would be irrelevant to veracity. You're doing what I was doing: confirming agreement, and nothing more.

Who cares what Schopenahauer thinks in such a case, anyway, if X is sound anyway.
You're the one who injected Schopenhauer in the first place. I'm merely responding.
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@Athias
When you argue "free from" are you using it in a context where its synonymous with "uninfluenced"?
I'm unable to decipher a meaningful distinction between the two.
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@Athias
I'm willing to move forward with any definition you personally prefer.
You submitted your premises. It's only appropriate that you submit their definitions.
ran•dom răn′dəm

  • adj.
    Having no specific pattern, purpose, or objective: synonymchance.

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@3RU7AL
How would you justify hair-splitting between "uncaused" and "uninfluenced"??


I'm unable to decipher a meaningful distinction between the two.

ran•dom răn′dəm

  • adj.
    Having no specific pattern, purpose, or objective: synonymchance.

This is the response I intended to ascertain. Because they (adherents of Libertarian free will) argue that their decisions can be influenced but not caused. So then, what do they mean by "influence" and what do they mean by "cause"? I suppose one could argue that cause is the source, and influence is the effect of alteration. But then that begs the question: does the alteration effect become the cause of the altered event? That depends. Does one attribute transitively the altered event to the original cause, or does one attribute the altered event to the response of the object? What do you think?
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@3RU7AL

..." Libertarian free will means that our choices are free from the determination or constraints of human nature and free from any predetermination by God."...

By "God" they really mean Universe and there is no true random-ness of Universe because it is all cause and effect, i.e. humans say random-ness, or disorder, or chaos, when they cannot find the order.

When they cant find the order, they may begin to act erratically and without rational, logical common sense.  I see plenty of that at DArt.



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Order of many kinds/types.

Ex 1...2...3...4...5...6 is a linear and sequential

2...4...6....3....1...5...1 is not sequentially position, yet we know that 2 follows 1so we can still draw/have lines-of-relationship that follow sequence but do not appear visually  sequential.  Ex See LINK.....get over it, your and adult now.

That link shows more than one line of relationship from one nodal point, so it is not exactly what I mean but the a similar idea is one line-of-relationship between 1 and 2 irrespective of the pathway it takes to arrive there, then same for 2 -3 and the 3 - 4 etc.

It is kinds of like, maybe some childs game of connect the dots.  It is and order, and what happens, is adults can only see it as out of order, when what they really miss is that is an order, just not the order they wish to see.  Too bad.  It aint easy becoming a mature adult, when you think you may have to resort to childish connect the dot games.

Get over it connect the dots in sequence, wherever they appear.
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@Athias
This is the response I intended to ascertain. Because they (adherents of Libertarian free will) argue that their decisions can be influenced but not caused. So then, what do they mean by "influence" and what do they mean by "cause"? I suppose one could argue that cause is the source, and influence is the effect of alteration.

But then that begs the question: does the alteration effect become the cause of the altered event?

That depends. Does one attribute transitively the altered event to the original cause, or does one attribute the altered event to the response of the object? What do you think?
Any modification to a "cause" must itself also have a "cause".

The term "self-caused" is incoherent.

A human brain is not a closed system.

Your actions are "caused" by "something" (your genetics (physical and mental capabilities and instincts), your primary experiences (firmware) and your life experiences and education (software).

The only alternative is RANDOM (which cannot be "will").
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@3RU7AL
..."The only alternative is RANDOM (which cannot be "will")."...

And does not exist. It is like saying there exists an infinite set of baseballs. No, there does not exist an infinite set of baseballs, or indeterminate free will, only a really good illusion of free will.


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That's not the question begged. I take no issue accepting the premise that we do that which we do by reason of the way we are. I'm asking, what is the way that we are? Is it a composite of personal experiences? Is it genetically influenced behaviors? Is it perspective? All of the above? And how does it necessarily exclude assuming moral responsibility? 
So what is the supposed question begged, then?

