Total posts: 1,740
-->
@PGA2.0
There is nothing in the Bible that directly disallows abortion.There most certainly are. God says that He hates the shedding of innocent blood as the very first principle of respecting human life. That would directly disavow abortion. Then there is the principle of going forth and multiplying. Also, all human life is created in the image and likeness of God, therefore it is God's right to give and take life (human beings are only given a short time on this earth to come to or reject God), not ours. There are also numerous verses I could employ to show that God values the unborn human being.
Already addressed: "[...] I know an indirect argument against abortion can be extricated from the Bible as well, but this can hardly stand against an explicitly pro-abortion god."
On the moral aspect of abortion alone you have a see-saw of okay or not okay which begs the question of which is the correct position. How do you determine this, from an atheistic framework???
What is this 'see-saw' you refer to? My core position is simple and unchanging: there is no right to use the body of another without consent. Also, I don't determine anything from an "atheistic framework" Atheism is not a moral philosophy. Your inability to understand this is an issue you need to resolve - it holds us from having a much more meaningful conversation.
Although Christians are pro-life I never once used a God-centred argument against abortion in our debates. I don't need to. Abortion is wrong in most cases based on what is killed and upon the principle of justice.
Some Christians are pro-choice...I wonder if you think they are operating on some "atheistic framework"? And a god-centered argument related to laws in a secular nation would easily be dismantled - I assumed you knew better than to try.
Why are you only mentioning one side of the equation?
Because the "will of god" is not being used to manipulate votes and increase political power on the other side...
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Given that humanistic interests came before Christianity, it can only be that your god-based morality is fortified with humanism - not the other way around.I was a little rushed and did not have time to check over what I had written. I did not explain why I think your statement is an either/or fallacy or a false dilemma. You think that because there were humanists before there were Christians that Christianity is influenced by humanism and not the other way around, that humanism was influenced by rejecting God's moral commandments, yet choosing the same in many cases. Why does Christianity have to be centred on humanism rather than being fortified and centred on the biblical God of the OT? And why does humanism have to come before God? You first have to establish which came first.
I don't hold Christianity is centered on humanism. There is undeniably humanism within Christian morality, but this is not the focus of (fundamentalistic) Christian morality. Christian morality is about doing the will of a non-human god (as determined by humans). In the OT (and throughout history), we all too often see this 'will' benefiting those who claim to speak for god and not humanity in general. This dissonance makes clear Christian morality is not interchangeable with humanism. It's not a matter of which came first, but of the two not meshing well and knowing which came first.
It is not my position humanism came before "God" - that would require me to believe the Christian god exists...which, - *surprise!* - I don't. If you think God came before humanism, well, that's your burden. Good luck. My position is merely that humanism came before the religion from which "God" is the object of worship and that it was conscripted into a tortured marriage to said religion.
You fail to state how humanism, which works on natural explanations and human reasoning alone, can explain the ought from the is. Your moral basis continues to be shown to work on subjectivism and the subjectivist fallacy (relativism), or from borrowing from another worldview that can justify morality because it has what is necessary.
First, let me squash the notion that you can overcome the Hume's guillotine by appealing to "God is". You can't. Ought from "God is" is still an ought from an is, and there is no getting around that. Secondly, the basis of your morality is subjective not objective. From "God is" you derive God's will. This is a subjective standard. You value this and think everyone else should as well. God's will, as you understand it, disallows abortion (for instance). With God's will as the (subjective) standard, abortion is objectively wrong. If I agree to your interpretation of God's will, then you and I could objectively determine moral views. Unfortunately, we don't agree to this standard because, for me, there is insufficient evidence for belief in god.
On the other hand, a moral basis of human well-being is something generally accepted. This too is a subjective standard. With human well-being as a standard, we can objectively determine moral views which coincide with it. Fortunately, most people agree to this standard, and if they don't, well, they have no business weighing in on human morality (and I don't even think they are talking about morality).
For instance, you think that because you believe abortion is a 'woman's right to choose,' that makes it right. You think that something can be true for one person and not another, but what is true, morally speaking, must be so for all people, or you lose sight of objectivity and universality.
No, I think a 'right to choose' comes from self ownership and the right to bodily autonomy is true for all people. You're a horrible mind-reader! Maybe you should ask honest questions rather than trying to read my mind...
You have never shown that the unborn is not a human being (although you have likened it to a group of cells, or not as human), although you have degraded it of value by references of dehumanization and discrimination. You have never shown how there can be justice and equality when some humanity members are treated unequally or less than others by subjective laws. What makes that right?
Depending on the level of development, the unborn may be a group of cells...a human group of cells, and I don't need to show the unborn is not a person to argue for bodily autonomy. Being a person doesn't give you the right to use my kidneys without my consent. Likewise, being a person wouldn't give the unborn the right to use reproductive organs without consent. Anti-abortionists advocate, not for equal rights, but for special rights. How is this not 'true for one and not another' you suggested of my view? How is this equality?
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
If your argument is that morality cannot be justified without belief in the Christian god, then the fact that most people don't have that belief and act perfectly moral is a defeator (not an argument from popularity). It counters the assertion that belief in the Christian god is needed for morality.First off, they don't live perfectly moral.
Agreed - poor choice of words. Non-Christians live just as morally as Christians.
They sometimes act better than believers and act 'morally' despite not being able to justify why they should. What they do is borrow from another worldview in living life contrary and inconsistently within the bounds of their own worldview system
You attribute humanism to your god and then say non-Christians borrow from your worldview, but this is demonstrably flawed. Morality is about the well-being of humans, and humans were concerned about what actions and attitudes ensured their survival long before Christianity came to be. Christian morality is made better by humanistic interests, but the relationship is not symbiotic - Christianity is parasitic to humanism (most especially in regards to fundamentalism). Where "god's will" and humanism conflict, the former is always given dominance by the dogmatist. Case in point: attempted justification of Biblical slavery because "God".
And most through human history have believed in God or gods....an actual argument from popularity.It is just a fact.
Ok, it's just a fact most people are non-Christians (and are just as moral as Christians).
No, I have stated that I only stand for and defend the biblical God. I believe all others are fake.
Ah, so your fact above is irrelevant to your point?
If not, then this fact couldn't help you even if it weren't logically fallacious.What is fallacious about the biblical God?
You've lost the context. Argument from popularity was the context ("Most people through human history have believed in God or gods").
I have always stated there is a correct interpretation of Scripture, and I point to the Scriptures as the final standard in arguing disputes. I have reasoned that the type of slavery you are suggesting as being practiced by Israel is a misinterpretation based on several arguments, one of which is God's warning not to do what was done to them in Egypt and two, the principle of loving your neighbour. I had also argued that the 'slave' was not to be treated harshly, even when punishment was required. The slave was given the same treatment that a Hebrew was in punishment. If the slave was injured in a prescribed way, they were granted freedom. The foreign slave could be acquired in two ways, through war (thus restitution) or purchasing.
You have actually argued for slavery in the name of god ...today...so ..yea, you have no room to talk. Besides, this undermines the assertion that belief in the Christian god justifies morality.I have given sufficient reason for biblical slavery. You do not accept it, but the argument is logical. I have asked how a God who promotes love for our neighbours could also promote mistreatment of them? Again, you misread God's intent by not understanding the ANE or Scripture.
There is no such thing as "sufficient reason for slavery". You cherry pick verses and compartmentalize arguments so as to avoid the obvious broader conclusion that the Bible (and the god of the Bible) condone forced servitude, sexual slavery, and the severe mistreatment of chattel slaves. 'Neighbor' in the OT wasn't referring to the guy that lived next door, but those (men) who shared beliefs - 'neighbors' were Hebrews. With this understanding, one can love their neighbors while beating their (non-Hebrew) slave just short of death, sell their daughters as sexual concubines, take virgins as the spoils of war, etc., and there be no conflict in the law. You attempt to advance the golden rule AND argue for things which no one would want for themselves. It is you who does not understand your own Bible.
No, Hitler's antisemitism was not rooted in Christian theology.
It may not be part of *your* Christian theology, but Hitler's hatred of the Jew was rooted in *his* interpretation of Christian theology - a.k.a. the will of god.
