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@secularmerlin
@PGA2.0
@3RU7AL
@Dr.Franklin
I'm still waiting on that reply, Peter.
Also, as related to this thread, atheism/theism are not moral philosophies....neither are reasonable from a moral standpoint. In your thread you drop the theistic ambiguity and name Christianity, which is a moral view, but again, you compare it to atheism which is not a moral philosophy. The comparison itself is not reasonable.
Its like you're pitting "Kumbaya" against silence and asking which is better music. There is a category error in the comparison.
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@Intelligence_06
That doesn't answer my questions. Your post seems to be stating those that do bad should stop...isn't that tautological? What makes something too critical or too literal from a Biblical perspective?
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@Lemming
Agreed.
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@Lemming
Lol! Well, that's as clear as mud. Would you care to be more explicit?
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@Lemming
Depending on context, yes, I'm thinking.
Great. What are the answers to my questions?
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@Lemming
1. Are atheists REALLy nitpicking..or pointing out what requires little interpretation?2. Are theists REALLY interpreting the Bible too literally...how do you know?'Some of them. But both terms atheist and theist, encompass such large groupings, it can't 'quite be applied. Except in reference to those 'some of them.
Seems pedantic to me, but, sure *some*atheists and *some* theists as applicable. Does that get us closer to an answer?
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@Intelligence_06
Let's get to something interesting:
1. Are atheists REALLy nitpicking..or pointing out what requires little interpretation?
2. Are theists REALLY interpreting the Bible too literally...how do you know?
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@Intelligence_06
Get some sleep. Good luck on your test results.
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@PGA2.0
I justify God allowing Israel to experience chattel slavery in Egypt as a typological lesson on what bondage is. As pointed out, I justify the type of slavery or servitude practiced in Israel as different from New World slavery or ANE slavery, a cut above. I did this in Post # 223.
That makes no sense. God allowed Israel to experience chattel slavery....and then codified chattel slavery into Mosaic law? If God was trying to teach Israel a lesson regarding chattel slavery..then why would it be condoned...by God?! This reasoning doesn't stand up.
God: You see, Israel, chattel slavery denies basic human dignity.
Israel: Yes, God, we see. We'll never do that to anyone.
God: No, No!! You've got that wrong - You'll never do that to MY people. Everyone else is fair game.
Israel: Oh...uh..ok.
39 “‘If any of your fellow Israelites become poor and sell themselves to you, do not make them work as slaves. 40 They are to be treated as hired workers or temporary residents among you; they are to work for you until the Year of Jubilee. 41 Then they and their children are to be released, and they will go back to their own clans and to the property of their ancestors 42 Because the Israelites are my servants, whom I brought out of Egypt, they must not be sold as slaves. 43 Do not rule over them ruthlessly, but fear your God.
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
Do you think the standards of evidence in a court of law are too high? Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? No? Then why should we accept such a low standard for gods...something arguably more important if true?It depends on what you are referencing.
This doesn't answer my question - what I am referencing is right there in the questions.
Again, if your proof for the Christian deity is built on the unreasonableness of all other positions, then there is no way you should have come to a conclusion. It is simply not possible that you have evaluated all other positions. Your reasoning is flawed and disingenuous.I don't have to evaluate all possibilities on the impossibility of the contrary.
Well, yah, actually you do. If your view is that no other view is possible, then you necessarily need to know all other views.
A single super complex "explanation" (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than multiple sensible explanations.How is that super complex? God!
God, by your own definition, is infinite. That makes god as an explanation infinitely complex. Occam's razor favors multiple explanations given that they are infinitely less complex.
A subject can be an object? If a subject is the object in your objective morality...wouldn't that make your morality subjectivev?I have already discussed this with you in previous posts on the other thread. This is a definist or equivocation fallacy. [...]
So, a subject is or isn't the basis of your objective morality?
You demonstrate you do not understand atheism. For me, it is a derivation of evaluating my former beliefs and finding them wanting - not a starting place as you continue to assert. I don't reject gods as a possibility,Not true, you do reject Him by looking at the universe in a solely mechanical or mythological naturalistic way. There is not supernatural consideration involved.
Mythological naturalism? I think that would describe your view better than mine! It is your own black and white thinking that has you confused. You are conflating all gods as the one you believe in - I don't. Also, if someone can define supernatural as something other than "unexplained by our current understanding of nature" and demonstrate it, I would accept it. Spend less time pigeonholing, and you might make some progress changing a mind...perhaps your own.
I just don't view them as very probable given the sad state of evidence in their favor. I also don't discount the supernatural as a possibility, but until it can be demonstrated there is little reason to build it into an epistemology and/or a life philosophy.You keep saying that. Demonstrate is rather than assert it.
I've already stated what the evidence is "anecdote, hearsay, and spectral evidence". This bring us back to the question you dodged: Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? If not, then you concede the point.
As an atheist, all the options you listed are available to me as well, but I have one more: nature alone. We have only ever found what was was thought supernatural to be poorly understood nature, and never ever has the supernatural been confirmed.Yet you have failed to justify how nature alone is capable of explaining anything regarding origins - origins of our existence, the existence of the universe, the existence of conscious beings from things devoid of consciousness, the existence of moral rights and wrongs.
Black and white thinking again - I literally said all options (not just nature) are available to me, and the one that can be demonstrated is the one I will accept. Why are you attacking one of those options rather than *demonstrating* yours? Perhaps nature isn't the answer, but then again perhaps nature and the Christian god both are not the answer. It's not an either nature or the Christian god scenario. Invalidating nature as an option (which you haven't done) doesn't make the Christian god true...
If you or anyone wants me to accept their (supernatural) beliefs, then attacking well-accepted standards of evidence, knowledge, or our well-founded understanding of reality is not the way to go. You'll need to do better than that.Cop-out - well worn cliches. I do not find your standards of evidence acceptable when it comes to origins.
It's not *my* standards of evidence. It is what humanity has learned from observation to be reasonable. Be careful what you throw away to maintain your beliefs - that way lies madness.
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@PGA2.0
Everything you've described is in regards to slavery amongst Jews - indentured servitude. Obviously, there are still serious issues with this type of slavery. Jews could be owned by other Jews permanently if a master provides a wife the slave does not want to leave (Exodus 21:5). Slavery was more or less voluntary for Jewish men and was generally no more than a 6 year term to pay off debt or acquire something valuable. So, even in its least objectionable form, Biblical slavery is still troubling (women are property, and men can become permanent slaves to stay with wife and family - exploitation.
Beyond this, Jewish women and foreigners (that weren't Jews) slavery was not voluntary and slaves *were* property to the exclusion of their humanity. Women were sold into sexual slavery. The " The odd mixture of 'slave' words and 'marriage' words" are explained quite simply by 'sexual slavery'. It wasn't voluntary and it was permanent - unless the woman "didn't please her master" (Exodus 21:7-10). So, the statement "Forced enslavement of Hebrews was punishable by death." isn't true if we allow Hebrew women to be considered. Chattel slaves were to come from the surrounding nations (ie. foreigners), their slavery was non-voluntary and permanent (Leviticus 25:44-46). This is explicitly stated and not contradicted by commands to "love foreigners in your midst" either. These rules were meant for Jews and that would include foreigners who had converted (and not the heathens from the nations which surround you).
Keep in mind, this part of our conversation started because you accused me of judging Biblical slavery by modern standards. Given that your god is claimed to be immutable and the basis of morality - that seems only fair. But the real issue, is that you (or those which inform your views) have obviously judged Biblical slavery immoral seeing as how it is all conflated to the least objectionable type. The Bible condones chattel slavery - are you willing to defend that? If not, then you should re-evaluate your moral basis.
39 “‘If any of your fellow Israelites become poor and sell themselves to you, do not make them work as slaves.(A) 40 They are to be treated as hired workers(B) or temporary residents among you; they are to work for you until the Year of Jubilee. 41 Then they and their children are to be released, and they will go back to their own clans and to the property(C) of their ancestors.(D) 42 Because the Israelites are my servants, whom I brought out of Egypt,(E) they must not be sold as slaves. 43 Do not rule over them ruthlessly,(F) but fear your God.(G)
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
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@PGA2.0
This does not address my post. Link
...Especially as related to standards of evidence, burden of proof, Biblical slavery, and the moral relativism of slavery being justified by "it was a different time and culture".
