I Wanted To Have A Slave When I Was Younger

Author: Jasmine ,

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  • Jasmine
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    Jasmine
    I've always been stingy.
  • n8nrgmi
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    --> @Jasmine
    well, the beauty with slaves, is you dont have to pay em. 
  • ethang5
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    --> @n8nrgmi
    Atheist forget that small fact when they try to argue that the Bible condones slavery. 
  • Intelligence_06
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    --> @Jasmine
    Robots exist. Be good at STEM so you can build your own slave that won’t complain, or to get rich so you can buy one.
  • Intelligence_06
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    --> @n8nrgmi
    So, soldiers are the slaves to the president, and animals are the slaves to the circus?
  • zedvictor4
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    --> @ethang5
    Theists have a habit of forgetting big facts, when it comes to scriptural integrity.

    Just another tit for tat jibe Mr E.

    Hope that you are well....As you have been comparatively quiet of late.

    That wasn't you at the Capitol wearing the buffalo outfit and no mask, was it?
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    Atheist forget that small fact when they try to argue that the Bible condones slavery. 
    ONLY ISRAELITE "INDENTURED SERVANTS" WERE "PAID".

    FOREIGN BORN SLAVES WERE OWNED FOR LIFE AND INHERITED BY HEIRS.
  • FLRW
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    FLRW

    In Leviticus 25 we read:

    I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt to give you the land of Canaan, and to be your God.

    As for your male and female slaves whom you may have: you may buy male and female slaves from among the nations that are around you.




  • ethang5
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    --> @3RU7AL
    ONLY ISRAELITE "INDENTURED SERVANTS" WERE "PAID"
    FOREIGN BORN SLAVES WERE OWNED FOR LIFE AND INHERITED BY HEIRS.
    Untrue. And as you've been corrected several times, I can only conclude now that your religious hatred is causing you to willfully lie. FLRW only thinks what others tell him, but you really should be a better thinker. 
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    LEVITICUS 25:

    44, Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves.

    45, You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property.

    46, You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.

  • ethang5
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    --> @3RU7AL
    Again you simply post a verse as if it is an argument. Let me do the same thing to highlight your error.

    James 2:3 - And ye have respect to him that wears gay clothing, and say to him, You sit here in a good place; and say to the poor, you stand stand there, or sit here under my footstoolr
    Jas 2:4 - Are you not then partial in yourselves, and are become judges of evil thoughts?

    Are these verses talking about people in homosexual clothing?

    Those verses do not say slaves would not be paid.
    Those verses use the word "slave" in the ancient Hebrew context.
    Debt is what is owned, inherited and passed on, not the person.

    Stop lying. For 2,000 years people have tried lies, they have never worked. 
  • FLRW
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    --> @ethang5

    Tell QAnon that.



  • ethang5
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    --> @FLRW
    Tell QAnon what?
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    Those verses do not say slaves would not be paid.
    Do you understand the difference between an INDENTURED SERVANT and a FOREIGN SLAVE?

    An INDENTURED SERVANT is a person who is working off a DEBT.

    A FOREIGN SLAVE is a person who is owned as PROPERTY.
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    Those verses use the word "slave" in the ancient Hebrew context.
    Citation please.
  • ethang5
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    --> @3RU7AL
    Those verses do not say slaves would not be paid.

    Do you understand the difference between an INDENTURED SERVANT and a FOREIGN SLAVE?
    Sure. One refers to renumeration and the other to nationality. Are you confused? Those verses do not say slaves would not be paid.

    An INDENTURED SERVANT is a person who is working off a DEBT.
    We  know. Now tell your atheist buddies.

    A FOREIGN SLAVE is a person who is owned as PROPERTY.
    Untrue. You are grasping. A foreign slave was an indentured servant who was not a Hebrew and thus was not a believer in Jehovah. What was owned was the debt, not the person.

