Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?

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Nevets
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@coal
If the reasons for the rejection prejudiced then of course that is racism. 
It would however still be considered harassment if the rejected person did not accept the rejection.
I am aware that the standards are slightly different regarding business and employment, but this is simply what society has decreed.
Athias
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@Theweakeredge
Do you simply fail to grasp the definition here?

"used to connect DIFFERENT possibilities:" - you did nothing but hand wave the definition aside
I have not waved off the definition. There is more to the application of conjunctions than just mere definition. And since I have no intention of giving an extended lesson in grammar, I'm going to abandon this regressive back and forth. You are not convinced.

Again - using the definition of [OR] which is to connect different ["possibilities"] - as in platonic, pure, [OR] non-sexual romantic love - how do we know this - because of the example - where she speaks of an infatuation and which is typically not used to describe anything aside from romantic attraction
If you're going to cite the "typical" usage of infatuation, and propose a singular context, then why are you proposing an atypical usage of "romance" and multiple contexts?

Let's say I'm wrong though
You are.

that she is saying something like - a container for storing water or a canteen - where its clarifying a phrase
Yes, she was clarifying.

(though the fact that the list is not preceded by a definition makes this much less convincing)
We've already established that you're not convinced by grammar.

I would just argue that the platonic that she is discussing is functionally different from the notion that you have of it. And I reference her examples to prove that:
It doesn't matter that her use of platonic is functionally different from my notions of it, despite the fact my only mentioned notion of platonic relations is that they lack a sexual element. It matters only whether her distinction between platonic and romance reflect and inform your distinction. Remember she is your reference, not mine. And she makes no distinction between a nonsexual "romantic" relationship and a platonic relationship. In fact, she conflates them. You and your reference for whatever reason are just choosing to label that which is essentially a platonic relationship as "nonsexual romance."

Contiously language such as "fall in love" or "experience romantic passion" which has almost NEVER been used to describe platonic relationships - so EVEN IF and this is stretching - I agree with you that she is describing them as the same - their is a clear distinction here inbetween what is typically considered platonic love and the love being described here as platonic (this is again, if I agree which I don't)
Choose a consistent line of reasoning. You're attempting to substantiate an atypical description by making reference to the typification of other terms and their descriptions.
Theweakeredge
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@Athias
This entire thing is you insisting you're right - if you have no further valid arguments to make then I don't see a reason to respond. There is no "atypical definition of romantic" being used here - several different sources cite these things (romantic and sexual) as different forms of desire. 

  • "Sexual attraction comes from a sexual desire for something or someone, while romantic attraction is the want to have a romantic relationship with someone outside of sex." [LINK]
  • "While sexual orientation is the tendency to feel sexual desire toward people of certain genders, a person may have the tendency to fall in love with certain people. We might call this romantic orientation—the desire for intimate and emotional relationships with people of particular genders or sexes. It's about who we feel affection for and may include who we seek out to build a life or family with." [LINK]
Perhaps the definition is atypical for you, but it is not an atypical definition in general. 

You just plainly state: "you're wrong", while ignoring reasoning. Perhaps you feel you've already addressed them, I don't, I feel you like to insist until people agree with you after your initial appeals to "logic" run dry.

I plainly state: "even if you're right" so here you are addressing the thing you would reach after you've rebuked my other response - which clearly, at least to me, means you didn't fully comprehend the writing there. I feel more and more confident in winning our debate by the response. You have a tendency to ignore the central point, well purposely anyways, and try to get your opponent on the details, make em' bigger than they are - Fauxlaw does that much better than you do. 
Athias
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@Theweakeredge
This entire thing is you insisting you're right - if you have no further valid arguments to make then I don't see a reason to respond. There is no "atypical definition of romantic" being used here - several different sources cite these things (romantic and sexual) as different forms of desire. 
Yes, and your "Several different sources" are conflating "romance" with platonic relationships.

Perhaps the definition is atypical for you, but it is not an atypical definition in general. 
No, it's not just "atypical" for me; it's atypical for you as well:


The fundamental problems with  some incest is consent

As you know a large and very important part of ANY ROMANTIC OR SEXUAL RELATIONSHIP is consent, it is a necessary concept that both parties must freely give. Due to the inherent power dynamic between parents and child, consent not influenced by the parent is impossible to accurately determine, therefore one ought not commit it.