The last part has direct relevance to this diversionary thread as it contradicts your claimed objective morality.
If it weren't clear, I'll be waiting on your complete response before I dive into anything else.
- -->@PGA2.0The OT standards exceeds the ANE standards, for the ANE standards were the standard that Israel witnessed in the cultures around them, the standard they had experienced in Egypt, the world OT Israel lived in, the world they understood. God's best is always truth and freedom, justice and compassion for those who do right. Doing right is a problem for we all fall short of His standard, the glory that is God. Thus, He works within our fallenness. He chose a people out of the nations and cultures of that time where cruel slavery was a common practice, such as in Egypt. He worked within that system. BUT, the kind of slavery experieinced by Israel in Egypt and the chattel slavery of cruelty was not what God wanted Israel to observe and practice. God strictly spoke against such treatment. IF you read the article by Glenn Miller you would further understand this, yet you continue to act as if you did not. That article is very good in making the distinctions clear. It has a section, section 2, that covers property, a part of which I quoted from. You ignored it. Here it is again:The notion that Biblical slavery is only indentured servitude is simply false. The Bible advocates indentured servitude only in the case of Hebrew men. Hebrew women and foreigners were subject to permanent sexual/chattel slavery (respectively) which is made clear in Exodus 21-7-8 and the very verse supplied in the article [Link]. There is a distinction made between Hebrew men, women, and the heathen of the pagan nations - different rules applicable to each and the latter two undeniably slavery.Even if indentured servitude is an accurate description, it would still not justify different rules for these servants as compared to free persons. An eye for an eye is the Biblical rule for full persons, but a slave losing an eye gets freedom and the owner loses a slave - not an eye. If a servant is killed by negligence (gored by a bull), the owner of the Bull has to pay 30 shekels rather than pay with his life as he would if the victim were not a slave. You've equated Biblical slavery to employment, but would you really accept these rules from your own employers or those of your family and friends? The idea that the Bible provides advocacy for slave's personal rights and/or human dignity is a laughable distortion.Finally, the argument that 'it was a different time and culture' is an appeal to moral relativism. I thought god was supposed to be the basis of an objective morality? This argumentation undercuts one of your core arguments regarding the superiority of a moral system with a god as the basis.Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?Insufficient in what way?Do you think the standards of evidence in a court of law are too high? Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? No? Then why should we accept such a low standard for gods...something arguably more important if true?I have made a claim, that your worldview does not make sense without first presupposing God, nor can it.Worded differently, but this is still attempting to shift the burden, Peter. It's about substantiating your own claim of the existence of a being beyond detection. The time to believe something is when it has been demonstrated.No, it is an attempt to justify my worldview (what I place my faith in) as sensible and others as not by comparison and contrast.Again, if your proof for the Christian deity is built on the unreasonableness of all other positions, then there is no way you should have come to a conclusion. It is simply not possible that you have evaluated all other positions. Your reasoning is flawed and disingenuous.Don't be so obtuse and/or dishonest. Observation lead to deference to *Occam's razor* and *methodological naturalism*...not whatever you wish to put after "Observation?"Dishonest?The simplest explanation is God. The simplest explanation is that personal beings derive their existence from other personal beings.A single super complex "explanation" (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than multiple sensible explanations.An object or mindless thing? How is that a person? The object of worship (what we focus on) is a Person, not a thing or inanimate object. Only a personal being can prescribe. An object like a rock or a table cannot.A subject can be an object? If a subject is the object in your objective morality...wouldn't that make your morality subjective?Look, you as an atheist are left to a very limited view of the world, the universe, existence, morality. Since you disavow God or gods as lacking evidence you would answer ultimate questions or questions of existence and how things operate from the standpoint of naturalism and empiricism. That means that you have one option in looking at the world, the universe, through a naturalistic explanation. That is how you do look at the world. You discount God, or gods otherwise you would not be an atheist. God or chance still stands.Me, as a professor of faith in Jesus Christ would have a combination of options; this God alone, supernaturally, this God through natural means, or this God through both natural and supernatural means. The Bible reveals God alone, supernaturally. I argue that is the most plausible and reasonable explanation.You demonstrate you do not understand atheism. For me, it is a derivation of evaluating my former beliefs and finding them wanting - not a starting place as you continue to assert. I don't reject gods as a possibility, I just don't view them as very probable given the sad state of evidence in their favor. I also don't discount the supernatural as a possibility, but until it can be demonstrated there is little reason to build it into an epistemology and/or a life philosophy.As an atheist, all the options you listed are available to me as well, but I have one more: nature alone. We have only ever found what was was thought supernatural to be poorly understood nature, and never ever has the supernatural been confirmed. If you or anyone wants me to accept their (supernatural) beliefs, then attacking well-accepted standards of evidence, knowledge, or our well-founded understanding of reality is not the way to go. You'll need to do better than that.
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@PGA2.0
Another thread would be preferable.
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@PGA2.0
FYI, I'm waiting on your complete response to my post before I reply. Have a good evening.
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@MisterChris
Thanks for the input! I wasn't familiar with all of these, so I'm researching as I go.
Subpoint A: GeologySediments:Some sediments appear to be removed as tectonic plates slide slowly (an inch or two per year) beneath continents. An estimated 1 billion tons of sediments are removed this way each year. The net gain is thus 19 billion tons per year. At this rate, 1,300 feet of sediment would accumulate in less than 12 million years, not billions of years!
The problems with this clock: not all continental sediment reaches the ocean floor; geological processes are not consistent. Some sediment is caught up in river deltas, continental shelves, slopes, or suspended in the ocean for years. It is also not reasonable to expect erosion or subduction to operate at consistent paces over millions of years. [Link] This one was clever - I liked it.
Rock layers:There are whole sequences of these hardened sedimentary rock layers being bent and folded, but without fracturing. [...] The heat and pressure would have transformed these layers into metamorphic rocks. Yet Tapeats Sandstone is still sandstone, a sedimentary rock!
I assume since your were playing devil's advocate, you know this is false? Sedimentary rock can be deformed without melting.
Subpoint B: AstronomyFaint Sun Paradox:Evidence now supports astronomers’ belief that the sun’s power comes from the fusion of hydrogen into helium deep in the sun’s core, but there is a huge problem. As the hydrogen fuses, it should change the composition of the sun’s core, gradually increasing the sun’s temperature. If true, this means that the earth was colder in the past. In fact, the earth would have been below freezing 3.5 billion years ago, when life supposedly evolved.
It actually means the Earth received less heat from the sun, not that the Earth would have been below freezing.
Comets:A comet spends most of its time far from the sun in the deep freeze of space. But once each orbit a comet comes very close to the sun, allowing the sun’s heat to evaporate much of the comet’s ice and dislodge dust to form a beautiful tail. Comets have little mass, so each close pass to the sun greatly reduces a comet’s size, and eventually comets fade away. They can’t survive billions of years.
I'm curious if this was directed at an actual claim by old Earth proponents? I imagine your source was probably relying on information provided by old-earthers.
Subpoint C: PaleontologyA recent discovery by Dr. Mary Schweitzer [...] It is quite literally impossible for such detail to be preserved for 65 million years.
This argument is pretty much obligatory for the young Earth argument isn't it? ;-)
Contention 2: Unlikelihood of Big Bang/Old EarthOccam’s Razor states that that which has the fewest adjustable parameters should be chosen. However, the Big Bang theory opposes Occam’s Razor, because it can only exist with innumerable adjustable parameters.
Another obligatory argument methinks. How many 'adjustable parameters' would a creator have (and how would we know)? A infinitely complex explanation (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than ANY natural explanation.
Again, thanks for sharing your debate - I learned some new arguments for a young Earth.
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@Intelligence_06
This is directed at a particular group who believe the Earth to be between 6-10 thousand years old.
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...and why should I accept your belief as true?
Make your best argument.