If you accept the premise then it simply doesn't matter what the way we are is. If we do what we do because of the  way we are then we can't make ourselves the way we are because we can't get back behind ourselves. Whether we are material, immaterial, determined or undetermined it  simply does not matter. So your question isn't relevant.

A strong sort of moral responsibility is excluded because a strong sort of free will is excluded. In order to have ultimate moral responsibility and Libertarian Free Will we would have to get back behind X but we can't get back behind X. X's nature is irrelevant because the point is that *whatever X is* we would have to get back behind it in order to have such a kind of free will and responsiiblity but we can't. 


Because you're (Strawson's) arguing that X excludes free will. And you haven't substantiated  the reason we can't be the cause of X. Hence, the nature of X is important because understanding its nature helps us understands its cause where we can render conclusions soundly on that which causes or does not cause X.
  The argument itself is clearly substantiated by the fact that an infinite regress happens whereby we can never get back behind ourselves to make ourselves the way we are. You just keep asking an irrelevant question when you're asking me to substantiate what our nature actually is and asking me "What is the way we are?". It's not relevant. You would have to substantiate the relevance of that question first but you can't substantiate it because we can't get back behind ourselves to make ourselves the way we are *regardless of what the way we are is*. It has absolutely nothing to do with whatever nature we happen to have and everything to do with the fact that we can't get back behind that nature *whatever it is* to make it.

We can't be the ultimate *cause o*f our nature, *regardless* of what our nature is, because it leads to an infinite regress where we would never be able to ultimately cause our nature ... and asking "What is our nature?" has no relevance. It's a red herring.  

I'm going to drop the whole Schopenhauer thing because it's not important and you have conceded that it resembles Strawson's position in some ways which is all I thought to begin with anyway.

Also, we are never going to agree if you think that Schopenhauer is a proponent of free will because that is just absolutely false. It's not a matter of what he 'would be' for the reason you personally think. It's actually the case that he *was* famously well known for being very clearly an *opponent of* free will.  It seems that you want to disagree for the sake of disagreeing. If you are going to claim that the philosopher who is most famously a pessimist isn't a pessimist ... then that's just silly and the arguing for the sake of it in face of all evidence to the contrary.

What's more, even if you could muster up an argument for why Schopenahauer was a *compatabilist* ... that would just be yet another red herring. Because that is not the sense of free will that is being argued against.

So after conceding that Schopenhauer's position resembles Strawson's in some ways you still insist that the two positions don't resemble each other. You're contradicting yourself. What's more, you clearly don't know what Schopenhauer's position on free will is if you think he is a proponent of Libertarian Free Will.  Both Strawson and Schopenhauer offer similar arguments *against* Libertarian Free Will and *that* is all I mean by the fact that their positions resemble each other. The fact that you accept that they resemble each other in *some* ways is already enough to get to similarity.

Anyway, back to Strawson. I think we should move on from Schopenhauer because it's not important and I'm far more interested in us focussing on the actual argument I offered. 

You say that Strawson's third premise is especially substantiated but he substantiated that very clearly in the video that you watched. He also made it clear that the argument I gave, and that he started of with in the video, is the 'crude' version. Meaning that, the purpose of that basic argument isn't to substantiate the premises. An argument isn't supposed to substantiate its own premises. To substantiate the premises for an argument you need another argument. Arguments don't substantiate themselves. 

He went into detail about how for us to *ultimately* make ourselves the way that we are we would have to get back behind ourselves infinitely ... a regress happens whereby we can never ultimately get back behind ourselves to make ourselves the way we are. He made this all very clear in the video. He substantiated the argument just fine.

Because the context of my response doesn't concern the veracity of Strawson's premise, only whether it resembled Schopenhauer's position--sound or not. 
This isn't an answer to the question and it seems that you just misspoke by saying "no" to the question because you say the opposite below.

