The endless chain of causes

Author: Benjamin

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Double_R
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@Benjamin
The argument concludes that God, or something similar, must have been the first thing in existence - it must have been both uncaused and eternal. The first cause would, by definition, be static and unchanging.
Where did you get this from? Why is a theoretical first cause not subject to change?
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@Theweakeredge
You rejected the first premise: Any event has a cause. That premise doesn't require time to exist, it just requires cause A to force onto the world effect B. 

I apologize for misinterpreting your position. I thought you denied the logical law of cause and effect. But if you accept it, then we agree.
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@Double_R
Why is a theoretical first cause not subject to change?
Imagine the first cause. If it is changing, then each change is the cause of the next one. Therefore, the first cause would not really be the first cause, the previous iteration of the first cause would be more "first". You could continue tracing the changes longer and longer back in time. Just as with the universe, you would find that it had a beginning, or possibly you could track the iterations back into eternity. And if you can track the changes in the "first cause" back to eternity then there is no real first cause.

Therefore, the first cause must be unchanging. If it is changing, it must be called simply "a/the cause".
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@Benjamin
Ok. Show me a few examples of events that had no cause.
Would you settle for a few events which have no known cause? It is INDISTINGUISHABLE from our perspective.
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@Sum1hugme
 It doesn't claim what started the expansion, that is unknown.
I don't try to answer that question. I simply claim that there is an answer, although humans might never access it.


asking what came before the big bang is probably a meaningless question, because there can't be a "before" time
"Before" is used to display causality. If A caused B then A came before B, even if time doesn't exist before C is created by B.


  Depends how you define god
You miss the point I was making. I said that if we believe the universe is eternal then the universe would have the attributes religious people put on God: independent existence (aka the universe exists because it does, not because God or any other thing lets the universe exist.), being the first cause, being eternal. Again, stop worrying, I am NOT trying to place some theistic trap. In this debate, I don't even care whether or not God exists. So please stop critiquing me for "hiding" fallacies and secretly arguing for God in this.


Cyclic Cosmology defeats your second premise since that is literally an endless chain of Universe-Causing events. No "god" necessary.
Again, the only reason why no "god" is necessary is that the universe has the traits that god typically has. Instead of god creating the universe the universe simply has always existed, such as gods role typically is. Again, don't take this as argumentation for god. 


First, these are just the same option stated twice.
Sorry, I meant that these are the options:
  • The universe is eternal
  • The universe has a beginning but no cause

there could be a cause, but there are not any definitive answers as to what that would be
Then we agree. I believe that the laws of logic are always active and that every event has a cause. "Could" is a weak word, but still fine.



Causality isn't undermined, it just doesn't apply where it doesn't apply.
Where doesn't causality apply? Where can you prove that an event had no cause? To use the Big Bang or quantum mechanics would simply be an appeal to ignorance. It would be like saying: "since we have not yet crafted a waterproof theory for this phenomena we can assume it is acausal."



Well, I read a bit on the Wikipedia site you provided and found that there are actually causes that can explain quantum phenomena. One example: "Since the value of this energy depends on the shapes and positions of the materials, the Casimir effect manifests itself as a force between such objects." Also, the cause is simply hidden from us, as the quantum fields are impossibly small and hard to study. Can you provide evidence that quantum mechanics is acausal? If you cannot, then we should take the default position that quantum physics are causal, like literally any other field of science. Furthermore,  the particles popping in and out of existence always happens in a pair of negative and positive particles, which proves that it is not completely random or acausal, it is controlled by a hidden quantum mechanism or maybe the first law of thermodynamics.


Please explain how quantum fluctuations and vacuum energy states fit into your paradigm. 
I am sorry, Sum, but I fail to see how the new and controversial field of quantum mechanics should be used to declare that some parts of the universe are acausal. Simply because we don't fully understand the mechanisms yet, it doesn't mean that quantum science is acausal. After all, why can we create such beautiful and accurate mathematical wave-functions if quantum particles behave in an acausal way?



The fact that some events are acausal does not mean that all events are acausal.
It is NOT a fact that some events are acausal. Prove it to me, show me research that concluded that parts of the universe does not make sense and is acausal.



