I think that having five solid months to abort and choosing not to is more than enough to give consent.
If a squatter occupies a unit for 5 months, has the landlord implicitly given consent? No, of course not - her ownership of the property still holds.
I haven’t seen any argument from you for why choosing not to abort a fetus for five, six, or seven months doesn’t qualify as consent to being pregnant
I would say that is attempting to shift the burden. If you think 5,6,7 months of pregancy equates to consent, you'll need to substantiate that position. I don't see how you can do it without diminishing self-ownership and creating special rights.
If a woman consents to sex with a partner for 5,6,7 months, does that mean she has given consent for month 8? No, of course not. It doesn't work like that.
Plus, you are discounting the fact that consent can be withdrawn. A woman can consent to sex and change her mind during the act and there is absolutely nothing wrong with that. Consent is conditional, provisional, subject to change.
I’m not seeing a clear standard here
I think you mean you're not seeing your standard. I have explained how my standard is consistent for landlords and squatters or women and unwanted pregancies.