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@PGA2.0
The OT standards exceeds the ANE standards, for the ANE standards were the standard that Israel witnessed in the cultures around them, the standard they had experienced in Egypt, the world OT Israel lived in, the world they understood. God's best is always truth and freedom, justice and compassion for those who do right. Doing right is a problem for we all fall short of His standard, the glory that is God. Thus, He works within our fallenness. He chose a people out of the nations and cultures of that time where cruel slavery was a common practice, such as in Egypt. He worked within that system. BUT, the kind of slavery experieinced by Israel in Egypt and the chattel slavery of cruelty was not what God wanted Israel to observe and practice. God strictly spoke against such treatment. IF you read the article by Glenn Miller you would further understand this, yet you continue to act as if you did not. That article is very good in making the distinctions clear. It has a section, section 2, that covers property, a part of which I quoted from. You ignored it. Here it is again:
The notion that Biblical slavery is only indentured servitude is simply false. The Bible advocates indentured servitude only in the case of Hebrew men. Hebrew women and foreigners were subject to permanent sexual/chattel slavery (respectively) which is made clear in Exodus 21-7-8 and the very verse supplied in the article [Link]. There is a distinction made between Hebrew men, women, and the heathen of the pagan nations - different rules applicable to each and the latter two undeniably slavery.
Even if indentured servitude is an accurate description, it would still not justify different rules for these servants as compared to free persons. An eye for an eye is the Biblical rule for full persons, but a slave losing an eye gets freedom and the owner loses a slave - not an eye. If a servant is killed by negligence (gored by a bull), the owner of the Bull has to pay 30 shekels rather than pay with his life as he would if the victim were not a slave. You've equated Biblical slavery to employment, but would you really accept these rules from your own employers or those of your family and friends? The idea that the Bible provides advocacy for slave's personal rights and/or human dignity is a laughable distortion.
Finally, the argument that 'it was a different time and culture' is an appeal to moral relativism. I thought god was supposed to be the basis of an objective morality? This argumentation undercuts one of your core arguments regarding the superiority of a moral system with a god as the basis.
Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?Insufficient in what way?
Do you think the standards of evidence in a court of law are too high? Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? No? Then why should we accept such a low standard for gods...something arguably more important if true?
I have made a claim, that your worldview does not make sense without first presupposing God, nor can it.Worded differently, but this is still attempting to shift the burden, Peter. It's about substantiating your own claim of the existence of a being beyond detection. The time to believe something is when it has been demonstrated.No, it is an attempt to justify my worldview (what I place my faith in) as sensible and others as not by comparison and contrast.
Again, if your proof for the Christian deity is built on the unreasonableness of all other positions, then there is no way you should have come to a conclusion. It is simply not possible that you have evaluated all other positions. Your reasoning is flawed and disingenuous.
Don't be so obtuse and/or dishonest. Observation lead to deference to *Occam's razor* and *methodological naturalism*...not whatever you wish to put after "Observation?"Dishonest?The simplest explanation is God. The simplest explanation is that personal beings derive their existence from other personal beings.
A single super complex "explanation" (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than multiple sensible explanations.
An object or mindless thing? How is that a person? The object of worship (what we focus on) is a Person, not a thing or inanimate object. Only a personal being can prescribe. An object like a rock or a table cannot.
A subject can be an object? If a subject is the object in your objective morality...wouldn't that make your morality subjective?
Look, you as an atheist are left to a very limited view of the world, the universe, existence, morality. Since you disavow God or gods as lacking evidence you would answer ultimate questions or questions of existence and how things operate from the standpoint of naturalism and empiricism. That means that you have one option in looking at the world, the universe, through a naturalistic explanation. That is how you do look at the world. You discount God, or gods otherwise you would not be an atheist. God or chance still stands.Me, as a professor of faith in Jesus Christ would have a combination of options; this God alone, supernaturally, this God through natural means, or this God through both natural and supernatural means. The Bible reveals God alone, supernaturally. I argue that is the most plausible and reasonable explanation.
You demonstrate you do not understand atheism. For me, it is a derivation of evaluating my former beliefs and finding them wanting - not a starting place as you continue to assert. I don't reject gods as a possibility, I just don't view them as very probable given the sad state of evidence in their favor. I also don't discount the supernatural as a possibility, but until it can be demonstrated there is little reason to build it into an epistemology and/or a life philosophy.
As an atheist, all the options you listed are available to me as well, but I have one more: nature alone. We have only ever found what was was thought supernatural to be poorly understood nature, and never ever has the supernatural been confirmed. If you or anyone wants me to accept their (supernatural) beliefs, then attacking well-accepted standards of evidence, knowledge, or our well-founded understanding of reality is not the way to go. You'll need to do better than that.
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@PGA2.0
Much like the Biblical god (or any god), Voldemort has never been established to exist in the real world. As such, very little is 'necessary' to judge either.[...] many people throughout history have thought of God as self-evident. That is worth exploring. What has made them think this way?
Many people use to think the Sun revolving around the Earth was self evident...what many people think isn't exactly a strong standard of evidence. ;-)
"No evidence" is not my position. What evidence there is... is insufficient. Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?"Faith is the basis for my belief." [...] We both have faith.
Still not an answer, unless you're admitting to faith to a poor standard of evidence.
This is still attempting to shift the burden. You have the misguided idea that if you can disprove my views (or more correctly, what you *think* my views are), your belief will be true by default, but that's not how the burden of proof works. Your beliefs are either true or not true. If you cannot bear the burden of showing your belief true, then you remove the burden from me and everyone else of accepting it - it get's dismissed.I have made a claim, that your worldview does not make sense without first presupposing God, nor can it.
Worded differently, but this is still attempting to shift the burden, Peter. It's about substantiating your own claim of the existence of a being beyond detection. The time to believe something is when it has been demonstrated.
You're back to the false dichotomy I have already shown to be flawed thinking.No, you have not. You have not shown how any other worldview is more viable, more reasonable.
False dichotomy: God (the Christian god) or chance. There are thousands of other options. You need to update your argument to reflect this if you mean to have an honest discussion.
Shifting the burden, again. Substantiating your claims would be much much easier than refuting thousands of other options.You were the one who claimed there are other options. I claimed that other options are not reasonable and invited you to pick one and demonstrate it is more reasonable or even in the slightest bit reasonable. Now, you are welcome to believe something that is irrational or inconsistent. But once you make the claim, which you did, I ask for you to demonstrate it as reasonable.
Pointing out errors in your reasoning is not making a claim. There ARE thousands of options for origins - this is simply a statement of fact. Hone your argument to account for this.
You seem blissfully unaware that it is observation that leads us to accept Occam's razor and methodological naturalism. I wasn't referring specifically to Biblical prophecy, but now that you mention it, Irenaeus is additional evidence.Observation? Where do you observe personal being coming from something devoid of personhood?
Don't be so obtuse and/or dishonest. Observation lead to deference to *Occam's razor* and *methodological naturalism*...not whatever you wish to put after "Observation?"
A object or mindless thing is descriptive, not prescriptive. It just is.Is your god an object or a subject? Tell me again about your 'objective' source for morality...Okay. My God is revealed as personal, omniscient, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal, thus objective and the object of our worship.You've created a special category for your god: an object that has a mind. You've found yet another broken logical path that won't get you to the destination you think it maps to.How is that? Support your claim and make it clearer as to what you mean.
Follow along now: You said an object or mindless thing can't be prescriptive (no ought can be derived), and then you made god into an object that can prescriptive. Cool trick, bro...special pleading (and nonsensical)...but still, cool trick.
Chattel slavery...the kind of slavery where people are treated as property rather than people.20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property."^ --- Like that.It seems you object to it when done by the Egyptians, but find it acceptable when codified by the god of the Bible through Moses. What a confused position. I'll ask again. Is slavery wrong? Why, or why not?Again, you have to understand the ANE and the practices of those times to understand the biblical narrative on this subject.
No. A god claimed to be the basis of morality should know one person owning another as property is wrong. Embarrassingly, your argumentation is actually attempting to justify codified slavery in the Bible.