Causality doesn't necessarily exist in the absence of time.
Time is the dimension of space that makes it possible for multiple causal events to be understood in the context of each other and to get a standard of measurement for the order in which changes happen.



 Acausality is the absence of a cause, not a cause in itself
Acausal: not involving causation or arising from a cause [https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/acausal]. Acausality means that an event did not have any cause whatsoever and that the event happened independent of the causes and prevention placed by the environment. A purple elephant spawning in my room can be classified as acausal, but neither waves on the ocean nor waves in the quantum fields can be called acausal.



"Unknown" is far more appropriate than "god," 
I would prefer "first cause" or "ultimate reality" since that better encompasses the nature of the thing being discussed.
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@secularmerlin
No, prove to me that a single event had no cause - prove to me that ONE SINGLE EVENT was "not involving causation or arising from a cause"
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@Benjamin
No, prove to me that every single event had to have a cause - prove to me that EVERY SINGLE EVENT was "involving causation or arising from a cause"

And I'll tell you why. Because otherwise we are engaged in a black swan fallacy.
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@Benjamin
Time and Space are always the possibilities of event and duration

Time and Space existing is an unnecessity.

The sequence of events that is material evolution requires one causation...GOD principle....But not an existent floaty about bloke, without causation..

And something from nothing is magical and bewildering and is unlikely to be explained in this forum.
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@Benjamin
If it is changing, then each change is the cause of the next one. Therefore, the first cause would not really be the first cause, the previous iteration of the first cause would be more "first".
This is just a contortion of language. The definition of time I go by is “the progression of existence”. When you say that the first cause is unchanging, that essentially means there is no progression to its existence. This would negate the possibility of it causing anything since the act of causation would require some form of progression. Also, the idea of this theoretical first cause progressing in some way would not negate that it was in fact the first cause.
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@Benjamin
No, prove to me that a single event had no cause - prove to me that ONE SINGLE EVENT was "not involving causation or arising from a cause"
Isn’t that what you are trying to prove to us?
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@Double_R
No, prove to me that a single event had no cause - prove to me that ONE SINGLE EVENT was "not involving causation or arising from a cause"
Isn’t that what you are trying to prove to us?
Good question. 
Sum1hugme
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@Benjamin
I'll go in reverse order this time.

"I would prefer "first cause" or "ultimate reality" since that better encompasses the nature of the thing being discussed."
  You don't know the nature of what's being discussed, so how can you claim to describe its nature? We cannot look past 10^-43 seconds after the initial expansion. So how do you know anything about the nature of the "cause."

" Acausality means that an event did not have any cause whatsoever and that the event happened independent of the causes and prevention placed by the environment."
  And the Universe's expansion can happen independent of the environment, because it is the predicate for environment's existence. 

  Let me put it this way: cause and effect is a temporal concept; because, the cause must precede the effect. But time didn't exist before the initial expansion. So it isn't justified to apply that same concept to 1) a Universe with no time, and 2) a Universe that would be governed by quantum laws that we haven't fully worked out. 

"Time is the dimension of space that makes it possible for multiple causal events to be understood in the context of each other and to get a standard of measurement for the order in which changes happen."
  The only reason time is known to be linear is because the second law of thermodynamics does not look the same going backwards as it does forward. Entropy always increases in the Universe as a whole. Time and space didn't exist pre-expansion, so this is just not applicable.

"It is NOT a fact that some events are acausal. Prove it to me, show me research that concluded that parts of the universe does not make sense and is acausal."
"I am sorry, Sum, but I fail to see how the new and controversial field of quantum mechanics should be used to declare that some parts of the universe are acausal. Simply because we don't fully understand the mechanisms yet, it doesn't mean that quantum science is acausal. After all, why can we create such beautiful and accurate mathematical wave-functions if quantum particles behave in an acausal way?"
  Wave function is a model describing certain properties of classical particles. Wave-Particle duality is the conflict between the ability of those two models to describe. accurately, different qualities of classical particles. When we are discussing vacuum energy, that is simply the spontaneous change in the energy value of a quantum field. This spontaneous energy is a result of the uncertainty principle.  Quantum field theory unifies particles and fields under the same theoretical framework, and allows us to consider particles as a localized vibrations in a "quantum field."  