Apartheid read into Scripture because they ignored the audience of the address.The South's view on slavery was one that God explicitly warned His people (Israel) against under the Old Covenant. God made the Old Covenant obsolete in AD 70.
It is so ironic you are arguing against the interpretation of god's will by others because you (apparently) have correctly interpreted the will of god. I think the point may be lost on you.
Even the current resistance to abortion is a manipulation of Christian theology to affect political gain.How is that?
So glad you asked. There is nothing in the Bible that directly disallows abortion. In fact, there are many instances of the Biblical god committing or condoning the destruction of fetuses and infants (Isaiah 13:18; Hosea 9:10-16; Hosea 13:!6; 2 Kings 8:12). A prescribed process to cause fetuses to be aborted as proof of adultery (Numbers 5:11-31). Life begins with "the breath of life" ie. birth (Gen 2:7). Fetuses are not persons (Ex 21:22-25). And yes, I know an indirect argument against abortion can be extricated from the Bible as well, but this can hardly stand against an explicitly pro-abortion god.
Furthermore, politician's views on abortion did not break down along party lines until the 1970's. It was Richard Nixon that first pushed a pro-abortion stance, but reversed his position specifically to attract Catholics and conservatives. Seeing his success, Republicans strategists began using an anti-abortion position to form alliances with evangelical groups and social conservatives. It was all about using an interpretation of "God's will' to attract more voters and political power.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
This claim is unfalsifiable.Not for those who are true believers.You don't seem to understand what "unfalsifiable" means.Sorry, a misunderstanding on my part.
I want to compliment you, Peter. You admit fault and you've integrated some awareness of logical fallacies into your repertoire. Kudos, sir.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
How does your personal opinion and preference make something right if you have no objective unchanging/fixed source or reference point?
How can you go north, east, west or south without an unchanging/fixed source or reference point?
P.S. Magnetic north isn't a fixed reference point - it moves.
P.S.S. Human interpretation of the 'will of God' isn't a fixed reference point either and can be used to support atrocities and oppose equality. (Holocaust, apartheid, Transatlantic slave trade)
P.S.S.S. I think you're dropping the argument: post 365. You called me out on this thread..are we done?
Created:
-->
@FLRW
Doesn't a stupid person think that a loving God created pediatric cancer?
No, not necessarily, but the idea is certainly stupid.
Created:
-->
@FLRW
In fairness, believing in a loving god doesn't make people stupid. People go from belief to non-belief (and vice versa) all the time and there is absolutely no change in their IQ.
Created:
-->
@3RU7AL
Agreed. I've pointed that out to PGA, but he continues to ignore. I thought pointing out how his own arguments don't mesh with indentured servitude might be a better approach.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
I have denied from the start that biblical slavery is the same as chattel slavery.
Yea, well, you're just wrong, and you squash your own denial when you argue for forced slavery for the purpose of conversion. I mean, seriously, if it's forced it can't be indentured servitude.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
If I try to distill your question down to something meaningful, I get something along the lines of 'How do you as a non-Christian justify morality?' This strikes me as utterly tone-deaf and arrogant given:1) most people aren't Christian.That is a fallacious argument. (argumentum ad populum)
If your argument is that morality cannot be justified without belief in the Christian god, then the fact that most people don't have that belief and act perfectly moral is a defeator (not an argument from popularity). It counters the assertion that belief in the Christian god is needed for morality.
And most through human history have believed in God or gods.
...an actual argument from popularity. Also, are you now arguing for ANY god whatsoever? If not, then this fact couldn't help you even if it weren't logically fallacious.
2) Christianity has been specifically used to justify things like slavery, Holy wars, etc,So what? People do all kinds of things 'in the name of.' That does not necessarily mean they follow the teachings.
You have actually argued for slavery in the name of god ...today...so ..yea, you have no room to talk. Besides, this undermines the assertion that belief in the Christian god justifies morality.
3) what good may be recognized in its moral views come from humanistic interests which predate and can stand apart from it.That is one way of looking at it.
Given that humanistic interests came before Christianity, it can only be that your god-based morality is fortified with humanism - not the other way around.
Any moral view? So you like Hitler's moral view regarding the Jews! You like Apartheid South Africa's view of segregation and the South's moral view on slavery, and of course, I know you like the view that it is okay to kill innocent unborn human beings. You don't quite see them up to par with other human beings.
I didn't say any moral view in general, but any moral view which puts people above the human interpretation of the will of god - that's pretty specific. Secondly, you've provided great examples of humans interpreting the 'will of god' causing problems. It seems Hitler's antisemitism was rooted in Christian theology, a 'god-given right' to control land was at the core to apartheid, and the South's moral view was perpetuated by a Biblical understanding. Even the current resistance to abortion is a manipulation of Christian theology to affect political gain.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Conversion equalled freedom! [...]Conversion is an escape from slavery and bondage just as it was in OT times. [...]So, the principle of evangelism slavery is reasonable to believe. But even if you did find this evangelistic slavery principle hard to stomach, the principle of slavery and freedom is well demonstrated in a physical sense in the OT and in a spiritual way in the NT. [...]War reparations or restitution [a.k.a slavery] was a different principle, the principle of damages owed, damages paid. [...]
It should be noted you've shifted from denying Biblically condoned slavery to offering a justification for it.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Until you are able to come up with an apples to apples comparison, there is really no defense needed.Okay, I got your meaning. Then we are comparing the applies of Christianity to the applies of atheism. Both you and I believe in morality. The question is how you validate morality as an atheist. Then, in comparing your justification with mine, which is more reasonable.
Actually, I don't think you get my meaning. Atheism isn't a moral philosophy, so your question isnt coherent - it is not a reasonable ask.
If I try to distill your question down to something meaningful, I get something along the lines of 'How do you as a non-Christian justify morality?' This strikes me as utterly tone-deaf and arrogant given:
1) most people aren't Christian.
2) Christianity has been specifically used to justify things like slavery, Holy wars, etc,
3) what good may be recognized in its moral views come from humanistic interests which predate and can stand apart from it.
So, ANY moral view which puts people above human interpretations of the 'will of a god' will be more reasonable in my view.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
I am comparing apples to oranges. Applies is Christianity; oranges is atheism.
Lol, I don't disagree. I refer you back to my previous comment:
Until you are able to come up with an apples to apples comparison, there is really no defense needed.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Would you accept spectral evidence alone to convict you of a murder you haven't committed yet?No, how could anyone be so stupid?A person cannot be convicted of a crime that has not been committed?
Haha, so it does matter who makes the prophecy and who interprets it as fulfilled? Again, you implicitly acknowledge your standard of evidence isn't near as strong as your pretend. IF spectral evidence were all that, how could you deny it...even if use against you?
Truth is the gauge by which falsehood is measured. For there to be a counterfeit there must be a real to compare the counterfeit against. Once I have the real I have the standard.
If you determine what's real by anecdote, hearsay, and spectral evidence (which you wouldn't accept to convict you of murder), then you can't really say you know what is real and counterfeit.
It is impossible that two contrary things can be true at the same time regarding the same thing.
It is possible for 2 contrary things to both be false.
Nothing can be 'simpler' than an infinite being, amIright?!That is not my argument. The explanation is simple. He merely spoke the universe into existence. Very simple in comparison to let's say the Big Bang.
The explanation has fewer words, but it is not simpler because it is contingent on an eternal omnipotent being.
Also, if you're willing to admit a subjective being can be objective...then you provide all that is needed for morality without the need for a god.I am speaking of interpretation of the Bible and in understanding others. In the case of morality I question what the objective standard you profess that excludes God. You have still to reveal that objective standard you speak of.
You weigh your actions against what you believe the Biblical god wants to objectively determine right and wrong. This is subjective. You pretend to have an objective source for morality, but you (like everyone else) have a subjective morality.
I think you, and many people, overly complicate morality. We only need to agree on something by which to measure our actions. Your preference is god. Mine is well-being.
No. I'm saying all too often what cannot be explained by our current understanding of nature is considered supernatural or attributed to it.Supernatural would exclude nature as an explanation. If it is not natural it must be a being - yes or no?