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@PGA2.0
do you or Matt have what is necessary to judge the biblical God?Yep, just like I have what it takes to judge Voldemort. ;-)No idea what that means since I have never watched or read Harry Potter.
Much like the Biblical god (or any god), Voldemort has never been established to exist in the real world. As such, very little is 'necessary' to judge either.
"No evidence" is not my position. What evidence there is... is insufficient. Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?I am convinced your position comes from ignorance. You have probably read very little on prophecy or Preterism while I have around thirty books on the subject of Preterism alone and more on prophecy.
This doesn't answer the question.
That's literally the definition of shifting the burden. It's not my job to disprove your claim - it's your job as the claimant to substantiate it.It ties together. I am looking for your justification. I am contrasting my worldview with yours. I'm saying that it takes more credulous faith on your part than mine in that my position can make sense of origins, yours can't
This is still attempting to shift the burden. You have the misguided idea that if you can disprove my views (or more correctly, what you *think* my views are), your belief will be true by default, but that's not how the burden of proof works. Your beliefs are either true or not true. If you cannot bear the burden of showing your belief true, then you remove the burden from me and everyone else of accepting it - it get's dismissed.
I say that each one of those thousand options, of which you have not identified one as viable, are deadends that lead back to the two options - God or chance happenstance.
You're back to the false dichotomy I have already shown to be flawed thinking. You're stuck in the script, man. This commitment to willful ignorance is why I will engage your words less and less.
Identify another option so we can discuss its reasonableness in making sense of origins and how it holds together in logical consistency. Not so easy-peasy, right?
Shifting the burden, again. Substantiating your claims would be much much easier than refuting thousands of other options.
Here's one possibility that is way more likely: 'prophecy' was written after the event. This has conforming to the laws of nature and simplicity as strong arguments in its favor.Easy to say, but which position is more reasonable to believe based on the evidence available? It is not yours. The late date position or argument is based largely on a doubted statement by Irenaeus.
You seem blissfully unaware that it is observation that leads us to accept Occam's razor and methodological naturalism. I wasn't referring specifically to Biblical prophecy, but now that you mention it, Irenaeus is additional evidence.
A object or mindless thing is descriptive, not prescriptive. It just is.Is your god an object or a subject? Tell me again about your 'objective' source for morality...Okay. My God is revealed as personal, omniscient, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal, thus objective and the object of our worship.
You've created a special category for your god: an object that has a mind. You've found yet another broken logical path that won't get you to the destination you think it maps to.
Do you think slavery is wrong? Why or why not?What do you mean by slavery?
Chattel slavery...the kind of slavery where people are treated as property rather than people.
20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property."
^ --- Like that.
It seems you object to it when done by the Egyptians, but find it acceptable when codified by the god of the Bible through Moses. What a confused position. I'll ask again. Is slavery wrong? Why, or why not?
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@TheUnderdog
We agree on expanding contraceptive access as a means of reducing abortion. Its refreshing to see a pro-lifer (?) hold this informed position.
I think personhood should be attached to the capacity for fully humanlike consciousness and (as I understand it) all the structures necessary for this are not fully developed until 6 months or so. However, at most, I would advocate 5 months as the cutoff to be sure there is no abortion performed (involving two persons) without good reason. That being said, I don't have an issue with the ~25 weeks cut-off for non-emergency or abortions without severe fetal abnormality, but if we were going to change it I would be in favor of less restrictive rather than more restrictive.
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This was hardly a debate. Trump found himself unable to respect the "2 minutes uninterrupted". Wallace was unable to control the debate. Biden was unable to rise above the chaos. It was a very poor showing for our presidential contenders.
Overall, I think few minds were changed or informed and see little reason for more debates.
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@PGA2.0
Sye was a weak debater, IMO, but on the point, do you or Matt have what is necessary to judge the biblical God?
Yep, just like I have what it takes to judge Voldemort. ;-)
I have said there is all kinds of evidence that backs the biblical claim.
"No evidence" is not my position. What evidence there is... is insufficient. Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?
I am not shifting the burden. I've asked you to go into these "other options." I've asked you to show God is not necessary.
That's literally the definition of shifting the burden. It's not my job to disprove your claim - it's your job as the claimant to substantiate it.
When you propose it is reasonable that chance happenstance is your maker
I didn't propose this - that's a strawman. I've actually said there are thousands of options besides chance and whichever one is demonstrated I will accept. All you have to do is provide sufficient evidence for your god, and I will share your belief. Easy-peasy, right?
And how can prophecy be easily explained without God?
Here's one possibility that is way more likely: 'prophecy' was written after the event. This has conforming to the laws of nature and simplicity as strong arguments in its favor.
A object or mindless thing is descriptive, not prescriptive. It just is.
Is your god an object or a subject? Tell me again about your 'objective' source for morality...
[...] why should I hold the Bible as an authority on morality?Because it is reasonable to believe and God is a necessary being for morality.
Why should I believe that?
There are many things codified, condoned, or otherwise not objected to that we (when not related to the Bible) would consider to be wrong.Wrong by God or a human, and what? Wrong by whom and why are they the standard?
Do you think slavery is wrong? Why or why not?
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@PGA2.0
I agree that Matt's opponent, Sye, did not present a great defence.
He literally provided *no defense* saying if he provided evidence for god he would be "putting man as the judge over god". OF course, it's not "God" that is making the claim, but (in this case) Sye. This is a cop-out answer.
I agree with Matt and Sye that we do begin with presuppositions.
I agree we begin with presuppositions. That is something that has already been addressed in this thread.
Matt attacks Sye on the claim that God reveals things to us (everyone) in ways that we can be certain. Matt asks, how it works? I claim it works on the impossibility of the contrary, that blind indifferent chance does not have what is necessary to make sense of existence, the universe, morality, absolutes, the uniformity of nature.
And that is where our common ground falls away. The 'impossibility of the contrary' fails because it assumes your own claim has been substantiated (attempts to shift the burden) AND that there are only 2 options: God or chance. This has been addressed in the thread.
I asked you how it is possible for you to be certain, in a world where God does not exist, about your beginnings, your existence, the existence of the universe, morality?
Again, you are assuming your own conclusion true, AND suggesting ignorance regarding origins prevents one from reasonable certainty that they (or the universe) exist or that there are acts which work better/worse for making a better world. You need to substantiate your claims.
I have claimed prophecy is one reasonable and logical justification for God's existence.
True enough - you have MADE the claim and attempted to argue from a very limited view. What you haven't done is consider how prophecy can be easily explained without a god. Your argument can't see the the forest for the trees.
I have argued that moralism needs more than moral relativism as its justification. Your subjective feelings or preferences do not explain why something is good, the ought of goodness.
I don't subscribe to relativism (you should know this by now), AND even if your god existed you can't get an ought from "I believe God is".
And there is a moral lesson in the Bible.
Maybe there is, but why should I hold the Bible as an authority on morality? There are many things codified, condoned, or otherwise not objected to that we (when not related to the Bible) would consider to be wrong.
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@PGA2.0
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@PGA2.0
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1. Those making a claim have the burden to substantiate it. If they cannot (or refuse), then their claim cannot be dismissed in this alone.
...then their claim *can* be dismissed on this alone.
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@PGA2.0
Yes, you have exchanged those God beliefs for other beliefs. Atheism is not a void. Your worldview now BELIEVES that "methodological naturalism" explains or is the likely explanation of origins. It believes that humanism or human thought is the authority on origins and evolution (to some extent).
What beliefs did I exchange my god-belief for? Methodological naturalism? No, I already had that. Humanism? No, I already had that. Skepticism? No, again, I already had that. Just because you have a god-belief and lack these views doesn't mean they cannot co-exist in a worldview including a god.
Atheism is a justifiable position given the inability of believers to bear the burden of their god claims - not an irrational presupposition akin to those preferred by some religious dogmatists.Justifiable position on what? You presuppose more than the believer does. You presuppose that chance happenstance is able to do something.
This is flawed in 2 ways:
1. Those making a claim have the burden to substantiate it. If they cannot (or refuse), then their claim cannot be dismissed in this alone.