"Where doesn't causality apply? Where can you prove that an event had no cause?"
"Well, I read a bit on the Wikipedia site you provided and found that there are actually causes that can explain quantum phenomena. One example: "Since the value of this energy depends on the shapes and positions of the materials, the Casimir effect manifests itself as a force between such objects." Also, the cause is simply hidden from us, as the quantum fields are impossibly small and hard to study. Can you provide evidence that quantum mechanics is acausal? If you cannot, then we should take the default position that quantum physics are causal, like literally any other field of science. Furthermore,  the particles popping in and out of existence always happens in a pair of negative and positive particles, which proves that it is not completely random or acausal, it is controlled by a hidden quantum mechanism or maybe the first law of thermodynamics."
  I'm not claiming that Quantum Mechanics is acausal, only that quantum fluctuations are acausal. As I already explained, QFT is a way of modeling particles as localized vibrations in a quantum field. The random energy fluctuations in a quantum field come about with no energy input, thus, they are acausal. Quantum fields vibrate gently, randomly; and, sometimes this produces enough energy to create a particle, which we call a "virtual particle." The casimir effect is a demonstration of the effects of these virtual particles, because the vacuum energy, the quantum fluctuations, by creating an "energy gradient," forcing the plates together. The reason is, as I'm aware, that the vacuum energy outside the plates was greater than the vacuum energy between the plates, forcing them together.

"Sorry, I meant that these are the options:
  • The universe is eternal
  • The universe has a beginning but no cause"
  or, 
3) The Universe is cyclic, being both eternal and caused.

"Again, the only reason why no "god" is necessary is that the universe has the traits that god typically has."
  Actually, several reasons are the fact that forcing god into the model makes it less parsimonious, and makes no testable predictions. It plugs in one unknown for another, and begs the question about the existence of the supernatural. Further, gods have been traditionally used to explain things we don't understand. Let's apply your logic:

"Again, the only reason that "zeus" isn't necessary to explain lightning is because lightning has the traits that "zeus" typically has."

  It works the same way and is equally wrong. Injecting Zeus into our explanation of lightning explains nothing and commits all the fallacies I just mentioned. That's why we just use our models of what causes lightning without shoehorning in superfluous, extraneous elements that limit the scope of its explanatory power.

"So please stop critiquing me for "hiding" fallacies and secretly arguing for God in this."
  I don't think you're hiding fallacies, I think you're making them perfectly obvious. If you aren't arguing for god, then why do you consistently make the analogy to a theistic god in an attempt to discuss the "first cause." You've been using "first cause," "ultimate reality," and "god" interchangeably. 

""Before" is used to display causality. If A caused B then A came before B, even if time doesn't exist before C is created by B."
  Like I said, "before" is a time word, assuming a linear timeline like the one we observe. Time words don't apply when there is no time. This is mute.

 It doesn't claim what started the expansion, that is unknown.
"I don't try to answer that question. I simply claim that there is an answer, although humans might never access it."

  Well I'm glad you admit that, but you're using faulty reasoning to arrive at the answer. By all accounts, the syllogism fails.
_____

Hope that helps and that there arent too many spelling errors.

zedvictor4
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@RatMan.

Theoretically anything is viable....And anything can be simulated.

And so, the Earth is a cube.

And NASA has only been inexistence since 1958.....So, someone was telling porkies hundreds of years before NASA...In fact, hundreds of years before the USA....(Or simulating porkies, maybe).
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@zedvictor4
Round Earth theory was just that, a theory, until NASA and Roscosmos confirmed it exolocitly as true based on what they did and 'saw'.
Benjamin
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@RationalMadman
You know that the earth is not round.

Actually, its shape is that of a twinkly-star.
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@Benjamin
You think I am trolling, that is fine. You also think you have proven God itself requires no creator, which you haven't. Infinite causes is a double-edged sword, neither Theists nor atheists should use it.
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@secularmerlin
Isn’t that what you are trying to prove to us?
Good question. 
This reminds me of Matt Slick’s TAG argument where he began with the premise “everything that exists is either physical or mental”, this was supposed to lead us to God. But when someone asked him “so what is God?” his answer was: Neither.