"That's only some of them though!" You might interject, "What about cousins and other cousins, there isn't a power dynamic at all!"
  
I'm actually not sure, besides the obvious genetic problems with children produced from inbreeding, of course, relationships aren't maintained just to sire children. So I'm not sure for those parts, not that I'm gonna make the claim without evidence

So, some incest is, some incest isn't, at least according to what I know currently
Where here did you make a distinction between romance and sex? What would have been the value of consent in an asexual relationship?

You just plainly state: "you're wrong", while ignoring reasoning.
No, I didn't. I provided sufficient reasoning as to the distinction between platonic and romantic relationships.

Perhaps you feel you've already addressed them
I do not "feel" as though I addressed them; I did address them.

I feel you like to insist until people agree with you after your initial appeals to "logic" run dry.
All arguments must "appeal to logic."

I plainly state: "even if you're right" so here you are addressing the thing you would reach after you've rebuked my other response - which clearly, at least to me, means you didn't fully comprehend the writing there.
I do comprehend your argument; I just reject your argument. The two are not mutually exclusive. You are arguing that sex or a sexual element is not required to characterize a relationship as romantic. You allege that the distinction between a nonsexual romantic relationship and a platonic one and a familial one is the extent of one's possessiveness and desire for the other as a person, rather than that informed merely by shared experiences, which you allege distinguishes platonic and familial relationships. Familial and platonic relationships, as you stated are informed by "biological" and "social" connections respectively whereas romantic partners have a "nonbiological" "subconscious" connection to each other to the extent where it would cause physical discomfort to not spend time with them. Your stance is unnecessarily convoluted and arbitrary.

I feel more and more confident in winning our debate by the response.
By all means, indulge any means that make you "feel" secure.

You have a tendency to ignore the central point, well purposely anyways, and try to get your opponent on the details, make em' bigger than they are
I do not have a tendency to ignore the central point; I have a tendency to look past extraneous and irrelevant details. And your arbitrary divisions which you allege create distinction between nonsexual romance and platonic/familial relationships are extraneous and irrelevant.

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@Athias
You've stated my argument - then call it convoluted and wrong.... I fail to see your rebuttal, you merely asserting that it is wrong isn't evidence that is, nor is the fact that something is complicated make it wrong - love it complicated.

Also - that's merely you failing to grasp everything that entails the word "consent", because that is part of being in a relationship at all - it typically requires giving a large part of your trust, and the mere act, the label, is big enough that you have to ask to ensure that you are indeed in a relationship. Maybe it seems silly to you, but different individuals have different needs in that department.

Btw  - I made it very clear where I contrasted them:
"ANY ROMANTIC OR SEXUAL RELATIONSHIP"
You see, I would know what I mean when I write something, cause I wrote it, and I can tell you - that the word or - means to connect two different possibilities - just as it does in the quote above (which you have failed to actually account for, completely dropping that point). 

You claim the divide is arbitrary, prove it - you've alleged that I'm wrong all this time - fine then - stop dallying around and actually provide a rebuttal, you stating that its arbitrary is like me just saying - "Oh, no you're wrong." You don't, "to look past extraneous and irrelevant details", you claim you know what's extraneous or irrelevant, then ignore the main point - the problem is that you don't know what the main point is - or you ignore it purposely. 

Because the main point of those little definitions was to prove that the definition of romantic and sexual being separate is not "atypical" as you ascribed, it is quite common - and then you decided to completely dodge the point by comparing it to a post in a completely different context. That is what I mean, whenever you analyze a point, you completely disregard the main intention behind it, you try to be a stickler for details, and as I said - Fauxlaw is much better at it than you are. 


Athias
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@Theweakeredge
You've stated my argument - then call it convoluted and wrong.... I fail to see your rebuttal, you merely asserting that it is wrong isn't evidence that is, nor is the fact that something is complicated make it wrong - love it complicated.

Also - that's merely you failing to grasp everything that entails the word "consent", because that is part of being in a relationship at all - it typically requires giving a large part of your trust, and the mere act, the label, is big enough that you have to ask to ensure that you are indeed in a relationship. Maybe it seems silly to you, but different individuals have different needs in that department.
So is it your stance that in order for a parent to have an intimate relationship with his/her child (given that this is the context you used) even if that intimate relationship is nonsexual, consent cannot be established by the child? That is, a child cannot establish "giving a large part of [its] 'trust'" to its parent?

You see, I would know what I mean when I write something, cause I wrote it, and I can tell you - that the word or - means to connect two different possibilities - just as it does in the quote above (which you have failed to actually account for, completely dropping that point). 
Your intended meaning and that which your syntax communicates are discrete. But, I've already told you that I'm going to abandon this regressive back-and-forth. I did not embolden that part to highlight the "OR," only that you mentioned both romantic and sexual when addressing the concept of consent.

You claim the divide is arbitrary, prove it - you've alleged that I'm wrong all this time - fine then - stop dallying around and actually provide a rebuttal, you stating that its arbitrary is like me just saying - "Oh, no you're wrong." You don't, "to look past extraneous and irrelevant details", you claim you know what's extraneous or irrelevant, then ignore the main point - the problem is that you don't know what the main point is - or you ignore it purposely. 
What sort of evidence do you require?

Because the main point of those little definitions was to prove that the definition of romantic and sexual being separate is not "atypical" as you ascribed, it is quite common
Where did you show that those descriptions were "quite common"?

Theweakeredge
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@Athias
"d? That is, a child cannot establish "giving a large part of [its] 'trust'" to its parent?"
It cannot be given without coercion, no - but notice that a familiar relationship is different from a romantic relationship - even by your definition. I showed they were common by literally quoting various websites that separate the two. I know what I mean when I write or, and you taking an atypical definition of or (as in not the one typically used for the word or) is your thing  - if you find it regressive, fine - I just don't accept your interpretation there.

Well, you made the claim that "the divide is arbitrary" and that my arguments are full of extraneous details... you have the burden of proof then, as you have that burden it is your responsibility (intellectually) to provide the proof, don't expect me to outline it for you. If you know I'm wrong, then you should already have the proof, otherwise, your claim was unsubstantiated, aside from an attempt at moving the goalpost, I don't see the point in asking "what evidence".



Athias
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@Theweakeredge
It cannot be given without coercion, no - but notice that a familiar relationship is different from a romantic relationship - even by your definition
This isn't about my definition (though I haven't made a distinction between familial and romantic) this is about yours. You've stated that a child cannot place a large enough part of its trust in its parent; hence it cannot consent even to a "nonsexual romance" with its parent. May I ask: can a child and a child develop and consent to a romance?  If so, why? 

I showed they were common by literally quoting various websites that separate the two.
Yes, you quoted  a few websites.

I know what I mean when I write or, and you taking an atypical definition of or (as in not the one typically used for the word or) is your thing
Once again, that which you intend to write, and that which your syntax conveys are different. To give an example:

I only speak to my mother.
I speak to only my mother.

The difference here "seems" minute, but it results in two different messages. The first suggests that my activities in general are limited to just speaking to my mother, while the second suggests that my speaking is limited to just my mother. (Also take notice of how I positioned the "justs.") The position of the adverb, "only," is nuanced yet also crucial to the suggestion of the statement. So while one may have intended, for example, to suggest the second, if one states the first, it communicates something different from one's intention. So Theweakeredge, even if you "know what you mean when you write, 'or,'" once again, syntax, grammar, linguistics, and lexicon dictate the communication in its use, not you.

if you find it regressive, fine - I just don't accept your interpretation there.
It's not just "my interpretation." But I will not indulge this any further. I won't let you gaslight with a makeshift haphazard interpretation of a definition. I have no intention of teaching grammar--at least, not in its entirety. If you're not convinced, then you're not convinced.

Well, you made the claim that "the divide is arbitrary" and that my arguments are full of extraneous details... you have the burden of proof then, as you have that burden it is your responsibility (intellectually) to provide the proof, don't expect me to outline it for you. If you know I'm wrong, then you should already have the proof, otherwise, your claim was unsubstantiated, aside from an attempt at moving the goalpost, I don't see the point in asking "what evidence".
There are different kinds of evidence. Not to mention, you're the one demanding it. So, what sort of evidence do you require in a debate over abstract concepts?

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@Athias
The use of anything grammatically is entirely arbitrary based on the syntax of the people using it. Language is human-made, it's not some concept we observed to be the state of the universe like math or science - it is things we made up.

And, no.... no I don't - if you know that my claims are bullshit, that they're wrong, then you know why you thought them wrong. Merely stating that they're wrong isn't enough evidence for anyone but someone who listens to dogma - if you don't have a reason then you have asserted my argument is wrong, and convoluted with no substantiation - which would mean you less than credible. 
Athias
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@Theweakeredge
The use of anything grammatically is entirely arbitrary based on the syntax of the people using it. Language is human-made, it's not some concept we observed to be the state of the universe like math or science - it is things we made up.
Yes, yes, that's all fine and well, but language has its rules informed by standards as  "artificial" as they may be.

And we did make up math and science, but that's a discussion for another time.

And, no.... no I don't - if you know that my claims are bullshit, that they're wrong, then you know why you thought them wrong. Merely stating that they're wrong isn't enough evidence for anyone but someone who listens to dogma - if you don't have a reason then you have asserted my argument is wrong, and convoluted with no substantiation - which would mean you less than credible. 
I do have reasons. But you ask that I prove it. It's not difficult: what sort of evidence do you require me to submit? What will convince you? A peer-reviewed psychological analysis? A neurological study? An intersectional survey? Anecdotal testimony? Various websites? What?


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@Athias
Yes - we made up math - kind of - but the principles of math are from observation not prescription - the same cannot be said for grammar. In other words - the intentions behind the words mean much more than the semantics

It's pretty simple  - just give me the reasons, and if they are true and logically consistent with your conclusions - then oh - there ya go. 
Athias
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@Theweakeredge
Yes - we made up math - kind of - but the principles of math are from observation not prescription
Nope, but that's a discussion for another time.

the same cannot be said for grammar. In other words - the intentions behind the words mean much more than the semantics
The two aren't mutually exclusive--intention and semantics that is. But intentions do not transmute the rules, regardless of how artificial you believe them to be.

It's pretty simple  - just give me the reasons, and if they are true and logically consistent with your conclusions - then oh - there ya go. 
What measures will determine the "truth and logical consistency" of these reasons? In other words, what do you require as proof? You demanded that I prove it, so what evidence do you require? It isn't necessary to be roundabout about this. 
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@Athias
Um - you know - that the conclusion necessarily follows your premises, and that your premises are true? This is simple syllogism stuff. And yes - intention does supersede rules - always has - always will. For example - when someone says: "What's up?" We don't think them literally asking what is up above them, we know that they mean the colloquial definition there - "What are you doing? "how are you" etc - in fact - the English language ignores rules so much that we have an entire category of words that don't mean what they would suggest based on the words.

24 days later

sadolite
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Anything that hasn't already been labeled racist can be made racist, the word has no meaning. Date who ever you want, you are going to be accused of being a racist no matter what you do in life. Every single person on earth is a fucking racist. Prove they are not. 
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@sadolite
I'm not sure that everyone is a "fucking racist".

But I would agree that everyone is inherently discriminatory.

Cum, roll over, and go to sleep.....Skin tone and place of origin irrelevant.
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@zedvictor4
You are a racist,. Everything you own is racist, everyone you know is racist. Everything is racist. This thread is racist therefore you are racist. You are talking about race, race isn't supposed to matter. That makes you a racist.

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@sadolite
I agree, but perhaps not so vehemently.

Race and discrimination are internal data assessments, activated by sensory perception.

We see and we hear, and we inevitably judge.

Though social racism is determined by effect rather than it's cause.

And we can still decide to treat each other respectfully.


I'm not sure though, if inanimate possessions are racist per se....Though some might conclude that certain objects are symbolically representative of human racism.

Though I would suggest that "some" people take pleasure in continually grinding the racist axe.

Is a can of beans racist?.....Hmmmmmm......Probably the black eyed ones for some. 
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@zedvictor4
You are either a racist or you are not. there is no gray area. You think and talk about race or you don't. Race doesn't matter. The OP talks about race and ask for confirmation and approval   so it matters to them. They  are racist. 
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@sadolite
To be perfectly honest, I don't think about "Race" other than the human race.


Though I inevitably and unavoidably consider perceivable difference in everything.....Internal Data processing.

And as an internal data output, I am pretty well conditioned, not to be discriminatory on the basis of perceivable human differences, even though I am inevitably and unavoidably aware.

The unavoidable awareness of perceivable difference, is not racist per se......Racism...is discriminating on the basis of perceivable human difference.....And I strive not to do this.


And as I see it, the O.P poses a question for consideration.