2. If I state "I don't know", I presuppose nothing. Also, chance isn't the only option other than god, but I'll get into that a little more below.
What options outside of the god/chance are you willing to entertain?Either God, chance, or illusion. What is more reasonable?
Actually, there are many more options than that. Even if we discount the Christian deity, there are still thousands of other 'revealed' and deistic deities. Also, it is possible deterministic forces explain origins (this is especially true of life) and was an inevitability of Chemistry and/or the environment. SO, the options you allow exponentially underestimate the possibilities.
Skepticism in God is usually part of the atheists repertoire. Skepticism does not answer the worldview questions but pleads ignorance. Atheism does. Worldviews attempt to answer four or five ultimate questions. Skepticism does not. I don't think skepticism is a worldview. You can't live by 'I don't know.' Skepticism as a worldview can only say, 'I don't know' and plead ignorance. Skeptics live as if they do know. They live inconsistently with 'I don't know.' You don't know yet your comments speak of knowing. Skeptics usually reject God. You reject the biblical God. How can an 'I don't know' skeptic believe the Bible is not true?
I agree skepticism is not quite enough on it's own and other views like humanism help to fill out a worldview. What skepticism has going for it that faith does not is that it is a pathway to knowledge. It is through skeptical inquiry that we learn new things or show dubious or false claims. You love to attack "I don't know", but this is a mistake in my opinion. The more we learn about the world around us, the more we realize how much we don't know. I do not follow your apparent position that anything less than absolute certainty leaves an individual in some sort of black hole of ignorance. We all function with ignorance AND knowledge, and admitting ignorance in one limited field doesn't negate all possible knowledge. It also doesn't mean someone who claims absolute certainty gets a pass on whatever they believe to be true.
I'm not sure what ultimate questions you think atheism seeks to answer...at its core, it is a negative answer to one question: do you believe in gods? There is no "atheist epistemology", no "atheist morality", no "atheist origins", no "atheist purpose of life". Of course atheists can have have answers to these questions, but it's not derived from atheism. Also, I was a skeptic before I was an atheist, so that rant about skepticism and ignorance lacks some nuance unless you're mean to have it apply to Christian skeptics as well....
I haven't "adopted naturalistic means" to explain origins.You deny God. Without God what do you have left???
I reject YOUR preferred deity. There are still plenty of options besides naturalistic means (of course I think this is the most likely), but any option that can be demonstrated to be true is the one I will accept.
I'm not speaking of how to interpret the Bible.But you did speculate. You said there are perhaps thousands of ways to interpret the Bible. I explained that the Bible speaks of a correct way. It does not depend on a private interpretation. It depends on gleaming the right interpretation for God's word to make perfect sense.
What's your point? Speculation=/=interpretation.
You are wrong. Tell me of anyone you know who can predict hundreds and hundreds of specific prophecies that find fulfillment in one Person and one nation. Show me how the unity of over 1500 years of time and over forty different authors can predict so much about history that is fulfilled in AD 70. Explain away the OT canon as written after AD 70. That is not what recorded history reveals as reasonable to believe. Show me how it is more reasonable to believe even one NT canon writing was written after the fall of Jerusalem. Your view is the weak evidence, not mine.
Well, THAT is what I offered to debate before you went rambling through the fields of rabbits trails about Biblical interpretation. Are you alright, man?
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@PGA2.0
Worldviews weigh evidence. Do you have no belief about God? You have all kinds of beliefs about God.
Yes, but not because of atheism. Atheism (for me) is something I have arrived at by evaluating my previous beliefs and the claims of believers. Atheism is a justifiable position given the inability of believers to bear the burden of their god claims - not an irrational presupposition akin to those preferred by some religious dogmatists.
BS. I did not say they were the only two. What does skepticism have to do with the two main paradigms? You have stated that you fit into one of those two camps - you identify with atheism. That means you look to and have adopted naturalistic means in explaining origins.
What options outside of the god/chance are you willing to entertain?
Skepticism is a worldview (unlike atheism).
I haven't "adopted naturalistic means" to explain origins. "I don't know" isn't an explanation. I do think it will likely be explained through natural processes and not magic, but there's still hope for ya! :-p
One side can and does make better sense of life's ultimate questions/origins.
Magic can explain anything and (because of this) nothing. That is the very reason why conclusions derived from methodological naturalism makes so much more sense.
Yet you stick your nose into it then back away. It is not that we always agree as believers, it is whether there is a correct interpretation that can be demonstrated from the text, not from what one reads into the text.
How did the Bereans check to see if what Paul said was true? They went to Scripture. You should do the same when you are speaking of how to interpret it.
I'm not speaking of how to interpret the Bible. That's your cross to bear (pun intended). I have been saying prophecy is weak evidence for god because of (better sit down for this) non-Biblical reasons...
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@PGA2.0
It may not be the principle you first started with but it is the starting principle of a worldview, the foundation on which you build a worldview, the cornerstone or core that everything rests upon.
Worldviews are not built on non-beliefs. Sheesh, Peter, you've really gone off the deep end haven't you?
You sift everything through that paradigm. You can start in two main ways - God/gods or chance happenstance.
False dichotomy. Skepticism, for example, works with both (or neither) options..
And to have that skepticism you have to have beliefs about God or else you would not be skeptical and would be building on total ignorance. It is hard to be skeptical of nothing or alternatively everything.
Having a belief built on insufficient evidence doesn't make one knowledgeable. It makes them credulous.
I think atheism can be viewed as silence and the various god beliefs as particular pitches. Not believing C to be the correct pitch does not mean F# is. It means you need to study the music a little more (in silence).Silence? You are not silent. You fight against Christianity and religious beliefs. You have to believe something about them to voice an opinion against them. And you have lots of opinions.
Its an analogy, Peter. I'm not actually silent. You should be familiar with this concept as an interpreter of Biblical passages and prophecy.
You think there is no correct interpretation. Try debating that, will you. Put your money where your mouth is.
For the record, I think there might be thousands of 'correct interpretations', and I see no reason to favor one over another, at least, not in any objective sense. I still have no interest debating interpretation of your Holy book. That is a debate for believers. When you can all agree on one interpretation, let me know - I'll debate that. :-)
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@PGA2.0
Here is your starting principle, you does not believe in God or gods.
Well, its not a "starting principle" necessarily, but I agree to the rest which you clearly understand as "not belief". Not belief=/=belief. You're agreeing with me.
Do atheists have beliefs? Yes, of course, but not because of atheism. For me, atheism is a result of skepticism, not the other way around. I think atheism can be viewed as silence and the various god beliefs as particular pitches. Not believing C to be the correct pitch does not mean F# is. It means you need to study the music a little more (in silence).
Convince you that your interpretation of scripture is wrong? It seems to me that by admitting "the Word of God" needs to be interpreted by you, you've already conceded the basis of pretty much everything you argue for...If you think you can make a case that I misinterpret Scripture I invite you to demonstrate I have done so. I remind you that your previous attempt was pathetic. [...] IMO, the reason you won our debate on the subject of prophecy is because of the mindset of the judges. You have many like-minded people who cannot divorce reason from herd-mentality and group-think, in spite of the arguments put forth.
You acknowledge the necessity of interpretation and place yourself as the arbiter of it. Again, you're agreeing with me.
Subjective interpretation! Says you. Do you believe there is no objective interpretation of the Bible?
Who on Earth determines an objective interpretation of the Bible? How could we test that interpretation for validity without more interpretation? Interpretation is necessarily subjective. What methodology can be used to determine your interpretation is the correct one?
Objective evidence? What scientist was there at the beginning?
Objective evidence is something that can be dispassionately tested by others which points strongly to one conclusion over another. The age of the Earth and life evolving by natural selection are backed by objective evidence. On the other hand, the 'creation of the universe' is not, and cannot pass even your own standard - no human existed to witness the claimed creation event.
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@RoderickSpode
Two parents allow their kid to stay home alone for the first time. They tell him "If you make a mess, clean it up". The having to clean up is conditional. The parents are not advocating making a mess. I'm sure they prefer he doesn't. But they are providing the solution, or the next step IF he should make a mess.