    Hebrews were forbidden from taking ANYONE by force for slavery. Slaves in ancient Israel became slaves by mutual agreement. Foreign or local, they were paid. The only difference was that foreign born slaves were not automatically freed after jubelee because they were not believers. 

    Those verses use the word "slave" in the ancient Hebrew context.

    Citation please.
    Please don't be stupid. Those verses were written in ancient Hebrew times, what other context could they have?
  • ethang5
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    --> @3RU7AL
    Are these verses talking about people in homosexual clothing?

    Can't answer Brutus? 

    "The surest sign of a fake argument is a refusal to answer questions. " - Ethan
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    Those verses use the word "slave" in the ancient Hebrew context.
    The protection against permanent enslavement also did not apply to foreigners (Lev. 25:44-46). Men taken in war were considered plunder and became the perpetual property of their owners. Women and girls captured in war, who were apparently the vast majority of captives (Num. 31:9-1132-35Deut 20:11-14), faced the same situation as female slaves of Hebrew origin (Deut. 21:10-14), including permanent enslavement. Slaves could also be purchased from surrounding nations (Eccl. 2:7), and nothing protected them against perpetual slavery. The other protections afforded Hebrew slaves did apply to foreigners, but this must have been small comfort to those who faced a lifetime of forced labor. [LINK]
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    The Hebrews have an extensive and detailed legal history on the matter,

    Reuben lives in Sippori and owns a “Canaanite” maidservant—He bought her according to the law of land. After a time, she expresses to her master that she wants to become a Jewess. Due to difficulties with this, he sends her away as a gift to his brother Shimeon that lives in Tiberias. He sends her with a note, stipulating that he take care of the details to free her as a Jewess. Upon receiving the letter, Shimeon replies, “I don’t know if you heard, but one who frees his slaves violates a positive precept, i.e. you shall make them serve you forever.” He continues saying that the manumission of slaves does not apply at the present moment, therefore, he desists. The first brother replies and tells him not to violate the positive precept of the Torah. Since Shimeon knows the Scriptures, he decides to return the slave to Reuben, however, gives her to Levi as a gift. How was he allowed to do so if he did not have full ownership of the slave to be able to give her to Levi? Rabbi David Meldola explains that Shimeon never gained full ownership of the slave because he did not accept the original stipulation to free her, therefore, Reuben remains the owner and can do with her as he pleases. [Peri Etz Ḥaim, Vol. 5, 227-231]

    Canaanite slavery refers to those non-Hebrew slaves, which were held captive as prisoners of war. To draw a legal comparison, Biblical Canaanite slavery can be equated to servitus in ius gentium [slavery according to the Law of nations] in Roman law.

    The other type of slavery—Hebrew slavery—as the name itself implies, was an arrangement in which an impoverished Israelite would work for another Israelite for a period of 6 years, then would go free with accumulated wealth at the beginning of the 7th year [Indentured servitude]. [LINK]
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    The 235th mitzvah is that we are commanded regarding the treatment of Canaanite servants:1 that we should have them serve us forever, going free only in [a case where the master struck them and caused them to lose] a tooth or [use of] an eye. The same applies to any exposed organ which does not grow back, as explained in the Oral Tradition.2
    The source of this commandment are G‑d's statement3 (exalted be He), "You shall have them serve you forever" and,4 "If a person strikes [his male or female servant in the eye...the tooth...he shall set the servant free...in compensation for his eye...in compensation for his tooth]."

    In the words of the Talmudic tractate Gittin5: "Anyone who frees his servant transgresses a positive commandment, as it is written, 'You shall have them serve you forever.' " The words of the Written Torah itself show that he must be freed upon loss of a tooth or an eye.

    The details of this mitzvah are completely explained in tractates Kiddushin6 and Gittin. [LINK] 
  • FLRW
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    --> @ethang5
    Untrue. You are grasping. A foreign slave was an indentured servant who was not a Hebrew and thus was not a believer in Jehovah. What was owned was the debt, not the person.
    Not true. Non-Israelite slaves are acquired either by purchase (Exod 12:44) or captured during war (Deut 20:14) and remain so permanently (Lev 25:44-46). Foreign male slaves are circumcised and allowed to participate in the Passover sacrifice (Exod 12:44).