What? I don't see how that follows.
Or are you speaking of a force such as in Starwars? If a force lacks personhood what can it do and would that force not be considered natural too, since it owes no explanation to personhood?
I'm simply pointing out that the supernatural lays claim to an increasingly smaller slice of the cosmos as our knowledge of nature increases.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Consider other verses which show the God of the Bible does not consider other peoples equal to Israel. (The notion of "God's chosen people" speaks to this)The verses I provided make that distinction clear (Exodus 21 and Leviticus 25:44-46).You ignore other verses that clarify what God expected in the treatment of others. And in no way was the treatment the same as in Egypt or other ANE cultures. It was better. As already pointed out, and you cannot deny it for it is Scripture, a 'slave' must be bought, not kidnapped from other lands. Kidnapping was punishable by death. That meant that a slave would have to agree to serve a Hebrew master.Egyptian slavery was a bondage and oppression that God never wanted Israel to duplicate. It was a type of servitude that God forbade. Time and time again, God wants us to treat others as we want others to be treated. If you are blessed by wealth and can afford to hire others God still wants you to treat them with respect and dignity.
It seems your primary argument against Biblically condoned slavery is that 'it couldn't be slavery because slaves must be bought/ kidnapping is disallowed', suggesting Biblical slavery was always voluntary and some form of indentured servitude. You also point to verses referring to 'foreigners which live among you' being treated with respect as though foreigners were to always to be treated as equal to Israelites. This is simplistic cherry picking oblivious to what the Bible actually allows.
Non-Israelite slaves were permanent property and could be acquired by purchase (Lev 25:44-46) or captured during war (Deut 20:14). Yes, kidnapping Hebrews to enslave them is punishable by death (Deut 24:7), but there is no such restriction regarding foreigners - war captives is a case in point of foreigners literally being kidnapped as slaves (Deut 21:10-15). The OT is very much against slavery of "God's people", but this did not extend to non-Hebrews. Indentured servitude was available to Hebrew men, but everyone else was subject to some form of slavery as we commonly understand the term.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@secularmerlin
@Tradesecret
There were atheists long before there was any human understanding of or scientific consensus on the matter of evolution. That invalidates your theory.Saying god made all the stuff doesn't tell us how or why there is stuff so your hypothesis offers no useful answers.
Agreed.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Also, as related to this thread, atheism/theism are not moral philosophies....neither are reasonable from a moral standpoint. In your thread you drop the theistic ambiguity and name Christianity, which is a moral view, but again, you compare it to atheism which is not a moral philosophy. The comparison itself is not reasonable.Its like you're pitting "Kumbaya" against silence and asking which is better music. There is a category error in the comparison.I only defend one moral theistic position for I believe that the many contrary positions cannot all be true/valid. Thus, I always point to the Christian God.
Then it shouldn't be too hard for you to concede you are not defending theism but a particular view which falls under the label of theism. Additionally, if theism (a broad belief in god) is not a moral view, then atheism (a broad non-belief in god) is not a moral view either. Until you are able to come up with an apples to apples comparison, there is really no defense needed.
/end thread.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Tradesecret
Despite arguments to the contrary - Atheists believe in doctrines and dogmas.
Perhaps, but not because of atheism (there are no 'atheist doctrines or dogmas').
An atheist chooses not to believe in God despite the evidence to the contrary.
Beliefs are informed by reasons...sometimes good reasons and sometimes bad. The reasons compel belief - there is no 'choice'. This is the same for theists and atheists.
Yet, an atheist MUST believe in the doctrine of EVOLUTION. There is no contrary doctrine.
How do you explain atheists who reject evolution? Are you suggesting they are not real atheists?
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
No, I would not want to be found guilty on anecdotal evidence or hearsay. I fail to see how that ties in with God. God has given all kinds of reasonable evidence, of which you are brushing off. I offered to debate you on the subject of prophecy, as to its reasonableness.
Prophecy would fall under 'spectral evidence' which you've noticeably neglected to mention, but this too is not admissible in a court of law. Would you accept spectral evidence alone to convict you of a murder you haven't committed yet? I seriously doubt it. It seems you understand the standard of evidence you're advocating is insufficient for a court of law which would certainly make it insufficient to 'convict' the Biblical god of existence. Something to think about...
You are being ridiculous. One object plus another object equals two objectives. 1+1=2. It does not equal something else. If Christianity is true then all other gods and religious beliefs (of which I include atheism as a belief) are false. It is as simple as that. But it is difficult to convince and unbeliever since they have invested their whole outlook on another system of thought. Therefore, I have challenged you, based on atheism, to show yours is more reasonable than my Christian belief in the area of morality, of which you have to date avoided doing.
In that case, your reasons for belief are not impossibility of the contrary. How can you argue impossibility of the contrary without evaluating the "contrary"? Aren't you just assuming the truth of your view without going through the standard you claim?
I provided a response to your challenge in post #238.
You are confusing God as a person with God as an explanation. God as an explanation is simple.
Nothing can be 'simpler' than an infinite being, amIright?!
How does 'subject' apply to God? I think you are confusing two different things, that a subjective being cannot be objective. Then how does God qualify? He knows all things. How would His knowledge be subjective?
Is it your position an omniscient being is incapable of subjectivity? How would you square that with the Biblical god having a "chosen people"?! Also, if you're willing to admit a subjective being can be objective...then you provide all that is needed for morality without the need for a god.
Are you saying that something supernatural is not personal,
No. I'm saying all too often what cannot be explained by our current understanding of nature is considered supernatural or attributed to it.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
Yes, Israel experienced chattel slavery in Egypt.
Per the Bible, Israel experienced chattel slavery in Egypt. This was never in contention.
No, He did not codify chattel slavery. He forbid Israel from practicing the same harsh treatment that Israel experienced in Egypt.
The verses you provide taken alone might be used to support your interpretation, but this is very much cherry picking. Consider other verses which show the God of the Bible does not consider other peoples equal to Israel. (The notion of "God's chosen people" speaks to this)The verses I provided make that distinction clear (Exodus 21 and Leviticus 25:44-46). I could provide others, but I don't think you're open to that possibility. Of course, if you are I can provide verses which may broaden your interpretation.
God orders the Israelites to make a distinction between the Hebrew servants and the those of foreign nations. They were:
· Allowed to 'buy' (not take!) slaves from foreign nations around them...· Finally, it should be noted that the passage says that they "can" make them slaves for life--not that they "were automatically" slaves for life. Somehow, freedom was the default and lifetime slavery only an 'option'.The Great Escape Clause…?
Deut 23.15 has this fascinating passage:
If a slave has taken refuge with you, do not hand him over to his master. 16 Let him live among you wherever he likes and in whatever town he chooses. Do not oppress him. (Deut 23.15)..."A slave could also be freed by running away. According to Deuteronomy, a runaway slave is not to be returned to its master. He should be sheltered if he wishes or allowed to go free, and he must not be taken advantage of (Deut 23:16-17). This provision is strikingly different from the laws of slavery in the surrounding nations and is explained as due to Israel's own history of slaves. It would have the effect of turning slavery into a voluntary institution."Remember also, Exodus 21:16 forbids kidnapping, thus a slave would have to be bought, per above, thus not against their will.
The mental gymnastics here is impressive. 'Lifetime slavery is only an option' - who's option - the master or the slave. (Hint - it's not the slave). This alone is a concession that the Bible does codify slavery.
Created:
-->
@secularmerlin
@PGA2.0
@3RU7AL
@Dr.Franklin
I'm still waiting on that reply, Peter.
Also, as related to this thread, atheism/theism are not moral philosophies....neither are reasonable from a moral standpoint. In your thread you drop the theistic ambiguity and name Christianity, which is a moral view, but again, you compare it to atheism which is not a moral philosophy. The comparison itself is not reasonable.
Its like you're pitting "Kumbaya" against silence and asking which is better music. There is a category error in the comparison.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Intelligence_06
That doesn't answer my questions. Your post seems to be stating those that do bad should stop...isn't that tautological? What makes something too critical or too literal from a Biblical perspective?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Lemming
Agreed.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Lemming
Lol! Well, that's as clear as mud. Would you care to be more explicit?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Lemming
Depending on context, yes, I'm thinking.