Yes, I agree. My agreement would be irrelevant to veracity. You're doing what I was doing: confirming agreement, and nothing more.
I don't agree with you that Schopenhauer believed in Libertarian Free Will (and if your point is that you think that he believed in Compatabilist free will then that's a red herring), I don't agree that Schopenhauer's position doesn't resemble Strawson's (and you conceded that they do partially resemble each other ... and I never claimed that they wholly did) .... and they both do offer similar arguments against Libertarian Free Will. It's pointless for us to argue about how much position A has to resemble position B for them to count as resembling. There was no point in you arguing about Schopenhauer anyway because the topic of the thread is whether free will exists and I was offering an argument against free will. So that is what we should be focussing on. 

Again, the only reason I left that part about Schopenhauer in is because I like to give more rather than less context of the source I'm quoting from. Strawson's argument is the only important part. You happen to be wrong about Schopenhauer, as he is famously against Libertarian Free Will, but it's really not important or even relevant to actually addressing Strawson's argument.

You're the one who injected Schopenhauer in the first place. I'm merely responding.
I already dealt with this prior to you saying this. Again, I was just trying to not leave out the context from where I was quoting from. It's a great vice to quote mine so I didn't want to do that. I already explained this. The actual argument that Strawson provided is clearly what needs to be addressed because that's actually an argument against free will that has been offered.

And you're not merely responding ... you're responding with red herrings!
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@3RU7AL
Any modification to a "cause" must itself also have a "cause".
So to what do you attribute the modification? The action or the response? I believe that free-will adherents do not deny the the presence of stimuli (influence;) if I've interpreted correctly, they're arguing that their response, which falls within their capacity, is chiefly responsible in their decision-making.

The term "self-caused" is incoherent.
Why?

A human brain is not a closed system.
Elaborate.

Your actions are "caused" by "something" (your genetics (physical and mental capabilities and instincts), your primary experiences (firmware) and your life experiences and education (software).
Does that something necessarily exclude a/the "self?"

The only alternative is RANDOM (which cannot be "will").
Is it then, for example, for someone to willfully engage in random behavior?



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@simplybeourselves
So what is the supposed question begged, then?
What is the way that we are?

If you accept the premise then it simply doesn't matter what the way we are is. If we do what we do because of the  way we are then we can't make ourselves the way we are because we can't get back behind ourselves.
Neither you nor Strawson has substantiated the reason that "we can't make ourselves the way we are." You're merely positing a "spurious a priori" under the presumption that the manifestation of the self is linear. As of now, at least as far as this discussion is concerned, it is nothing more than a claim. Provide substance to your posit.

A strong sort of moral responsibility is excluded because a strong sort of free will is excluded. In order to have ultimate moral responsibility and Libertarian Free Will we would have to get back behind X but we can't get back behind X. X's nature is irrelevant because the point is that *whatever X is* we would have to get back behind it in order to have such a kind of free will and responsiiblity but we can't. 
This is redundant. You merely repeated your argument as the reason for exclusion. Why is a "strong sort" of free will necessary for moral responsibility? Why do we have to get back behind X to assume moral responsibility? Why can't we get back behind X? Why do we have to get behind X in order to have free will? Don't merely assert; substantiate.

The argument itself is clearly substantiated by the fact that an infinite regress happens whereby we can never get back behind ourselves to make ourselves the way we are. You just keep asking an irrelevant question when you're asking me to substantiate what our nature actually is and asking me "What is the way we are?". It's not relevant.

Once again, redundant. You continue to repeat the argument as if the argument itself substantiates the argument.

You would have to substantiate the relevance of that question first but you can't substantiate it because we can't get back behind ourselves to make ourselves the way we are *regardless of what the way we are is*.
A question is an inquiry. It doesn't require substantiation. Its relevance is substantiated because it directly inquires into the content of the premise. I'm not asking you about cotton candy. I'm asking you to elaborate on the nature of the way that we are to explore and either confirm or reject the validity of the third premise.