  • ethang5
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    --> @3RU7AL @FLRW
    The protection against permanent enslavement also did not apply to foreigners
    Deceitful. It was not the slavery you imply. Address that. There is no instance of slavery in ancient Israel by Hebrews where the human was owned. Even permanent servitude was voluntary. Stop lying.

    Exo 21:5 - And if the servant shall plainly say, I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out free:
    Exo 21:6 - Then his master shall bring him unto the judges; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.
    But the fact remains, that it was the debt that was bought and sold, and inherited. This still happens today, it is not a strange concept.

    -->@FLRW
    Not true. Non-Israelite slaves are acquired either by purchase (Exod 12:44)
    All slaves were a purchase. But a slave purchased by a Hebrew could not be from one kidnapped into slavery. is, not by force. The potential slave himself had to agree to the exchange.

    Lev 25:39 - And if thy brother that dwelleth by thee be waxen poor, and be sold unto thee; thou shalt not compel him to serve as a bondservant:

    What does his poverty have to do with being a slave? Because slaves sold their debt and then worked it off. If slavery was as you say, the poverty of the person would not matter.

    or captured during war (Deut 20:14) and remain so permanently (Lev 25:44-46).
    Untrue. POW Slaves could become Hebrew and gain freedom during Jubilee.

    Foreign male slaves are circumcised and allowed to participate in the Passover sacrifice (Exod 12:44)
    Exactly, because they had become part of the congregation of Jehovah.

    The facts are the I have shown the verses prohibiting slavery for ANYONE.
    Ancient Hebrew slaves were actually indentured servers, not slaves owned by masters.
    Servers were to be paid, freed if maimed, and not treated harshly. 

    You have no case.

    I have pointed out that though the word "slave" is used, the meaning was different back then. Both of you have avoided that point and pretended you didn't see it.

    I have shown you the verses where God says He is the owner of all men, proving that ancient Hebrews did not believe humans could bodily own another human being. ( As proven by the verses saying they were to be freed if maimed)

    You have no case.

    Christians are not arguing that Hebrew servitude was pleasant, but just that it was not immoral, and neither the same as American slavery in the 19th century.

    All you have is the word "slave" translated from Hebrew of 6,000 years ago. When to show you how meanings of words change, I posted another verse using the word "gay" and asked you to interpret it, you ran away.

    My conclusion is, if you wish to believe that the Bible condones slavery, ignoring the verses that prohibit it, call it evil, and set the penalty for it as death, go ahead. If you wish to pretend you don't know that the "slavery" in ancient Hebrew times was not akin to American slavery where the person was bodily owned, but ownership of debt, go ahead.

    I am satisfied I have demonstrated you are wrong. 
  • 3RU7AL
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    --> @ethang5
    Even permanent servitude was voluntary.
    Please review The 235th mitzvah.

    There is no need for you to try and interpret "the ancient Hebrew text".
  • ethang5
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    --> @3RU7AL
    Please review The 235th mitzvah.
    I don't need to. The Bible, which is superior in truth and authority, already spells it out. Slavery in ancient Hebrew times was nothing like American slavery. The person was not owned, his debt was. Hebrews could not force a person to be a slave, and had to pay him for his services, and had to obey laws governing how he could be treated.

    Here, answer these questions for me.

    Was slavery (the American type) condemned in the Bible for anyone, selling or buying?

    Could a Hebrew purchase as a slave someone who had been kidnapped into slavery?

    If a Hebrew forced someone to be a slave, would that be against the Bible law at the time?

    If a slave wanted to become a servant of Jehovah, could he be refused?

    When Joseph was kidnapped and sold into slavery, why was he sold in another country? 

31 days later

  • Bringerofrain
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    This is wired but I used to fantasize about having slaves that were like 12 inches tall. I always wanted little people slaves.