Great. What are the answers to my questions?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Lemming
1. Are atheists REALLy nitpicking..or pointing out what requires little interpretation?2. Are theists REALLY interpreting the Bible too literally...how do you know?'Some of them. But both terms atheist and theist, encompass such large groupings, it can't 'quite be applied. Except in reference to those 'some of them.
Seems pedantic to me, but, sure *some*atheists and *some* theists as applicable. Does that get us closer to an answer?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Intelligence_06
Let's get to something interesting:
1. Are atheists REALLy nitpicking..or pointing out what requires little interpretation?
2. Are theists REALLY interpreting the Bible too literally...how do you know?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Intelligence_06
Get some sleep. Good luck on your test results.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
I justify God allowing Israel to experience chattel slavery in Egypt as a typological lesson on what bondage is. As pointed out, I justify the type of slavery or servitude practiced in Israel as different from New World slavery or ANE slavery, a cut above. I did this in Post # 223.
That makes no sense. God allowed Israel to experience chattel slavery....and then codified chattel slavery into Mosaic law? If God was trying to teach Israel a lesson regarding chattel slavery..then why would it be condoned...by God?! This reasoning doesn't stand up.
God: You see, Israel, chattel slavery denies basic human dignity.
Israel: Yes, God, we see. We'll never do that to anyone.
God: No, No!! You've got that wrong - You'll never do that to MY people. Everyone else is fair game.
Israel: Oh...uh..ok.
39 “‘If any of your fellow Israelites become poor and sell themselves to you, do not make them work as slaves. 40 They are to be treated as hired workers or temporary residents among you; they are to work for you until the Year of Jubilee. 41 Then they and their children are to be released, and they will go back to their own clans and to the property of their ancestors 42 Because the Israelites are my servants, whom I brought out of Egypt, they must not be sold as slaves. 43 Do not rule over them ruthlessly, but fear your God.
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
Do you think the standards of evidence in a court of law are too high? Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? No? Then why should we accept such a low standard for gods...something arguably more important if true?It depends on what you are referencing.
This doesn't answer my question - what I am referencing is right there in the questions.
Again, if your proof for the Christian deity is built on the unreasonableness of all other positions, then there is no way you should have come to a conclusion. It is simply not possible that you have evaluated all other positions. Your reasoning is flawed and disingenuous.I don't have to evaluate all possibilities on the impossibility of the contrary.
Well, yah, actually you do. If your view is that no other view is possible, then you necessarily need to know all other views.
A single super complex "explanation" (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than multiple sensible explanations.How is that super complex? God!
God, by your own definition, is infinite. That makes god as an explanation infinitely complex. Occam's razor favors multiple explanations given that they are infinitely less complex.
A subject can be an object? If a subject is the object in your objective morality...wouldn't that make your morality subjectivev?I have already discussed this with you in previous posts on the other thread. This is a definist or equivocation fallacy. [...]
So, a subject is or isn't the basis of your objective morality?
You demonstrate you do not understand atheism. For me, it is a derivation of evaluating my former beliefs and finding them wanting - not a starting place as you continue to assert. I don't reject gods as a possibility,Not true, you do reject Him by looking at the universe in a solely mechanical or mythological naturalistic way. There is not supernatural consideration involved.
Mythological naturalism? I think that would describe your view better than mine! It is your own black and white thinking that has you confused. You are conflating all gods as the one you believe in - I don't. Also, if someone can define supernatural as something other than "unexplained by our current understanding of nature" and demonstrate it, I would accept it. Spend less time pigeonholing, and you might make some progress changing a mind...perhaps your own.
I just don't view them as very probable given the sad state of evidence in their favor. I also don't discount the supernatural as a possibility, but until it can be demonstrated there is little reason to build it into an epistemology and/or a life philosophy.You keep saying that. Demonstrate is rather than assert it.
I've already stated what the evidence is "anecdote, hearsay, and spectral evidence". This bring us back to the question you dodged: Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? If not, then you concede the point.
As an atheist, all the options you listed are available to me as well, but I have one more: nature alone. We have only ever found what was was thought supernatural to be poorly understood nature, and never ever has the supernatural been confirmed.Yet you have failed to justify how nature alone is capable of explaining anything regarding origins - origins of our existence, the existence of the universe, the existence of conscious beings from things devoid of consciousness, the existence of moral rights and wrongs.
Black and white thinking again - I literally said all options (not just nature) are available to me, and the one that can be demonstrated is the one I will accept. Why are you attacking one of those options rather than *demonstrating* yours? Perhaps nature isn't the answer, but then again perhaps nature and the Christian god both are not the answer. It's not an either nature or the Christian god scenario. Invalidating nature as an option (which you haven't done) doesn't make the Christian god true...
If you or anyone wants me to accept their (supernatural) beliefs, then attacking well-accepted standards of evidence, knowledge, or our well-founded understanding of reality is not the way to go. You'll need to do better than that.Cop-out - well worn cliches. I do not find your standards of evidence acceptable when it comes to origins.
It's not *my* standards of evidence. It is what humanity has learned from observation to be reasonable. Be careful what you throw away to maintain your beliefs - that way lies madness.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Everything you've described is in regards to slavery amongst Jews - indentured servitude. Obviously, there are still serious issues with this type of slavery. Jews could be owned by other Jews permanently if a master provides a wife the slave does not want to leave (Exodus 21:5). Slavery was more or less voluntary for Jewish men and was generally no more than a 6 year term to pay off debt or acquire something valuable. So, even in its least objectionable form, Biblical slavery is still troubling (women are property, and men can become permanent slaves to stay with wife and family - exploitation.
Beyond this, Jewish women and foreigners (that weren't Jews) slavery was not voluntary and slaves *were* property to the exclusion of their humanity. Women were sold into sexual slavery. The " The odd mixture of 'slave' words and 'marriage' words" are explained quite simply by 'sexual slavery'. It wasn't voluntary and it was permanent - unless the woman "didn't please her master" (Exodus 21:7-10). So, the statement "Forced enslavement of Hebrews was punishable by death." isn't true if we allow Hebrew women to be considered. Chattel slaves were to come from the surrounding nations (ie. foreigners), their slavery was non-voluntary and permanent (Leviticus 25:44-46). This is explicitly stated and not contradicted by commands to "love foreigners in your midst" either. These rules were meant for Jews and that would include foreigners who had converted (and not the heathens from the nations which surround you).
Keep in mind, this part of our conversation started because you accused me of judging Biblical slavery by modern standards. Given that your god is claimed to be immutable and the basis of morality - that seems only fair. But the real issue, is that you (or those which inform your views) have obviously judged Biblical slavery immoral seeing as how it is all conflated to the least objectionable type. The Bible condones chattel slavery - are you willing to defend that? If not, then you should re-evaluate your moral basis.
39 “‘If any of your fellow Israelites become poor and sell themselves to you, do not make them work as slaves.(A) 40 They are to be treated as hired workers(B) or temporary residents among you; they are to work for you until the Year of Jubilee. 41 Then they and their children are to be released, and they will go back to their own clans and to the property(C) of their ancestors.(D) 42 Because the Israelites are my servants, whom I brought out of Egypt,(E) they must not be sold as slaves. 43 Do not rule over them ruthlessly,(F) but fear your God.(G)
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
44 “‘Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.
Created:
-->
@PGA2.0
This does not address my post. Link
...Especially as related to standards of evidence, burden of proof, Biblical slavery, and the moral relativism of slavery being justified by "it was a different time and culture".
The last part has direct relevance to this diversionary thread as it contradicts your claimed objective morality.
If it weren't clear, I'll be waiting on your complete response before I dive into anything else.