Either causality applies to everything or it doesn’t. One cannot argue that it applies to everything “except the thing I’m trying to prove” while claiming to be logical.
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@Double_R
Either causality applies to everything or it doesn’t. One cannot argue that it applies to everything “except the thing I’m trying to prove” while claiming to be logical.
Well stated. I might "borrow" this.
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@RatMan

Not sure what "exolocitly" means.

If you mean confirming with pictorial imagery, then yes that's true.....But it's fair to attribute past scholars, astronomers and explorers with a reasonably high degree of credibility.

Nonetheless an interesting point....Relative to the "GOD" debate....If confirming theory ultimately always relies upon "exolocit" evidence.
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@Sum1hugme


You don't know the nature of what's being discussed
Yes. It's an uncaused cause. It is not caused, but it caused another event to happen. We know that since it is not caused, it has no beginning and thus is eternal. Remember that this first cause is hypothetical, so you cannot use an appeal to ignorance to debunk its existence. Hypothetically, must such an uncaused cause exist? Its a purely logical and philosophical question, but the answer can also be applied to our understanding of non-hypothetical things like energy.


cause and effect is a temporal concept; because, the cause must precede the effect.
This is counterintuitive. The very word "precede" is a time-based word. In fact, causality doesn't need time to exist -- time is simply a product of a consistent causality that exists within our universe. But time doesn't evidently exist within our universe either, as Intelligence_06 will gladly explain.



 it isn't justified to apply that same concept to 1) a Universe with no time, and 2) a Universe that would be governed by quantum laws that we haven't fully worked out. 
1)
A universe with no time cannot exist. If things interact then causality is real and time would be created as a result

2)
It doesn't matter which laws govern a universe, because the very existence of law creates causality. In other words, if quantum laws governed a pre-big-bang universe then causality must have existed. Consequently, an infinite array of causes must have existed. The only way to dodge this problem is by saying that ENERGY or LAWS came into existence, but then how does that happen?


  The only reason time is known to be linear is because the second law of thermodynamics does not look the same going backwards as it does forward.
Time is the order in which events happen. For any event Y, we could calculate the cause X, and if we continue on this algorithm we would "time travel" back to the big bang and beyond. Entropy is a product of time, there would be no rise in entropy if time flowed in both directions or flipped between flowing forward and backwards. Time being linear is a complicated thing to say as "linear" is a word we use to describe space, and time isn't 3 dimensional but one dimensional.


Time and space didn't exist pre-expansion, so this is just not applicable.
"Expansion" requires both time and space. This argument is not valid.


 I'm not claiming that Quantum Mechanics is acausal, only that quantum fluctuations are acausal.
Quantum fluctuations, according to you, are a result of "quantum laws that we haven't fully worked out". Therefore, they are not evidently acausal they simply are ruled by causes we cannot yet understand or study. In the ancient era of mankind, it would be a wrong statement to claim that lightning strikes were acausal simply because they seemed random. Similarly, to claim that quantum fluctuations or wave-particle behaviour are acausal is incorrect today. In fact, the wave and random properties of quantum mechanics can be visualised by physical waves. This proves beyond a reasonable doubt that there are most likely causal laws that define quantum mechanics. Randomness is simply a product of complexity, just like throwing a dice creates randomness even though the dice follows strict laws of motion.


Quantum fields vibrate gently, randomly; and, sometimes this produces enough energy to create a particle, which we call a "virtual particle." 
You admit that the virtual particle has a cause: quantum fluctuations.


 The reason is, as I'm aware, that the vacuum energy outside the plates was greater than the vacuum energy between the plates, forcing them together.
Again, more causality in quantum mechanics.



The Universe is cyclic, being both eternal and caused.
I am not going to point out all the scientific flaws such a theory would cause. This theory of a "cyclic" universe is not solving the problem. A universe that has always existed and is always expanding is no different from a universe that is cyclic -- both are constantly causing themselves, which means that they are an infinite array of causes, violating the law that nothing can come into existence without an EXTERNAL cause. (again, I am not trying to prove God, as he would also violate this law).