I don't think this is a good analogy because the Bible holds that the slave is property and living bodies tend to heal themselves (the mess cleans itself if the injuries aren't too severe). Perhaps a better analogy would be a plow horse. 'if you beat your plow horse, then...'. Given that slaves were living property, this analogy is a much closer representation, imo.
It should also be noted that there are conflicting punishments. Per the Bible, if I kill my slave I die as punishment, but if you kill my slave, you owe me 30 pieces of silver. I think this has to do with one 'slave' being a Hebrew servant and the other being a foreign slave (and not dependent on who killed them), but I would need to do some research to verify. Either way, the problematic part is that the slave IS property.
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@PGA2.0
It is obvious to those who use their brains that one interpretation is confirmed by the pages of Scripture. I challenged you to back up your position that Scripture is not its own interpreter.
That's not my position. My position is that the Bible is essentially a literary rorschach. Finding support for a particular view is not all that surprising or impressive.
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I see we've arrived at the point where YOU tell someone else what their beliefs are in a confused understanding of agnosticism and atheism. Atheism is not a belief system (it is a lack of a god-belief), and agnosticism and atheism are not mutually exclusive positions (one can be an agnostic atheist).They are belief systems. They are not formed in a vacuum. You have to believe something to be an atheist. Your belief negates some other belief.
You don't have to believe anything to be an atheist. Atheism has no doctrines or popes and is not meant to be a replacement for theism or a worldview. Atheism is nothing more than 'a (not) - theism'...there is no belief involved, at least not an "atheism" that applies to all atheists. You are confused.
If you want to know my beliefs, just ask specific (and coherent) questions.What kind of atheist are you?
Is this you asking about my beliefs or trying to argue about labels? Let me help you - I am a skeptic. Skepticism is the part of my worldview which led to my atheism.
Ok. Not that this makes any difference - A worldwide flood didn't *cause* all the rock layers either. Your sources only mention one type of rock (sedimentary) and neglect igneous and metamorphic rock. Polystrate fossils are explained by the source you provided.Dogmatic of you.So what, to that statement?"Fossils, the preserved remains of animal and plant life, are mostly found embedded in sedimentary rocks. Of the sedimentary rocks, most fossils occur in shale, limestone and sandstone.""Sedimentary and igneous rocks began as something other than rock. Sedimentary rocks were originally sediments, which were compacted under high pressure. Igneous rocks formed when liquid magma or lava—magma that has emerged onto the surface of the Earth—cooled and hardened. A metamorphic rock, on the other hand, began as a rock—either a sedimentary, igneous, or even a different sort of metamorphic rock. Then, due to various conditions within the Earth, the existing rock was changed into a new kind of metamorphic rock."
What's your point here? You've admitted the Bible is your authority...
I said I favour a young earth interpretation of Scripture just as I favour full Preterism. If you can convince me long periods of time is reasonable to believe go ahead. You are not my authority, Scripture is, so convince me from Scripture that I wrongly interpret it.
Convince you that your interpretation of scripture is wrong? It seems to me that by admitting "the Word of God" needs to be interpreted by you, you've already conceded the basis of pretty much everything you argue for...
What we are mainly debating is which position, Christianity or atheism is reasonable to believe.
No. At most it would be a debate over Christianity or not-Christianity, but that doesn't describe this discussion - I'm not arguing against Christianity, but rather a particular belief of some Christians which puts priority on a subjective interpretation of the Bible over objective evidence of the world.
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@PGA2.0
If you researched Pastafarianism (or listened to what I've said multiple times) you would understand that it is meant to be absurd to make the point that what someone believes (sincerely or not) in the absence of objective evidence has no place in public school science curriculum. Additionally, Pastafarianism is no mask - I openly admit to being an atheist (*eye roll*).Do you actaully hold to the Flying Spaghetti Monster as the creator? No, you use it to lampoon Christianity. Behind this label use, you are an atheist. That is your true belief. Are you still a soft atheist (agnostic) or are you now a hard atheist?
You're basically saying the same thing I just said, except you seem to think Pastafarianism is in opposition to Christianity. I'd say that is a view completely discounting any nuance regarding objection to other religions being injected into science curriculum and/or the appropriate consideration of religious texts and its affect on literature or culture in relevant subjects, but whatever - it's all about YOUR beliefs.
I see we've arrived at the point where YOU tell someone else what their beliefs are in a confused understanding of agnosticism and atheism. Atheism is not a belief system (it is a lack of a god-belief), and agnosticism and atheism are not mutually exclusive positions (one can be an agnostic atheist). If you want to know my beliefs, just ask specific (and coherent) questions.
Yes. Floods do not organize rocks into layers.That is not what I said. I said, "a worldwide flood (catastrophism) caused the rock layers." I said the Flood CAUSED the rock layers to form, not organize rocks into layers.
Ok. Not that this makes any difference - A worldwide flood didn't *cause* all the rock layers either. Your sources only mention one type of rock (sedimentary) and neglect igneous and metamorphic rock. Polystrate fossils are explained by the source you provided.
Looking over your sources, I see some that you're using presumably endorse an ancient Earth. Clearly, those sources don't agree with your conclusions. Other sources hold the Bible as the ultimate authority and all scientific conclusions must conform to it. [Statement of Faith] The priority is not following the evidence, but following the belief. I believe this to be your position as well which makes addressing this 'evidence' pointless because it does not inform your beliefs. Your beliefs inform your evidence.
This brings to mind a quote from Sam Harris: 'If someone doesn't value evidence, what evidence are you going to provide to prove that they should value it?". Seriously. What point could continuing this discussion serve if you have no interest in evidence?
I'm intrigued by the absurdity of this argument. 'Naturalistic origins can be tested, but not observed'...which is still superior to a position which cannot be tested or observed.Not in the case of origins. We can watch and test natural processes in the present and near past, but not in the distant past. Origins spose the same problem for both of us. You have to construct a model and then test its feasibility.
Again, only one of our views is interested in being tested. Secondly, I'm surprised to see you concede the "near past" as testable. How do you determine that the near past is different than the distant past ...other than your incredulity at a distant past?
As I understood it, there were two debates being discussed. One regarding the 'reasonableness of prophecy as evidence' and one over interpretation of prophecy. The former I dislike the proposition; the latter I'm not interested in.You can't have the one without the other. You need a correct interpretation that is verifiable by Scripture (and to some extent history) for prophecy to be reasonable.Scripture needs to be consistent with scripture? Nice tautology. "Reasonable" is the least relevant word in that sentence.Not at all. When you are interpreting a passage of Scripture it is good to compare it with other Scripture to find the meaning.
I think you're missing my point. Prophecy itself is a problematic evidence even if it can be understood as perfectly consistent with a particular scriptural interpretation...
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@PGA2.0
I find your faith amusing too! Pastafarianism is downright absurd and I would debate you on its absurdity if I cared or wanted to do the research on it. From the little I have read I do not find it reasonable enough to spend much time on. It is an adjusted copy-cat with major flaws, IMO. It does not interest me as a credible worldview. I think it is a shield or tag you hide behind that masks your agnosticism or soft atheism.
If you researched Pastafarianism (or listened to what I've said multiple times) you would understand that it is meant to be absurd to make the point that what someone believes (sincerely or not) in the absence of objective evidence has no place in public school science curriculum. Additionally, Pastafarianism is no mask - I openly admit to being an atheist (*eye roll*).
Is it unreasonable to believe that a worldwide flood (catastrophism) caused the rock layers and fossil record quickly, rather than gradually?
Yes. Floods do not organize rocks into layers. They especially don't organize fossils (or extant life) from simple to complex. There are a number of problems with a worldwide flood (especially within the last few thousand years), but these are a few that come to mind off the top of my head.
Origins can be explained in more than one way yet it is only naturalism that is examined or considered valid. Although the claims can be tested they cannot be verified through observation of the occurrence.
I'm intrigued by the absurdity of this argument. 'Naturalistic origins can be tested, but not observed'...which is still superior to a position which cannot be tested or observed.