- -->@PGA2.0The OT standards exceeds the ANE standards, for the ANE standards were the standard that Israel witnessed in the cultures around them, the standard they had experienced in Egypt, the world OT Israel lived in, the world they understood. God's best is always truth and freedom, justice and compassion for those who do right. Doing right is a problem for we all fall short of His standard, the glory that is God. Thus, He works within our fallenness. He chose a people out of the nations and cultures of that time where cruel slavery was a common practice, such as in Egypt. He worked within that system. BUT, the kind of slavery experieinced by Israel in Egypt and the chattel slavery of cruelty was not what God wanted Israel to observe and practice. God strictly spoke against such treatment. IF you read the article by Glenn Miller you would further understand this, yet you continue to act as if you did not. That article is very good in making the distinctions clear. It has a section, section 2, that covers property, a part of which I quoted from. You ignored it. Here it is again:The notion that Biblical slavery is only indentured servitude is simply false. The Bible advocates indentured servitude only in the case of Hebrew men. Hebrew women and foreigners were subject to permanent sexual/chattel slavery (respectively) which is made clear in Exodus 21-7-8 and the very verse supplied in the article [Link]. There is a distinction made between Hebrew men, women, and the heathen of the pagan nations - different rules applicable to each and the latter two undeniably slavery.Even if indentured servitude is an accurate description, it would still not justify different rules for these servants as compared to free persons. An eye for an eye is the Biblical rule for full persons, but a slave losing an eye gets freedom and the owner loses a slave - not an eye. If a servant is killed by negligence (gored by a bull), the owner of the Bull has to pay 30 shekels rather than pay with his life as he would if the victim were not a slave. You've equated Biblical slavery to employment, but would you really accept these rules from your own employers or those of your family and friends? The idea that the Bible provides advocacy for slave's personal rights and/or human dignity is a laughable distortion.Finally, the argument that 'it was a different time and culture' is an appeal to moral relativism. I thought god was supposed to be the basis of an objective morality? This argumentation undercuts one of your core arguments regarding the superiority of a moral system with a god as the basis.Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?Insufficient in what way?Do you think the standards of evidence in a court of law are too high? Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? No? Then why should we accept such a low standard for gods...something arguably more important if true?I have made a claim, that your worldview does not make sense without first presupposing God, nor can it.Worded differently, but this is still attempting to shift the burden, Peter. It's about substantiating your own claim of the existence of a being beyond detection. The time to believe something is when it has been demonstrated.No, it is an attempt to justify my worldview (what I place my faith in) as sensible and others as not by comparison and contrast.Again, if your proof for the Christian deity is built on the unreasonableness of all other positions, then there is no way you should have come to a conclusion. It is simply not possible that you have evaluated all other positions. Your reasoning is flawed and disingenuous.Don't be so obtuse and/or dishonest. Observation lead to deference to *Occam's razor* and *methodological naturalism*...not whatever you wish to put after "Observation?"Dishonest?The simplest explanation is God. The simplest explanation is that personal beings derive their existence from other personal beings.A single super complex "explanation" (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than multiple sensible explanations.An object or mindless thing? How is that a person? The object of worship (what we focus on) is a Person, not a thing or inanimate object. Only a personal being can prescribe. An object like a rock or a table cannot.A subject can be an object? If a subject is the object in your objective morality...wouldn't that make your morality subjective?Look, you as an atheist are left to a very limited view of the world, the universe, existence, morality. Since you disavow God or gods as lacking evidence you would answer ultimate questions or questions of existence and how things operate from the standpoint of naturalism and empiricism. That means that you have one option in looking at the world, the universe, through a naturalistic explanation. That is how you do look at the world. You discount God, or gods otherwise you would not be an atheist. God or chance still stands.Me, as a professor of faith in Jesus Christ would have a combination of options; this God alone, supernaturally, this God through natural means, or this God through both natural and supernatural means. The Bible reveals God alone, supernaturally. I argue that is the most plausible and reasonable explanation.You demonstrate you do not understand atheism. For me, it is a derivation of evaluating my former beliefs and finding them wanting - not a starting place as you continue to assert. I don't reject gods as a possibility, I just don't view them as very probable given the sad state of evidence in their favor. I also don't discount the supernatural as a possibility, but until it can be demonstrated there is little reason to build it into an epistemology and/or a life philosophy.As an atheist, all the options you listed are available to me as well, but I have one more: nature alone. We have only ever found what was was thought supernatural to be poorly understood nature, and never ever has the supernatural been confirmed. If you or anyone wants me to accept their (supernatural) beliefs, then attacking well-accepted standards of evidence, knowledge, or our well-founded understanding of reality is not the way to go. You'll need to do better than that.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Another thread would be preferable.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
FYI, I'm waiting on your complete response to my post before I reply. Have a good evening.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@MisterChris
Thanks for the input! I wasn't familiar with all of these, so I'm researching as I go.
Subpoint A: GeologySediments:Some sediments appear to be removed as tectonic plates slide slowly (an inch or two per year) beneath continents. An estimated 1 billion tons of sediments are removed this way each year. The net gain is thus 19 billion tons per year. At this rate, 1,300 feet of sediment would accumulate in less than 12 million years, not billions of years!
The problems with this clock: not all continental sediment reaches the ocean floor; geological processes are not consistent. Some sediment is caught up in river deltas, continental shelves, slopes, or suspended in the ocean for years. It is also not reasonable to expect erosion or subduction to operate at consistent paces over millions of years. [Link] This one was clever - I liked it.
Rock layers:There are whole sequences of these hardened sedimentary rock layers being bent and folded, but without fracturing. [...] The heat and pressure would have transformed these layers into metamorphic rocks. Yet Tapeats Sandstone is still sandstone, a sedimentary rock!
I assume since your were playing devil's advocate, you know this is false? Sedimentary rock can be deformed without melting.
Subpoint B: AstronomyFaint Sun Paradox:Evidence now supports astronomers’ belief that the sun’s power comes from the fusion of hydrogen into helium deep in the sun’s core, but there is a huge problem. As the hydrogen fuses, it should change the composition of the sun’s core, gradually increasing the sun’s temperature. If true, this means that the earth was colder in the past. In fact, the earth would have been below freezing 3.5 billion years ago, when life supposedly evolved.
It actually means the Earth received less heat from the sun, not that the Earth would have been below freezing.
Comets:A comet spends most of its time far from the sun in the deep freeze of space. But once each orbit a comet comes very close to the sun, allowing the sun’s heat to evaporate much of the comet’s ice and dislodge dust to form a beautiful tail. Comets have little mass, so each close pass to the sun greatly reduces a comet’s size, and eventually comets fade away. They can’t survive billions of years.
I'm curious if this was directed at an actual claim by old Earth proponents? I imagine your source was probably relying on information provided by old-earthers.
Subpoint C: PaleontologyA recent discovery by Dr. Mary Schweitzer [...] It is quite literally impossible for such detail to be preserved for 65 million years.
This argument is pretty much obligatory for the young Earth argument isn't it? ;-)
Contention 2: Unlikelihood of Big Bang/Old EarthOccam’s Razor states that that which has the fewest adjustable parameters should be chosen. However, the Big Bang theory opposes Occam’s Razor, because it can only exist with innumerable adjustable parameters.
Another obligatory argument methinks. How many 'adjustable parameters' would a creator have (and how would we know)? A infinitely complex explanation (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than ANY natural explanation.
Again, thanks for sharing your debate - I learned some new arguments for a young Earth.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@Intelligence_06
This is directed at a particular group who believe the Earth to be between 6-10 thousand years old.
Created:
Posted in:
...and why should I accept your belief as true?
Make your best argument.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
The OT standards exceeds the ANE standards, for the ANE standards were the standard that Israel witnessed in the cultures around them, the standard they had experienced in Egypt, the world OT Israel lived in, the world they understood. God's best is always truth and freedom, justice and compassion for those who do right. Doing right is a problem for we all fall short of His standard, the glory that is God. Thus, He works within our fallenness. He chose a people out of the nations and cultures of that time where cruel slavery was a common practice, such as in Egypt. He worked within that system. BUT, the kind of slavery experieinced by Israel in Egypt and the chattel slavery of cruelty was not what God wanted Israel to observe and practice. God strictly spoke against such treatment. IF you read the article by Glenn Miller you would further understand this, yet you continue to act as if you did not. That article is very good in making the distinctions clear. It has a section, section 2, that covers property, a part of which I quoted from. You ignored it. Here it is again:
The notion that Biblical slavery is only indentured servitude is simply false. The Bible advocates indentured servitude only in the case of Hebrew men. Hebrew women and foreigners were subject to permanent sexual/chattel slavery (respectively) which is made clear in Exodus 21-7-8 and the very verse supplied in the article [Link]. There is a distinction made between Hebrew men, women, and the heathen of the pagan nations - different rules applicable to each and the latter two undeniably slavery.