" You've been using "first cause," "ultimate reality," and "god" interchangeably. 
"First cause" and "ultimate reality" have been used interchangeably. But don't tell me that "god" is the same as those. You don't get it, if god doesn't exist then some other ultimate reality or first cause must exist -- for example an eternal universe. But the problem both god and all other hypothetical first causes face is that they must be static in order to be uncaused, but also dynamic in order to cause something. 


Like I said, "before" is a time word,
I explicitly stated what I meant by it in this context. "Before" means that A caused B, time is not necessary. In other words, if A caused the universe then it came before the universe, even though time starts to exist when both A and the universe already exist. Consequently, we have two options:
  • Time doesn't exist, then A causes the universe and then time starts to exist -- A is the first cause
  • A caused B who caused C (another type of time exists) ... then X causes the universe -- the first cause either is unknown or doesn't exist


The syllogism fails.
It doesn't. Until you take a look at the requirements such a first cause would have to meet then the syllogism stands. But I am myself trying to defeat it, by applying reason to the first cause.
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@Benjamin
C: There exists a first cause
False.   There is no cosmic 1st cause of our  eternally existent, finite, occupied space Universe.

There are only a finite set of nitiating set of circumstances, that, we can assign to whatever finite time period, withtin context of and  eternal existence of Universe, in various phases/transfromations of its existence.
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@Theweakeredge
Everything with you is speculation

Regarding the origins of existence everything proposed is speculation and interpretation of evidence as far as presenting a philosophical premise that accounts for it. Our speculations, your speculations and everyone else's (even though somewhere a speculation is true, there's no way to "prove" it is true). Is your idea of the origins of the universe not speculation?
As I always say....,materialism does not get a free pass, it too is speculation. I've created topics that explain this.

the big bang was the beginning

In order for something to begin something must have a cause to begin, I mean you can claim it just began just because it happened to spontaneously happen but that's speculation too. And I find inanimate forces and events spontaneously creating universes, planets, solar systems, ecosystems and animate creatures too far fetched to accept. I will agree with you of course that the Big bang was the beginning of our universe as we observe it, but how that began is where we will part ways.

Now you could say it's possible that time exists elsewhere, but you have no evidence to support that position. How do I know that? Because we can't gather data from any universe except for this one!

I know nobody pays attention to what I say but it's unfortunate because I show how all this comes together and works. I gave my premise regarding time in the "Does time exist" topic beginning with post #12......

You're right though, the Big bang was the beginning of "time and space" because time is only relevant to the measurement of events unfolding, which is only relevant to the appearance of matter and form (within creation/universe).
To put it plainly, God does not exist on any linear time scale, time ceases to exist in what I propose as a static Reality......which precedes the movement/expansion of the universe, creation and all that appears within the universe. This deals with the infinite regression paradox because there is no infinite past, there is only the creation of the universe which we observe as the passing of events (birth and death) and then there is a fixed Reality that precedes that. The universe then appears within this fixed Reality, as we do, and we observe "time" as these processes unfold. At least that is how we measure such events and we call that "time".

Do you not understand? The laws of causality do not apply before time, therefore these things do not apply - that's the point.

So basically, God being eternal exists independent of time (because again, time is only relevant to the universe/creation) so the laws of causality still apply because out of a timeless Reality things begin to exist, things begin and that makes time relevant. Time applies to what it is that exists within the universe, time ceases to exist before the universe because it is only relevant to how events begin and end. God has no beginning and ending because God does not exist within a linear time frame, rather a static Reality where God begins the processes of bringing things and events into existence. Outside of creation there is no passing of events, just awareness of God's Being.

We argue for causality because where there is a beginning there must be a cause, we observe this through the principle of cause and effect. We don't simply posit that the Big Bang began, and it needs no cause....because it is nonsensical. 
There is no contradiction in saying that a causeless Reality caused something to appear because again we have two realities.....one that is fixed and one that appears. Eternity is not an endless past despite what people may assert, eternity does not exist on any time scale, however our universe does. 

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@Benjamin
I think you might be interested in this topic.
As you indicated in your #2, I was, indeed, interested in your topic, but there was no reply to my post #22. Any thoughts?
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@EtrnlVw
No. Let's take a look here - Speculation as in something which is proven true or untrue - the big bang is has buckets of evidence behind it - Benjamin is simply asserting that something is true because the creator might fit. There is a clear distinction, furthermore, "beginning" of space-time, that is what I was referring to. The universe technically existed before the big bang, as energy, the big bang was the cause of space and time, and therefore the beginning of causality. Before that nothing there would be no time for which causality would rely on, very simple stuff there.