It has absolutely nothing to do with whatever nature we happen to have and everything to do with the fact that we can't get back behind that nature *whatever it is* to make it.
Why not? And why must we get back behind that nature? Why does an "infinite regress" as you put restrict one's capacity to be responsible for the way one is? At what point does the self, or the "way that we are," begin? And if there's an infinite regression, would that not suggest that the way one is has always been?

We can't be the ultimate *cause o*f our nature, *regardless* of what our nature is, because it leads to an infinite regress where we would never be able to ultimately cause our nature ... and asking "What is our nature?" has no relevance.
Substantiate. (And don't repeat your argument--I know what it is already.)

I'm going to drop the whole Schopenhauer thing because it's not important and you have conceded that it resembles Strawson's position in some ways which is all I thought to begin with anyway.
I never conceded that to you. This is what I stated:

Yes, they can agree on certain points, but that is not the same as resembling a position. Schopenhauer would be a proponent of free will for the reason I mentioned. I don't disagree with all of Strawson's points either, but that doesn't mean that my positions reflects his.
But if you intend to drop the argument, then I have no objections.

Also, we are never going to agree if you think that Schopenhauer is a proponent of free will because that is just absolutely false. It's not a matter of what he 'would be' for the reason you personally think. It's actually the case that he *was* famously well known for being very clearly an *opponent of* free will.
My reasons are no more "personal" than yours. Examine my statement again:

Schopenhauer believed that one could reorient their perspective on the nature of experience, rather than extend the prejudices of culture.
Where did I inject my personal thoughts?

What's more, even if you could muster up an argument for why Schopenahauer was a *compatabilist* ... that would just be yet another red herring. Because that is not the sense of free will that is being argued against.
You're positing this argument against straw men.

So after conceding that Schopenhauer's position resembles Strawson's in some ways you still insist that the two positions don't resemble each other.
Once again, I never conceded that they resembled each other in some ways. Hence, my insistence that two positions don't resemble each other.

You're contradicting yourself.
One cannot contradict oneself. Only arguments contradict. And in order for arguments to contradict, there must be a demonstrable inconsistency. Demonstrate which arguments I've made that contradict.

Both Strawson and Schopenhauer offer similar arguments *against* Libertarian Free Will and *that* is all I mean by the fact that their positions resemble each other. The fact that you accept that they resemble each other in *some* ways is already enough to get to similarity.
What were Schopenhauer's arguments against free will?

You say that Strawson's third premise is especially substantiated but he substantiated that very clearly in the video that you watched. He also made it clear that the argument I gave, and that he started of with in the video, is the 'crude' version. Meaning that, the purpose of that basic argument isn't to substantiate the premises. An argument isn't supposed to substantiate its own premises. To substantiate the premises for an argument you need another argument. Arguments don't substantiate themselves. 
He went into detail about how for us to *ultimately* make ourselves the way that we are we would have to get back behind ourselves infinitely ... a regress happens whereby we can never ultimately get back behind ourselves to make ourselves the way we are. He made this all very clear in the video. He substantiated the argument just fine.
No, he doesn't substantiate the argument at all. He merely asserts it. I could just as easily say that interviewer "substantiated" his assertion of different principles applying to immaterial consciousness by mere assertion of his argument.

This isn't an answer to the question and it seems that you just misspoke by saying "no" to the question because you say the opposite below.
"Seem" is not an argument; and "no" was in response to your claim that my citing Schopenhauer's agreement was irrelevant, especially in the context where I was rejecting the "resemblance" of Strawson's and Schopenhauer's position.


I don't agree with you that Schopenhauer believed in Libertarian Free Will (and if your point is that you think that he believed in Compatabilist free will then that's a red herring), I don't agree that Schopenhauer's position doesn't resemble Strawson's (and you conceded that they do partially resemble each other ... and I never claimed that they wholly did) .... and they both do offer similar arguments against Libertarian Free Will. It's pointless for us to argue about how much position A has to resemble position B for them to count as resembling. There was no point in you arguing about Schopenhauer anyway because the topic of the thread is whether free will exists and I was offering an argument against free will. So that is what we should be focussing on. 

Again, the only reason I left that part about Schopenhauer in is because I like to give more rather than less context of the source I'm quoting from. Strawson's argument is the only important part. You happen to be wrong about Schopenhauer, as he is famously against Libertarian Free Will, but it's really not important or even relevant to actually addressing Strawson's argument.
Once again, what arguments did Schopenhauer make against free will?

I already dealt with this prior to you saying this. Again, I was just trying to not leave out the context from where I was quoting from. It's a great vice to quote mine so I didn't want to do that. I already explained this. The actual argument that Strawson provided is clearly what needs to be addressed because that's actually an argument against free will that has been offered.
If you don't want to talk about Schopenhauer anymore, that's all well and good. If Schopenhauer's rationalizations were, as you claim, irrelevant particularly to Strawson's argument, then they should not been quoted to begin with.

And you're not merely responding ... you're responding with red herrings!
You're projecting.


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Illusion is something magicians are really good at.  Universe/God ---aka the only perpetual motion machine and only cause and effect--- is really good at illusion.

At ultra-micro scales humans cannot see the cause { action } > effect{ reaction }, however, we do see the resultants of seemingly free will illusion.

Cause and effect are eternal process.  Occupied space cannot be created nor destroyed i.e. there is no origin to our finite, occupied space Universe/God.

There is only changing phase/states of existence for the parts and the whole Universe/God. I defer to Roger Penroses thoughts, later.






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The term "self-caused" is incoherent.
Why?
Because every "self" is a complex collection of causes and effects.

These causes have their origins outside the "self" and the effects have ramifications beyond the "self".

Certainly the "self" changes over time, but none of the causes originate within the "self".

What are you? - 6 minutes,
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@3RU7AL
Because every "self" is a complex collection of causes and effects.
How?

These causes have their origins outside the "self" and the effects have ramifications beyond the "self"
Have you confirmed this yourself about your "self?"

Certainly the "self" changes over time, but none of the causes originate within the "self".

Does the video you reference inform your argument? From what I've discerned while watching, it questions the attribution of the self (i.e. cells, DNA, etc.) Does it necessarily inform that the self isn't causa sui?
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@Athias
i hesitate to make broad statements here, but some seem to be suggesting that nobody is arguing that a human decision is free from all previous influences. i think this is a fair statement. the best attempts at explaining free-will seem to suggest that there is some kind of influence-gap. that is to say, it has been suggested that a human decision is influenced up to some unknown point less than 100% and then there is some i-gap of unspecified quantity and free-will lives there spreading magic fairy dust, however small or improbable that i-gap might be. i have never heard anyone propose a way to measure this i-gap in order to perhaps somehow gauge how much free-will someone might have, or to figure out if children have it, and if not, when do they get it? the i-gap sounds to me more like an ignorance-of-influence gap (this would also seem like the compatibilist's opinion). if this is the case we should be able to dial up free-will by dialing up ignorance.

the main problems i see with this proposal are as follows:

1) there is no way to measure the influence-gap. it is in all likelihood merely a knowledge-of-influence-gap or lack-of-precision-gap.

2) even if the influence-gap is considered to be a real thing, wouldn't that gap simply increase the value of the other influences? how could the influence gap possibly be considered an influence? it's a gap that is by definition non-influential.

3) let's consider based on at least a small shred of logic, what could be in that pesky i-gap that might actually be an influence. well, whatever is in that i-gap can't be influenced since it is inside something defined as an influence-gap. so maybe there's an uninfluenced-influence in that i-gap; we could call it something mysterious like, an uncaused-cause, or maybe a first-cause, or better yet ex-nihilo. could that uncaused-cause be influenced or originated by anything at all? no, of course not because it's in the i-gap and it is defined as being uncaused. so could a human take credit for a decision or action that emerged from the i-gap? how could they possibly take credit or be responsible for something they had no conceivable control over? anything emerging from the i-gap would be indistinguishable from a random event. and randomness is incompatible with choice (and will).

4) but what if it's the essence of "me" that is in the i-gap. are you kidding me?! i don't care if it's your grandmother, your dead child, or your ever lovin' god. if you put them in the i-gap they are at-best indistinguishable from random noise and at worst non-existent.

5) what if the gap is not an influence-gap but instead a black box? if the gap is not an influence-gap, there is no place for mr. free-will to spread his magic fairy dust because the gap instantly fills with influence and is then no longer properly described as a gap. additionally if the output of the i-gap is non-random, that is to say it emits some identifiable pattern, then whatever is happening in the i-gap must have some way of knowing what the hell is going on outside of the i-gap and this knowledge is definitely influencing its output thereby introducing influence into the i-gap which would then promptly disappear in a cute little puff of logic.

i think it's important to fully comprehend this influence-gap. imagine, if you will, that i am constructing a human being. when the recipe calls for me to add "a dash of free-will" i can't just add any old thing, willy nilly; i have to first construct a proper influence-gap to protect my human from the evil determinism. this would be some container that is impervious to all conceivable influence. i probably have a sound-proof, shock-proof, opaque, air-tight, empathy-proof, magic-proof, momentum-proof, time-proof capsule of some sort just laying around my house, i'll just set that to the side for now. ok, adding an empty box to the mix isn't going to do anything of course so we have to put something in it. since whatever is in this i-gap is supposed to advise me on important moral decisions my selection is of critical importance. well, the most intelligent and moral person i know of is my friend george, so since i don't seem to have a better option, i throw george in the i-capsule and seal him in tight. now days, weeks, and months have gone by and i've pretty much forgotten about george until one afternoon i am confronted with an intractable dilemma. i am faced with a decision with staggeringly profound moral implications and i must make a decision immediately. what do i do? well this sounds like a case for the magnificent george! so i locate my everything-proof capsule on which i have scrawled the descriptive term "i-gap" with my handy wax pencil, and i ask my question. i exhaustively explain all of the known factors leading up to and logical implications of this monumental decision to george, my moral, spiritual and financial advisor, and then i wait for an answer, any answer at all. nothing happens. things are getting desperate, so i beg george to give me an answer, to point me in the right direction. nothing happens. i light some candles and wave a magic wand over the i-gap, but still i can't divine any response from george. i realize there is a problem with the i-gap's design. so i quickly scour my garage for spare parts and retrofit a one way intercom system onto the i-gap so i can hear what george has to say. mind you he still can't hear anything or in any way perceive anything that i have to say, thus preserving the integrity of the influence-gap, but now he can speak directly to me, thus becoming an uncaused-cause. of course george has causes, he was born and raised and had both happy and sad experiences, but i'll just ignore all that for now. george is pretty much an uncaused-cause now that he is housed in the exclusive and luxurious, new and improved i-gap. so i ask george again to answer my plea for guidance. nothing happens. every once in a while george does actually say something but it's usually along the lines of "let me out of this f#cking box you god#amned muth#rf#cking muth#rf#cker!" heh, that george is such a kidder!

obviously george is constrained by the parameters of his confinement and is therefore incapable of offering any advice that would be requested from him.

the same would be true if you put jesus, or krishna, or a unicorn, or any conceivable entity or event in the modified i-gap.

ipso-facto, no free-will.
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@3RU7AL
ipso-facto, no free-will.
Thank you for this statement, I feel like this entire thread could be deleted and have this post to sum it up.

Even people who believe in free will, don't beieve it's free. They just think it's the realm of spirits that limit it (as opposed to the realm of physics and chemistry).
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@RationalMadman
Even people who believe in free will, don't beieve it's free. They just think it's the realm of spirits that limit it (as opposed to the realm of physics and chemistry).
Right, even a dualist, spiritualist who believes "supernatural powers" guide their hands from the shadows, still believe in cause and effect (contradicting freewill).

I call these people "god puppets".
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We’re all products of our environment, but I would like to think we have some influence in our decision making because if we don’t then can we really condemn people for their wrongdoings? I mean if they were basically doomed from the start then they never really stood a chance.

BTW don’t you love it when someone ghosts you for being a stranger when last time you’ve checked they’re the one to first initiate contact? Weird, sorry that’s not the here nor there I digress to each their own.
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@Tarik
We’re all products of our environment, but I would like to think we have some influence in our decision making because if we don’t then can we really condemn people for their wrongdoings? I mean if they were basically doomed from the start then they never really stood a chance.
Think of it this way.

Do we hold a rabid dog "personally responsible" for their dangerous behavior?

Does this lack of "personal responsibility" keep us from restraining the rabid animal in order to protect society at large?

Does a rabid dog "deserve" to be tortured and berated for their actions?

Here's another example.

If a gear fails in an engine, causing the engine to malfunction, do we hold the failed gear "personally responsible"?

Do we punish the gear?  Do we torture the gear?

NO.  We remove the damaged gear and either repair or replace the troublesome gear.

Removing "moral" implications only makes us MORE HUMANE AND PRACTICAL.
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I guess the million dollar question is how do we do so, some individuals are more privileged than others so they’re put at a certain advantage, for the ones that aren’t is it fair for us to judge them and write them off or do we find ways to rehabilitate and hope for redemption?

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@Tarik
...is it fair for us to judge them and write them off or do we find ways to rehabilitate and hope for redemption?
Vipassana seems quite promising.

For example, 
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@3RU7AL
i hesitate to make broad statements here, but some seem to be suggesting that nobody is arguing that a human decision is free from all previous influences. i think this is a fair statement. the best attempts at explaining free-will seem to suggest that there is some kind of influence-gap. that is to say, it has been suggested that a human decision is influenced up to some unknown point less than 100% and then there is some i-gap of unspecified quantity and free-will lives there spreading magic fairy dust, however small or improbable that i-gap might be. i have never heard anyone propose a way to measure this i-gap in order to perhaps somehow gauge how much free-will someone might have, or to figure out if children have it, and if not, when do they get it? the i-gap sounds to me more like an ignorance-of-influence gap (this would also seem like the compatibilist's opinion). if this is the case we should be able to dial up free-will by dialing up ignorance.
This is a non sequitur. Free will adherents don't attempt to quantify and juxtapose both internal and "external" influences. Because the argument for free will has nothing to do with quantity--any more than the arguments which posit that the self is caused by previous influences. Can you quantify that? Arguing for free will amounts to--no pun intended--"I am responsible for my decisions." One could even go further and state, "I am both responsible and the cause of me." So then what use would there be in proposing a measure? If one tells another, for example, that he/she loves them, should that be taken at face value, or do we measure the secretions of oxytocin and the amount of time the two interacted? And how far does one extend the ecological inference fallacy when projecting their subjective observations of many onto an individual subject about his or her subjective experience?


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@Athias
Free will adherents don't attempt to quantify and juxtapose both internal and "external" influences.
Without some sort of quantification, how can they claim that "freewill" EXISTS?

What is the evidence for "freewill"?

What is the central premise, what is the PRIMARY AXIOM?

How does "freewill" violate (or comply with) CAUSE AND EFFECT?

How can you tell if a child, or a dog, or a cat, or a car has "freewill"?

As far as I can tell, "freewill" is just a FEELING you get when YOU make a "decision".