Even if indentured servitude is an accurate description, it would still not justify different rules for these servants as compared to free persons. An eye for an eye is the Biblical rule for full persons, but a slave losing an eye gets freedom and the owner loses a slave - not an eye. If a servant is killed by negligence (gored by a bull), the owner of the Bull has to pay 30 shekels rather than pay with his life as he would if the victim were not a slave. You've equated Biblical slavery to employment, but would you really accept these rules from your own employers or those of your family and friends? The idea that the Bible provides advocacy for slave's personal rights and/or human dignity is a laughable distortion.
Finally, the argument that 'it was a different time and culture' is an appeal to moral relativism. I thought god was supposed to be the basis of an objective morality? This argumentation undercuts one of your core arguments regarding the superiority of a moral system with a god as the basis.
Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?Insufficient in what way?
Do you think the standards of evidence in a court of law are too high? Would you be willing to be found guilty of murder based on anecdote, hearsay, or spectral evidence? No? Then why should we accept such a low standard for gods...something arguably more important if true?
I have made a claim, that your worldview does not make sense without first presupposing God, nor can it.Worded differently, but this is still attempting to shift the burden, Peter. It's about substantiating your own claim of the existence of a being beyond detection. The time to believe something is when it has been demonstrated.No, it is an attempt to justify my worldview (what I place my faith in) as sensible and others as not by comparison and contrast.
Again, if your proof for the Christian deity is built on the unreasonableness of all other positions, then there is no way you should have come to a conclusion. It is simply not possible that you have evaluated all other positions. Your reasoning is flawed and disingenuous.
Don't be so obtuse and/or dishonest. Observation lead to deference to *Occam's razor* and *methodological naturalism*...not whatever you wish to put after "Observation?"Dishonest?The simplest explanation is God. The simplest explanation is that personal beings derive their existence from other personal beings.
A single super complex "explanation" (that is 'beyond our comprehension') is not more simple than multiple sensible explanations.
An object or mindless thing? How is that a person? The object of worship (what we focus on) is a Person, not a thing or inanimate object. Only a personal being can prescribe. An object like a rock or a table cannot.
A subject can be an object? If a subject is the object in your objective morality...wouldn't that make your morality subjective?
Look, you as an atheist are left to a very limited view of the world, the universe, existence, morality. Since you disavow God or gods as lacking evidence you would answer ultimate questions or questions of existence and how things operate from the standpoint of naturalism and empiricism. That means that you have one option in looking at the world, the universe, through a naturalistic explanation. That is how you do look at the world. You discount God, or gods otherwise you would not be an atheist. God or chance still stands.Me, as a professor of faith in Jesus Christ would have a combination of options; this God alone, supernaturally, this God through natural means, or this God through both natural and supernatural means. The Bible reveals God alone, supernaturally. I argue that is the most plausible and reasonable explanation.
You demonstrate you do not understand atheism. For me, it is a derivation of evaluating my former beliefs and finding them wanting - not a starting place as you continue to assert. I don't reject gods as a possibility, I just don't view them as very probable given the sad state of evidence in their favor. I also don't discount the supernatural as a possibility, but until it can be demonstrated there is little reason to build it into an epistemology and/or a life philosophy.
As an atheist, all the options you listed are available to me as well, but I have one more: nature alone. We have only ever found what was was thought supernatural to be poorly understood nature, and never ever has the supernatural been confirmed. If you or anyone wants me to accept their (supernatural) beliefs, then attacking well-accepted standards of evidence, knowledge, or our well-founded understanding of reality is not the way to go. You'll need to do better than that.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Much like the Biblical god (or any god), Voldemort has never been established to exist in the real world. As such, very little is 'necessary' to judge either.[...] many people throughout history have thought of God as self-evident. That is worth exploring. What has made them think this way?
Many people use to think the Sun revolving around the Earth was self evident...what many people think isn't exactly a strong standard of evidence. ;-)
"No evidence" is not my position. What evidence there is... is insufficient. Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?"Faith is the basis for my belief." [...] We both have faith.
Still not an answer, unless you're admitting to faith to a poor standard of evidence.
This is still attempting to shift the burden. You have the misguided idea that if you can disprove my views (or more correctly, what you *think* my views are), your belief will be true by default, but that's not how the burden of proof works. Your beliefs are either true or not true. If you cannot bear the burden of showing your belief true, then you remove the burden from me and everyone else of accepting it - it get's dismissed.I have made a claim, that your worldview does not make sense without first presupposing God, nor can it.
Worded differently, but this is still attempting to shift the burden, Peter. It's about substantiating your own claim of the existence of a being beyond detection. The time to believe something is when it has been demonstrated.
You're back to the false dichotomy I have already shown to be flawed thinking.No, you have not. You have not shown how any other worldview is more viable, more reasonable.
False dichotomy: God (the Christian god) or chance. There are thousands of other options. You need to update your argument to reflect this if you mean to have an honest discussion.
Shifting the burden, again. Substantiating your claims would be much much easier than refuting thousands of other options.You were the one who claimed there are other options. I claimed that other options are not reasonable and invited you to pick one and demonstrate it is more reasonable or even in the slightest bit reasonable. Now, you are welcome to believe something that is irrational or inconsistent. But once you make the claim, which you did, I ask for you to demonstrate it as reasonable.
Pointing out errors in your reasoning is not making a claim. There ARE thousands of options for origins - this is simply a statement of fact. Hone your argument to account for this.
You seem blissfully unaware that it is observation that leads us to accept Occam's razor and methodological naturalism. I wasn't referring specifically to Biblical prophecy, but now that you mention it, Irenaeus is additional evidence.Observation? Where do you observe personal being coming from something devoid of personhood?
Don't be so obtuse and/or dishonest. Observation lead to deference to *Occam's razor* and *methodological naturalism*...not whatever you wish to put after "Observation?"
A object or mindless thing is descriptive, not prescriptive. It just is.Is your god an object or a subject? Tell me again about your 'objective' source for morality...Okay. My God is revealed as personal, omniscient, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal, thus objective and the object of our worship.You've created a special category for your god: an object that has a mind. You've found yet another broken logical path that won't get you to the destination you think it maps to.How is that? Support your claim and make it clearer as to what you mean.
Follow along now: You said an object or mindless thing can't be prescriptive (no ought can be derived), and then you made god into an object that can prescriptive. Cool trick, bro...special pleading (and nonsensical)...but still, cool trick.
Chattel slavery...the kind of slavery where people are treated as property rather than people.20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property."^ --- Like that.It seems you object to it when done by the Egyptians, but find it acceptable when codified by the god of the Bible through Moses. What a confused position. I'll ask again. Is slavery wrong? Why, or why not?Again, you have to understand the ANE and the practices of those times to understand the biblical narrative on this subject.
No. A god claimed to be the basis of morality should know one person owning another as property is wrong. Embarrassingly, your argumentation is actually attempting to justify codified slavery in the Bible.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
do you or Matt have what is necessary to judge the biblical God?Yep, just like I have what it takes to judge Voldemort. ;-)No idea what that means since I have never watched or read Harry Potter.
Much like the Biblical god (or any god), Voldemort has never been established to exist in the real world. As such, very little is 'necessary' to judge either.
"No evidence" is not my position. What evidence there is... is insufficient. Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?I am convinced your position comes from ignorance. You have probably read very little on prophecy or Preterism while I have around thirty books on the subject of Preterism alone and more on prophecy.
This doesn't answer the question.