As I understood it, there were two debates being discussed. One regarding the 'reasonableness of prophecy as evidence' and one over interpretation of prophecy. The former I dislike the proposition; the latter I'm not interested in.You can't have the one without the other. You need a correct interpretation that is verifiable by Scripture (and to some extent history) for prophecy to be reasonable.
Scripture needs to be consistent with scripture? Nice tautology. "Reasonable" is the least relevant word in that sentence.
Your beliefs have already been revealed to be (at least partially) false in regards to the age of the Earth and evolution.You are creating a narrative again, that what I believe is false, based on your assertion.
These particular beliefs of yours run contrary to facts of the world. That's not my narrative, but your beliefs literally running against reality as we know it.
There is only certainty in origins if God has revealed. God is not inconsistent with what is necessary for certainty.
Universe creating pixies is not inconsistent with what is necessary for certainty....magic makes everything plug and play. Be absolutely certain if you must, but this reasoning does not warrant it.
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@Greyparrot
Well...since over half of registered voters are going to be voting for Trump in November [...]
Are they - how do you figure?
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@PGA2.0
Do you not understand what happened in Nazi Germany and in oh so many dictatorships is the same thing taking place in your country through a massive bombardment of dis and misinformation? You are feeding off a bunch of lies under the guise of the Democrat Party. Do you know of the coming coup if Trump wins? They are already prepping you.
See here, The coming Coup
Dis and misinformation? If this is what informs your views, you're aiming that description in the wrong direction:
Dan Bongino
- Overall, we rate Bongino.com Questionable based on far right wing bias, promotion of propaganda and unproven conspiracies, as well as a complete lack of transparency and a few failed fact checks.
Detailed Report
Reasoning: Right Bias, Conspiracy, Propaganda, Lack of Transparency, Failed Fact Checks
Country: USA
World Press Freedom Rank: USA 48/180
World Press Freedom Rank: USA 48/180
History
Founded in 2015, Bongino.com is the website for the Dan Bongino podcast show. Dan Bongino is an American conservative commentator, radio show host, author, former congressional candidate, and former Secret Service agent. He is a member of the Republican Party and ran unsuccessfully for Congress in 2012, 2014, and 2016. The website does not feature an about page, mission statement, author names or ownership, thereby demonstrating a complete lack of transparency.
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@PGA2.0
You ASSUME that rational or reasoning faith cannot be a justified true belief (knowledge). Says you. Why are you the arbitrator of what is knowledge?
That's amusing. Faith in a young Earth (for example) is not a justified true belief. If you take issue with that particular belief not being considered knowledge, then simply show it's validity exists outside your head to the wider world. It's not about what I consider knowledge, but about belief making it above a minimum standard established long ago. It shouldn't be about bringing standards of knowledge down, but bringing the quality of our beliefs up.
I continually argue that the Bible God is knowable and knowledge in Him is reasonable, what He says is justifiable. I gave you the opportunity to argue against this knowledge in the form of prophecy and how reasonable it is to believe. You declined. So, how can I demonstrate to you something you are not willing to explore or reason against?
As I understood it, there were two debates being discussed. One regarding the 'reasonableness of prophecy as evidence' and one over interpretation of prophecy. The former I dislike the proposition; the latter I'm not interested in.
You continually say, as does ludofl3x, I don't know, I don't care. Thus you have created the impass, not me. I am willing to discuss whether what I believe is reasonable and whether I have knowledge of such a God.
Your beliefs have already been revealed to be (at least partially) false in regards to the age of the Earth and evolution. It is interesting to note the certainty with which you hold these known false beliefs matches the certainty with which you hold your other less testable claims. Absolute certainty so often seems to run hand in hand with ignorance and flawed epistemologies.
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@PGA2.0
Prove it.You come from a position of "I don't know." You have demonstrated you do not have what is necessary to know. You can point to many people, scientists, who propose a reason for origins, but their opinions are conflicted. The origin of the universe is built on models that best fit the data available but there are many anomalies within these models. So, there is no surety as to what actually happened.For surety of origins, we are not necessary beings. We were not there. We assume that the present is the key to the past because that is our gauge to the distant past. We look at data and interpret it from the present (the past four hundred years). It is a relatively recent 'science.' Human history and records is a relatively short time frame in a supposed 14 billion year universe, if that is your paradigm you build from.What would be necessary? The being would have to be a personal being who was there and transcends the time, space, matter universe, who created the universe and understands it in all it aspects. If that being has revealed we can know. Now if that being was omniscient but changing could we then know? How would we be sure that being was not lying to us? Thus, that being would have to be immutable, without change. That being would have to be omnibenevolent or else there would be no guarantee that the being would lie.
That's interesting. You're suggesting justified true beliefs (knowledge) must be built on an unjustified belief (faith). In other words, what can be demonstrated is built on something that cannot be demonstrated.
We both work from core presuppositions.
I assume we both presuppose logical absolutes. You go a step further and presuppose a god as the basis of the absolutes...which is unnecessary if we presuppose logical absolutes. Isn't it entirely possible that some things just are without a reason why?
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@PGA2.0
An omniscient, immutable Being who has revealed is necessary.
Prove it.
Who knows the truth about origins?Knowing the truth about origins is not possible unless God exists and has revealed. Throughout human history the speculation is still going on and strong.Which conscious mind(s)? Yours? Who are you referring to? You admitted you don't know. So, who does? If they do, why don't you trust them as truthful? Remember, you admit that you do not know.
I see no reason to accept you *know* anything about origins beyond anyone else. You have origin stories which cannot be shown true. Plus, knowing origins has nothing to do with knowing reality as it is. It's a non sequitor.
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Why should we care about what's "more reasonable" if that reasoning doesn't establish truth?Because you are dismissing what is necessary for truth. That is why you should care. Chance is not necessary or sufficient. It explains nothing.
Why is a god necessary for truth? Do you think there can be no truth if there were no gods? (this is a 'yes' or 'no' answer). No one that I know of appeals to chance as the basis for truth...or anything. Even assuming chance, truth isn't contingent on it. Conscious minds are necessary for something to be recognized as true... not chance. You're still tracking down a logical path which doesn't reach the conclusion you think it should. (Composition fallacy again methinks.)
Okay, so is that a no?Do you agree that prophecy is reasonable to believe?
That's a "no".
I think prophecy *can* be reasonable to believe under certain circumstances (such as with limited information). I personally don't find prophecy reasonable because I understand there are many ways prophecy can be 'fulfilled' without the need for a god or anything supernatural.
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I agree, Skep, you can have reasoned conclusions, that can be wrong, but are they more reasonable than the alternative?
Why should we care about what's "more reasonable" if that reasoning doesn't establish truth?
True enough. I just thought you might like the challenge. You did accept it twice before as a devil's advocate.
I remember no one voting on the first one which kinda makes me think it's too tedious for potential voters to sort out or interest was limited. Maybe, two Christians with a vested interest in the subject would be more interesting for all involved.
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I'm not a fan of the wording. In particular, "reasonable" isn't clear enough for my liking. Perhaps 'Prophecy provides sufficient evidence for the Biblical God' or 'The Biblical God is rationally justified by prophecy.The whole purpose or aim of highlighting reason is to contrast the two opposite positions against each other as to which gives better and more logical explanations.
The reason I dislike the use of "reasonable" is because it can fall on both sides of the debate. Someone can come to reasonable -and wrong- conclusions when they lack crucial information. For this reason, I consider my suggestions to be more precise and preferable.
All unfulfilled biblical prophecy has its fulfillment by AD70.That could be another heading for a debate. I like it.Jerusalem, and the temple, is key to understanding prophecy and the transition between the OT and NT. Is that reasonable to believe? I was originally going to challenge a Christian who holds to a futuristic view of prophecy (such as Dispensationalism, Millennialism, Amillennialism, etc) to showcase which view is more reasonable.
You should challenge a Christian on this proposition. Why would an atheist argue the proper way to interpret prophecy? It holds no value for most non-believers.
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Title: Prophecy is a reasonable evidence for the Biblical God.