You could try to strawman such an idea all you like - however it simply reveals your ignorance with the given topic. Which is key because instead of actually debunking it, you go a paragraph long making fun of the idea, then you say its nonsensical. Thank you for your opinion, its not relevant. 
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@fauxlaw

A + B = C

more like 

P1: A = B
P2: B = C
C: A = C

There is no logical fallacy in my syllogism.



First problem: The syllogism assumes a lopsided existence
It assumes causality, which we actually observe everywhere we look.


The universe is assumed "eternal," but it is claimed to have had a beginning
The universe does indeed have a beginning. The question is, what came before it? A new chain of causes like a multiverse, or a first cause like God.

We don't assume it to be "eternal", we assume causality. The second premise deals with the notion of "nothing can cause itself", which would conclude that an infinite array of causes are indeed impossible. However, my argument was that any first cause would indeed also have a history of INTERNAL causes. Imagine if God is a human that created the universe. Yes, the universe has a beginning, and God might be eternal, but he has a history of thoughts that led up to his creation of the universe. Any eternal being able to decide to be the first cause is itself NOT eternal, as its past self had a different set of thoughts.



Second problem: There is no time. Time is a human construct
A nice definition of time from PBS Spacetime is as follows. Time = the speed of causality. One can imagine time as the rate at which things interact and change happens. This definition of time is OBJECTIVE because all change, even a multiverse or the thoughts of God would cause time to flow. If there is change at all, time flows. In our universe, time is the speed at which two Planck voxels can interact, for example by exchanging a photon. The problem with the notion of a first cause like God is that he is literally thinking, meaning his thoughts not being random must follow orderly. Thus, in his mind *time* must exist.

Time exists regardless of whether or not time is infinite.


Third problem: There are many generations of Gods, not just a single God. 
This seems like Hinduism. Are you saying that God created our spirits, then gives us God-power when we serve him, so we can create new universes? This seems obviously similar to the multiverse theory, so I don't know if science or philosophy supports this idea.



a circle, which, when turned to its side, were we able to have a better view, it is an extended, eternal helix in which there is no beginning point of regression
We can identify the direction of movement in such a circle, by tracking the movements of individual points. But why assume that the helix is infinite when we already know that everything in it, is not. For example, assume our universe is one "pulse" of such a helix. Why would the helix not be a "pulse" of something even larger, possibly a higher dimension yet again. It seems "infinitely" regressive. That is the problem with the multiverse theory. When we assume infinity in time we must also assume infinity in an infinite number of dimensions.


That's eternity, folks, and maybe that helix is not a single tube, but infinite tubes extending eternally in all directions...
Exactly.


The end result always becomes, well...infinite. This further validates premise 1: every event has a cause.

But if every event has a cause, then what thing caused itself? The universe causing itself is no harder to believe than an infinite number of helixes causing their own existence.

What become the reason for existence, and precisely, what is wrong with premise 2.
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You don't know the nature of what's being discussed
Yes. It's an uncaused cause. It is not caused, but it caused another event to happen. We know that since it is not caused, it has no beginning and thus is eternal. Remember that this first cause is hypothetical, so you cannot use an appeal to ignorance to debunk its existence. Hypothetically, must such an uncaused cause exist? Its a purely logical and philosophical question, but the answer can also be applied to our understanding of non-hypothetical things like energy.


cause and effect is a temporal concept; because, the cause must precede the effect.
This is counterintuitive. The very word "precede" is a time-based word. In fact, causality doesn't need time to exist -- time is simply a product of a consistent causality that exists within our universe. But time doesn't evidently exist within our universe either, as Intelligence_06 will gladly explain.



 it isn't justified to apply that same concept to 1) a Universe with no time, and 2) a Universe that would be governed by quantum laws that we haven't fully worked out. 
1)
A universe with no time cannot exist. If things interact then causality is real and time would be created as a result

2)
It doesn't matter which laws govern a universe, because the very existence of law creates causality. In other words, if quantum laws governed a pre-big-bang universe then causality must have existed. Consequently, an infinite array of causes must have existed. The only way to dodge this problem is by saying that ENERGY or LAWS came into existence, but then how does that happen?


  The only reason time is known to be linear is because the second law of thermodynamics does not look the same going backwards as it does forward.
Time is the order in which events happen. For any event Y, we could calculate the cause X, and if we continue on this algorithm we would "time travel" back to the big bang and beyond. Entropy is a product of time, there would be no rise in entropy if time flowed in both directions or flipped between flowing forward and backwards. Time being linear is a complicated thing to say as "linear" is a word we use to describe space, and time isn't 3 dimensional but one dimensional.


Time and space didn't exist pre-expansion, so this is just not applicable.
"Expansion" requires both time and space. This argument is not valid.


 I'm not claiming that Quantum Mechanics is acausal, only that quantum fluctuations are acausal.
Quantum fluctuations, according to you, are a result of "quantum laws that we haven't fully worked out". Therefore, they are not evidently acausal they simply are ruled by causes we cannot yet understand or study. In the ancient era of mankind, it would be a wrong statement to claim that lightning strikes were acausal simply because they seemed random. Similarly, to claim that quantum fluctuations or wave-particle behaviour are acausal is incorrect today. In fact, the wave and random properties of quantum mechanics can be visualised by physical waves. This proves beyond a reasonable doubt that there are most likely causal laws that define quantum mechanics. Randomness is simply a product of complexity, just like throwing a dice creates randomness even though the dice follows strict laws of motion.


Quantum fields vibrate gently, randomly; and, sometimes this produces enough energy to create a particle, which we call a "virtual particle." 
You admit that the virtual particle has a cause: quantum fluctuations.


 The reason is, as I'm aware, that the vacuum energy outside the plates was greater than the vacuum energy between the plates, forcing them together.
Again, more causality in quantum mechanics.



The Universe is cyclic, being both eternal and caused.
I am not going to point out all the scientific flaws such a theory would cause. This theory of a "cyclic" universe is not solving the problem. A universe that has always existed and is always expanding is no different from a universe that is cyclic -- both are constantly causing themselves, which means that they are an infinite array of causes, violating the law that nothing can come into existence without an EXTERNAL cause. (again, I am not trying to prove God, as he would also violate this law).



" You've been using "first cause," "ultimate reality," and "god" interchangeably. 
"First cause" and "ultimate reality" have been used interchangeably. But don't tell me that "god" is the same as those. You don't get it, if god doesn't exist then some other ultimate reality or first cause must exist -- for example an eternal universe. But the problem both god and all other hypothetical first causes face is that they must be static in order to be uncaused, but also dynamic in order to cause something. 


Like I said, "before" is a time word,
I explicitly stated what I meant by it in this context. "Before" means that A caused B, time is not necessary. In other words, if A caused the universe then it came before the universe, even though time starts to exist when both A and the universe already exist. Consequently, time is not dependent upon the universe, but dependent upon existence itself. If a change happens (even quantum change), time progresses. Yes, time might not be linear, but it would still always flow.


The syllogism fails.
It doesn't. Until you take a look at the requirements such a first cause would have to meet then the syllogism stands. But I am myself trying to defeat it, by applying reason to the first cause.

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P1: Every event has a cause
P2: An endless chain of causes is impossible
C: There exists a first cause
I don’t know man, quantum mechanics is pretty weird.
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I will respond to you, I just haven't gotten around to it. Demonstrating the Big Bang to Fruit is my top priority rn.

But succinctly put : no you're wrong.

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But I will comment now on one thing: this is not a philosophical question; it's a scientific question. Science is the only way to acquire information about the origin of the Universe. We can use logic to come to any number of ridiculous conclusion If we don't check our conclusions with reality. 

Consider your logical form you presented in #55:
1. A=B
2. B=C
C. A=C

But conclusions drawn from this won't necessarily correspond to reality:

1. Cats are dogs
2. Dogs are chickens
C. Cats are chickens

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Science is based on logic.

1. If Earth is round we expect to be able to orbit it
2. We do orbit it with satellites
C. Eart is round 

If science denies logic or philosophy, it also denies itself.