That's literally the definition of shifting the burden. It's not my job to disprove your claim - it's your job as the claimant to substantiate it.It ties together. I am looking for your justification. I am contrasting my worldview with yours. I'm saying that it takes more credulous faith on your part than mine in that my position can make sense of origins, yours can't
This is still attempting to shift the burden. You have the misguided idea that if you can disprove my views (or more correctly, what you *think* my views are), your belief will be true by default, but that's not how the burden of proof works. Your beliefs are either true or not true. If you cannot bear the burden of showing your belief true, then you remove the burden from me and everyone else of accepting it - it get's dismissed.
I say that each one of those thousand options, of which you have not identified one as viable, are deadends that lead back to the two options - God or chance happenstance.
You're back to the false dichotomy I have already shown to be flawed thinking. You're stuck in the script, man. This commitment to willful ignorance is why I will engage your words less and less.
Identify another option so we can discuss its reasonableness in making sense of origins and how it holds together in logical consistency. Not so easy-peasy, right?
Shifting the burden, again. Substantiating your claims would be much much easier than refuting thousands of other options.
Here's one possibility that is way more likely: 'prophecy' was written after the event. This has conforming to the laws of nature and simplicity as strong arguments in its favor.Easy to say, but which position is more reasonable to believe based on the evidence available? It is not yours. The late date position or argument is based largely on a doubted statement by Irenaeus.
You seem blissfully unaware that it is observation that leads us to accept Occam's razor and methodological naturalism. I wasn't referring specifically to Biblical prophecy, but now that you mention it, Irenaeus is additional evidence.
A object or mindless thing is descriptive, not prescriptive. It just is.Is your god an object or a subject? Tell me again about your 'objective' source for morality...Okay. My God is revealed as personal, omniscient, omnibenevolent, immutable, eternal, thus objective and the object of our worship.
You've created a special category for your god: an object that has a mind. You've found yet another broken logical path that won't get you to the destination you think it maps to.
Do you think slavery is wrong? Why or why not?What do you mean by slavery?
Chattel slavery...the kind of slavery where people are treated as property rather than people.
20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property."
^ --- Like that.
It seems you object to it when done by the Egyptians, but find it acceptable when codified by the god of the Bible through Moses. What a confused position. I'll ask again. Is slavery wrong? Why, or why not?
Created:
-->
@TheUnderdog
We agree on expanding contraceptive access as a means of reducing abortion. Its refreshing to see a pro-lifer (?) hold this informed position.
I think personhood should be attached to the capacity for fully humanlike consciousness and (as I understand it) all the structures necessary for this are not fully developed until 6 months or so. However, at most, I would advocate 5 months as the cutoff to be sure there is no abortion performed (involving two persons) without good reason. That being said, I don't have an issue with the ~25 weeks cut-off for non-emergency or abortions without severe fetal abnormality, but if we were going to change it I would be in favor of less restrictive rather than more restrictive.
Created:
Posted in:
This was hardly a debate. Trump found himself unable to respect the "2 minutes uninterrupted". Wallace was unable to control the debate. Biden was unable to rise above the chaos. It was a very poor showing for our presidential contenders.
Overall, I think few minds were changed or informed and see little reason for more debates.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Sye was a weak debater, IMO, but on the point, do you or Matt have what is necessary to judge the biblical God?
Yep, just like I have what it takes to judge Voldemort. ;-)
I have said there is all kinds of evidence that backs the biblical claim.
"No evidence" is not my position. What evidence there is... is insufficient. Anecdote, hearsay, prophecy, etc., wouldn't be sufficient to find a person guilty of murder...why would it be sufficient grounds for a person's (or god's) existence?
I am not shifting the burden. I've asked you to go into these "other options." I've asked you to show God is not necessary.
That's literally the definition of shifting the burden. It's not my job to disprove your claim - it's your job as the claimant to substantiate it.
When you propose it is reasonable that chance happenstance is your maker
I didn't propose this - that's a strawman. I've actually said there are thousands of options besides chance and whichever one is demonstrated I will accept. All you have to do is provide sufficient evidence for your god, and I will share your belief. Easy-peasy, right?
And how can prophecy be easily explained without God?
Here's one possibility that is way more likely: 'prophecy' was written after the event. This has conforming to the laws of nature and simplicity as strong arguments in its favor.
A object or mindless thing is descriptive, not prescriptive. It just is.
Is your god an object or a subject? Tell me again about your 'objective' source for morality...
[...] why should I hold the Bible as an authority on morality?Because it is reasonable to believe and God is a necessary being for morality.
Why should I believe that?
There are many things codified, condoned, or otherwise not objected to that we (when not related to the Bible) would consider to be wrong.Wrong by God or a human, and what? Wrong by whom and why are they the standard?
Do you think slavery is wrong? Why or why not?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
I agree that Matt's opponent, Sye, did not present a great defence.
He literally provided *no defense* saying if he provided evidence for god he would be "putting man as the judge over god". OF course, it's not "God" that is making the claim, but (in this case) Sye. This is a cop-out answer.
I agree with Matt and Sye that we do begin with presuppositions.
I agree we begin with presuppositions. That is something that has already been addressed in this thread.
Matt attacks Sye on the claim that God reveals things to us (everyone) in ways that we can be certain. Matt asks, how it works? I claim it works on the impossibility of the contrary, that blind indifferent chance does not have what is necessary to make sense of existence, the universe, morality, absolutes, the uniformity of nature.
And that is where our common ground falls away. The 'impossibility of the contrary' fails because it assumes your own claim has been substantiated (attempts to shift the burden) AND that there are only 2 options: God or chance. This has been addressed in the thread.
I asked you how it is possible for you to be certain, in a world where God does not exist, about your beginnings, your existence, the existence of the universe, morality?
Again, you are assuming your own conclusion true, AND suggesting ignorance regarding origins prevents one from reasonable certainty that they (or the universe) exist or that there are acts which work better/worse for making a better world. You need to substantiate your claims.
I have claimed prophecy is one reasonable and logical justification for God's existence.
True enough - you have MADE the claim and attempted to argue from a very limited view. What you haven't done is consider how prophecy can be easily explained without a god. Your argument can't see the the forest for the trees.
I have argued that moralism needs more than moral relativism as its justification. Your subjective feelings or preferences do not explain why something is good, the ought of goodness.
I don't subscribe to relativism (you should know this by now), AND even if your god existed you can't get an ought from "I believe God is".
And there is a moral lesson in the Bible.
Maybe there is, but why should I hold the Bible as an authority on morality? There are many things codified, condoned, or otherwise not objected to that we (when not related to the Bible) would consider to be wrong.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
edit:
1. Those making a claim have the burden to substantiate it. If they cannot (or refuse), then their claim cannot be dismissed in this alone.
...then their claim *can* be dismissed on this alone.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Yes, you have exchanged those God beliefs for other beliefs. Atheism is not a void. Your worldview now BELIEVES that "methodological naturalism" explains or is the likely explanation of origins. It believes that humanism or human thought is the authority on origins and evolution (to some extent).
What beliefs did I exchange my god-belief for? Methodological naturalism? No, I already had that. Humanism? No, I already had that. Skepticism? No, again, I already had that. Just because you have a god-belief and lack these views doesn't mean they cannot co-exist in a worldview including a god.
Atheism is a justifiable position given the inability of believers to bear the burden of their god claims - not an irrational presupposition akin to those preferred by some religious dogmatists.Justifiable position on what? You presuppose more than the believer does. You presuppose that chance happenstance is able to do something.
This is flawed in 2 ways:
1. Those making a claim have the burden to substantiate it. If they cannot (or refuse), then their claim cannot be dismissed in this alone.
2. If I state "I don't know", I presuppose nothing. Also, chance isn't the only option other than god, but I'll get into that a little more below.
What options outside of the god/chance are you willing to entertain?Either God, chance, or illusion. What is more reasonable?
Actually, there are many more options than that. Even if we discount the Christian deity, there are still thousands of other 'revealed' and deistic deities. Also, it is possible deterministic forces explain origins (this is especially true of life) and was an inevitability of Chemistry and/or the environment. SO, the options you allow exponentially underestimate the possibilities.