This is a proposition. (paragraphs are not debate propositions)
I'm not a fan of the wording. In particular, "reasonable" isn't clear enough for my liking. Perhaps 'Prophecy provides sufficient evidence for the Biblical God' or 'The Biblical God is rationally justified by prophecy.
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@PGA2.0
What has been demonstrated is that people find a particular paradigm reasonable, but it is not from its starting of the chain of events or the ability for the apparatus (chance happenstance) to do so.
Chance is your master.
The difference is your and my starting point - God or chance.
...that does not mean a giant leap from a whale to a pig that can be traced through the fossil record.
Your worldview does not have what is necessary to make sense of life's most important questions.
Thus, you hide from God.
In your case, a shaky foundation that you have no justification for. My belief is so much more reasonable and logicL than yours because of where I start.
I've already corrected a number of these, but if you can't break yourself out of the script, I see no reason to continue, Peter. Its clear you're not absorbing what I'm saying.
Thats the problem with a faith-based epistemology: absolutely anything can be accepted with absolute certainty with absolutely no verifiable evidence. You've denied epistemological limits and, in the process, have sacrificed knowledge on the altar of belief.
Thanks for the conversation! Perhaps, we can hash out the details on the debate mentioned earlier.
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Maybe you'll need to narrow the subject to *a* phophecy rather than all prophecies. After all, we will need to be able to cover this in a single debate.
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No only one person, but around 40 different authors all centering on different aspects of the Messiah or the coming judgment of Israel.
You must be drawing from the OT with that number of authors. Given that Jesus wasn't mentioned by name in the OT, I'd say that's begging the question a bit.
Let's see a *concise* proposition for this proposed debate, and we can go from there.
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It is more reasonable to believe the writings (a.k.a. prophecies) were written at or after the fall of the temple rather than accepting the laws of nature having been turned on their head.No, it is not more reasonable. It would be a great topic of debate to highlight the reasons for each side of the issue, similar to our debates of the past on Matthew 24 and Revelation.
Doesn't seem like much of a debate. The choices are 'someone recorded history after the fact' or 'someone predicted the future'. I bet historians don't normally have difficulty making these type of decisions...unless it's in the Bible. ;-P
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How is 'kinds' in conflict with 'facts.' Whose facts? Why are they facts?
Ok, in reverse order: Because they have been demonstrated to be true. Facts belong to no one...or everyone - however you want to look at it. All life is related (a tree of life) - Kinds would have groups of related life unrelated to each other (an orchard of life).
God gives us a reason for the first cause, the origin or start of the universe. Thus, the Christian worldview has an adequate explanation and can make sense of origins. It has what is necessary. Do not tell me it does not have what is necessary or rational unless you can back it up reasonably and logically. Go ahead.
The Christian creation is a story. Stories don't provide 'what is necessary or rational'. The only difference between our positions is that I don't pretend to have all the answers.
I'm curious how you reject some evidence and accept other. Would it be incorrect to describe your priority as presuppositions and not the evidence?I reject it based on the starting point, the core presuppositions are not logical or reasonable.
Presuppositions then.
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Uniformitarianism uses the layers of rock as support of the dating process. The fossil type and rock layer they are found in are also used in determining age also. Then the current rates and processes of soil deposits, erosion, and decay that build up and tear down these layers are assumed to be the same or similar to those of the past. Then there is the problem of how millions and billions of fossils are deposited in these rock layers by Uniformitarianisn, a slow gradual process. Rather, millions and billions of fossils point to catastrophism.
I generally agree with your description of the evidences for Uniformitarianism (with the caveat that there are many corroborating natural clocks besides those mentioned) . I don't follow your assertion that fossils argue against this or how they alone are sufficient evidence to counter evidence for Uniformitarianism.
Finally, without God, what is the cause of consistency and uniformity of nature in a chance happenstance universe? How does chance happenstance sustain anything? Why would it do so? Why do laws exist for uniformity? To study how, the why is important.
Why would we expect consistency and uniformity to be unnatural...other than your incredulity at a natural consistency and uniformity?
By measuring the ratio of the radio isotope to non-radioactive carbon, the amount of carbon-14 decay can be worked out, thereby giving an age for the specimen in question.But that assumes that the amount of carbon-14 in the atmosphere was constant — any variation would speed up or slow down the clock.Since the 1960s, scientists have started accounting for the variations by calibrating the clock against the known ages of tree rings. As a rule, carbon dates are younger than calendar dates: a bone carbon-dated to 10,000 years is around 11,000 years old, and 20,000 carbon years roughly equates to 24,000 calendar years.
The problem, says Bronk Ramsey, is that tree rings provide a direct record that only goes as far back as about 14,000 years. Marine records, such as corals, have been used to push farther back in time, but these are less robust because levels of carbon-14 in the atmosphere and the ocean are not identical and tend shift with changes in ocean circulation.
First, we were talking about the consistency of the decay rate - this doesn't challenge that. As for calibration, sure. We want to make sure we have accurate dates. Out of curiosity, how does one calibrate Biblical interpretations? Finally, Carbon-14 is too short-lived to measure the age of the Earth, so the relevance is questionable...maybe I don't get the point you're driving at.
"I don't follow how that is explained?" is a question. I am asking you to provide a naturalistic explanation since ......which you are now attempting to take out of context. You originally stated this question suggesting I had labeled your reasoning broken without explaining it (which I did...more than once). You were not asking me to provide a naturalistic explanation in this part of our conversation. I don't mind you asking questions of me, Peter, but I very much dislike the pretense I've avoided a question you didn't ask.Here is your OP and that context:ME: "Confirmation bias. Also, you are not speaking of science but scientism. It requires blind faith that what you identify as happening in the present was also happening in the past, that the ingredients were similar and recognizable."YOU: "Given that I accept evidence which is not scientific in nature, scientism doesn't apply. Blind faith would mean believing without evidence - do you deny the evidence accumulated within your own life, your parents, grand parents, human history? At the very least, we should be able to agree there is some evidence supporting Uniformitarianism. I don't understand what you mean by 'similar and recognizable ingredients' - are you suggesting there was dissimilar and unrecognizable ingredients? If so, where did they go?"ME: "I don't follow how that is explained? You provided a label without an explanation."YOU: "Do you understand that hydrogen and oxygen, neither of which are wet, combine to make water, which IS wet? When you suggest the absence of consciousness, rationality, morality (whatever) in the individual ingredients of life as a defeator for consciousness, rationality, morality (whatever) being natural, you are relying on the composition fallacy. It's simply a fact that the whole sometimes has attributes beyond that of the parts. You're reasoning is flawed."
Wow, Peter. You've edited our conversation to reflect a different context. Here is the un-edited conversation pulled from directly from post #110:
If humanity has a beginning there are ultimately one of two alternatives, their cause is something unreasoning and illogical or reasoning being caused them.I don't agree to that dichotomy. It could be the cause of life was absent reason/rationality, or unreasoning/illogical, or with reason/rationality. Not one of these options disallows our reasoning and logical abilities. Hydrogen nor oxygen are wet, but they make water which is wet. Must the origin of water be wet? No, of course not.You are making a mistake in thinking the whole must have the same attributes as the parts (or the origin of the parts).Exactly, you infer it. It requires a reasoned faith. You trust that what you believe about the rate of decay is accurate and gives a good representation of what happened. Without God the question is how does something that is devoid of reason, devoid of logic, devoid of intelligence, devoid of intention and agency make anything happen???Same composition fallacy hard at work here.Deflection. When you charge my thinking as fallacious please explain your reasoning, not just the label. I'm so tired of people doing that.I explain why your reasoning was bad in the underlined above.I don't follow how that is explained? You provided a label without an explanation.
Where is your naturalistic explanation for Uniformitarianism or even how the universe began to exist and what caused that beginning? How does mentioning your parents, grandparents, etc., provide evidence for the way the universe is formed or Uniformitarianism explaining fossils, that the recent past and human history is the key to the distant past? They are not an answer to those problems.
You've got it backward, Peter. The evidence supports Uniformitarianism. You're relying on faith to deny it. The validity of the evidence can be confirmed, the validity of your beliefs cannot. Given those options, Uniformitarianism is the logical choice.
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