Skepticism in God is usually part of the atheists repertoire. Skepticism does not answer the worldview questions but pleads ignorance. Atheism does. Worldviews attempt to answer four or five ultimate questions. Skepticism does not. I don't think skepticism is a worldview. You can't live by 'I don't know.' Skepticism as a worldview can only say, 'I don't know' and plead ignorance. Skeptics live as if they do know. They live inconsistently with 'I don't know.' You don't know yet your comments speak of knowing. Skeptics usually reject God. You reject the biblical God. How can an 'I don't know' skeptic believe the Bible is not true?
I agree skepticism is not quite enough on it's own and other views like humanism help to fill out a worldview. What skepticism has going for it that faith does not is that it is a pathway to knowledge. It is through skeptical inquiry that we learn new things or show dubious or false claims. You love to attack "I don't know", but this is a mistake in my opinion. The more we learn about the world around us, the more we realize how much we don't know. I do not follow your apparent position that anything less than absolute certainty leaves an individual in some sort of black hole of ignorance. We all function with ignorance AND knowledge, and admitting ignorance in one limited field doesn't negate all possible knowledge. It also doesn't mean someone who claims absolute certainty gets a pass on whatever they believe to be true.
I'm not sure what ultimate questions you think atheism seeks to answer...at its core, it is a negative answer to one question: do you believe in gods? There is no "atheist epistemology", no "atheist morality", no "atheist origins", no "atheist purpose of life". Of course atheists can have have answers to these questions, but it's not derived from atheism. Also, I was a skeptic before I was an atheist, so that rant about skepticism and ignorance lacks some nuance unless you're mean to have it apply to Christian skeptics as well....
I haven't "adopted naturalistic means" to explain origins.You deny God. Without God what do you have left???
I reject YOUR preferred deity. There are still plenty of options besides naturalistic means (of course I think this is the most likely), but any option that can be demonstrated to be true is the one I will accept.
I'm not speaking of how to interpret the Bible.But you did speculate. You said there are perhaps thousands of ways to interpret the Bible. I explained that the Bible speaks of a correct way. It does not depend on a private interpretation. It depends on gleaming the right interpretation for God's word to make perfect sense.
What's your point? Speculation=/=interpretation.
You are wrong. Tell me of anyone you know who can predict hundreds and hundreds of specific prophecies that find fulfillment in one Person and one nation. Show me how the unity of over 1500 years of time and over forty different authors can predict so much about history that is fulfilled in AD 70. Explain away the OT canon as written after AD 70. That is not what recorded history reveals as reasonable to believe. Show me how it is more reasonable to believe even one NT canon writing was written after the fall of Jerusalem. Your view is the weak evidence, not mine.
Well, THAT is what I offered to debate before you went rambling through the fields of rabbits trails about Biblical interpretation. Are you alright, man?
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Worldviews weigh evidence. Do you have no belief about God? You have all kinds of beliefs about God.
Yes, but not because of atheism. Atheism (for me) is something I have arrived at by evaluating my previous beliefs and the claims of believers. Atheism is a justifiable position given the inability of believers to bear the burden of their god claims - not an irrational presupposition akin to those preferred by some religious dogmatists.
BS. I did not say they were the only two. What does skepticism have to do with the two main paradigms? You have stated that you fit into one of those two camps - you identify with atheism. That means you look to and have adopted naturalistic means in explaining origins.
What options outside of the god/chance are you willing to entertain?
Skepticism is a worldview (unlike atheism).
I haven't "adopted naturalistic means" to explain origins. "I don't know" isn't an explanation. I do think it will likely be explained through natural processes and not magic, but there's still hope for ya! :-p
One side can and does make better sense of life's ultimate questions/origins.
Magic can explain anything and (because of this) nothing. That is the very reason why conclusions derived from methodological naturalism makes so much more sense.
Yet you stick your nose into it then back away. It is not that we always agree as believers, it is whether there is a correct interpretation that can be demonstrated from the text, not from what one reads into the text.
How did the Bereans check to see if what Paul said was true? They went to Scripture. You should do the same when you are speaking of how to interpret it.
I'm not speaking of how to interpret the Bible. That's your cross to bear (pun intended). I have been saying prophecy is weak evidence for god because of (better sit down for this) non-Biblical reasons...
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
It may not be the principle you first started with but it is the starting principle of a worldview, the foundation on which you build a worldview, the cornerstone or core that everything rests upon.
Worldviews are not built on non-beliefs. Sheesh, Peter, you've really gone off the deep end haven't you?
You sift everything through that paradigm. You can start in two main ways - God/gods or chance happenstance.
False dichotomy. Skepticism, for example, works with both (or neither) options..
And to have that skepticism you have to have beliefs about God or else you would not be skeptical and would be building on total ignorance. It is hard to be skeptical of nothing or alternatively everything.
Having a belief built on insufficient evidence doesn't make one knowledgeable. It makes them credulous.
I think atheism can be viewed as silence and the various god beliefs as particular pitches. Not believing C to be the correct pitch does not mean F# is. It means you need to study the music a little more (in silence).Silence? You are not silent. You fight against Christianity and religious beliefs. You have to believe something about them to voice an opinion against them. And you have lots of opinions.
Its an analogy, Peter. I'm not actually silent. You should be familiar with this concept as an interpreter of Biblical passages and prophecy.
You think there is no correct interpretation. Try debating that, will you. Put your money where your mouth is.
For the record, I think there might be thousands of 'correct interpretations', and I see no reason to favor one over another, at least, not in any objective sense. I still have no interest debating interpretation of your Holy book. That is a debate for believers. When you can all agree on one interpretation, let me know - I'll debate that. :-)
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@PGA2.0
Here is your starting principle, you does not believe in God or gods.
Well, its not a "starting principle" necessarily, but I agree to the rest which you clearly understand as "not belief". Not belief=/=belief. You're agreeing with me.
Do atheists have beliefs? Yes, of course, but not because of atheism. For me, atheism is a result of skepticism, not the other way around. I think atheism can be viewed as silence and the various god beliefs as particular pitches. Not believing C to be the correct pitch does not mean F# is. It means you need to study the music a little more (in silence).
Convince you that your interpretation of scripture is wrong? It seems to me that by admitting "the Word of God" needs to be interpreted by you, you've already conceded the basis of pretty much everything you argue for...If you think you can make a case that I misinterpret Scripture I invite you to demonstrate I have done so. I remind you that your previous attempt was pathetic. [...] IMO, the reason you won our debate on the subject of prophecy is because of the mindset of the judges. You have many like-minded people who cannot divorce reason from herd-mentality and group-think, in spite of the arguments put forth.
You acknowledge the necessity of interpretation and place yourself as the arbiter of it. Again, you're agreeing with me.
Subjective interpretation! Says you. Do you believe there is no objective interpretation of the Bible?
Who on Earth determines an objective interpretation of the Bible? How could we test that interpretation for validity without more interpretation? Interpretation is necessarily subjective. What methodology can be used to determine your interpretation is the correct one?
Objective evidence? What scientist was there at the beginning?
Objective evidence is something that can be dispassionately tested by others which points strongly to one conclusion over another. The age of the Earth and life evolving by natural selection are backed by objective evidence. On the other hand, the 'creation of the universe' is not, and cannot pass even your own standard - no human existed to witness the claimed creation event.
Created:
Posted in:
-->
@RoderickSpode
Two parents allow their kid to stay home alone for the first time. They tell him "If you make a mess, clean it up". The having to clean up is conditional. The parents are not advocating making a mess. I'm sure they prefer he doesn't. But they are providing the solution, or the next step IF he should make a mess.
I don't think this is a good analogy because the Bible holds that the slave is property and living bodies tend to heal themselves (the mess cleans itself if the injuries aren't too severe). Perhaps a better analogy would be a plow horse. 'if you beat your plow horse, then...'. Given that slaves were living property, this analogy is a much closer representation, imo.
It should also be noted that there are conflicting punishments. Per the Bible, if I kill my slave I die as punishment, but if you kill my slave, you owe me 30 pieces of silver. I think this has to do with one 'slave' being a Hebrew servant and the other being a foreign slave (and not dependent on who killed them), but I would need to do some research to verify. Either way, the problematic part is that the slave IS property.
Created: