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Athias

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God cannot solve solipsism
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@Double_R
There is nothing irrational about it. Whether it matters is an entirely different question, and one which is not the subject of this thread.
Yes, it is irrational. Because a God that "exists" outside their capacity to perceive is irrational. They don't know that they don't know; and they can never know that they don't know. Yes, it doesn't matter, but it's also irrational.

I still fail to understand what you take issue with. The point of this question is twofold; to theists who use God as the solution to this
How can Theist use God as a solution to this when you just "imagined" it.

(usually prepositionalists)
You mean to say "presuppositionalists"; prepositionalists at best may concern themselves with the use of prepositions.

I’m demonstrating that it’s not a solution at all.
You are demonstrating a negation to your own proposition.

And more importantly, when theists claim God is all knowing, I’m demonstrating how that’s not even possible because there is no way for God to know that there isn’t some higher God above him who has concealed himself.
This is irrational. First, if God presumes to be "all-knowing" then are no unknowns as it concerns him. That makes your assertion that he doesn't know that he's encased in a Bubble by some other God invalid. You're using an assumption of an unsubstantiated possibility that a metaphysically objective God prime may exist outside the knowledge of an all-knowing God. This doesn't demonstrate anything other than your extending conclusions without substantiating your premises.

If you don’t think the topic is worthy of discussion you don’t have to partake in it.
I'm well aware of my prerogative.

Or, if you think there is a flaw in my logic you are welcome to point it out.
I have pointed it out.

That has nothing to do with whether solipsism is a problem. The fact that there is no way for us to know for certain whether the reality we experience including the people we love and care about are actually real is considered a problem to most. The fact that it is unfalsifiable or that it is brought up typically by a certain group of people is irrelevant to that.
The irony in your statement is that it reflects the concern of the very materialists whom you deem irrelevant. The solipsist sees no distinction between the mind and reality. So why would this create a "problem?" The fact that you "can't know" whether the reality you experience including the people you love and care about are "actually real" informs the materialist claim that Solipsism isn't falsifiable. Because materialists presume to rationalize that which lies outside the mind, whereas the solipsist maintains that which lies outside the mind is irrational. And they're right. One would would have to control for one's mind, and rationalize an experience independent of any thought. That's means no science, math, language, logic or reason, cognition or distinguishable sensation. 
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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
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@Theweakeredge
You derive pleasure from others platonically based on experience or evolutionarily driven - you do not derive "pleasure that informs possessiveness" with nonromantic individuals, pretty simple that.
Let's say I have a "best friend" and he's uncomfortable with the notion of my referring to anyone else as my best friend, then does that mean he has romantic feelings towards me?

Furthermore, yes it is non-human animals, similar to a vast majority of research done - it's not like humans are the only species with developed frontal lobes and consciousness - furthermore - the concept is what is taken, not specifics - further backing this on. 
You cannot (justifiably) assert that anyone is "wrong" if the sample data doesn't reflect the subject of discussion.

No... it does not mean that they are "equivalent" it means that they are both controversial in regards to the research - as that is the only part that your argument is highlighting, we call this cherry-picking.Its also interesting that this quote is not from the article itself, but separate - you are, ironically, taking a statement completely out of context and trying to insert a meaning as to what the conjunction means - the mere fact that OR is there does not mean that they are equivalent, they can also mean that they are being COMPARED.
No this isn't cherry-picking. This is an issue of grammar. Unless, you're suggesting that the author made a grammatical mistake, then yes, they are equivalent. And is inclusive; OR is discrete. If that hasn't convinced you, then look it up. Verify or Falsify  (see what I did here?) what I state.

Furthermore, I didn't take the quote from any separate material. It is from the very page you cited in your link. It's under "Independence Between Love and Desire."
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God cannot solve solipsism
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@Double_R
First off, can you clarify? Are you sure you’re using the right word?'
Am I "using the right word"? Hello, I go by the pseudonym, Athias. Have we met?

b: an artificial arrangement or development
You then start your argument like this:

Let’s imagine the following
And then you proceed to argue an issue of infinite regression--i.e. being encased by a God prime--and not one of solipsism. Because solipsism doesn't presume a metaphysically "objective" material reality. That is if "God 2" is incapable of knowing that he was created by a God prime, then "God 2" doesn't know that he doesn't know. Therefore the issue you raise about his not knowing is completely irrational since those encased within the Reality of "God 2," including "God 2" wouldn't question his being God.

Go ahead and try. Ask a question about something you don't know you don't know.

Second, if it’s not a problem then why in philosophy is it referred to as “the problem of hard solipsism”?
Because solipsism isn't falsifiable. And this is a concern typically proposed by materialists.

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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
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@Theweakeredge
You primarily ignored my response to you
No, I didn't. I even quoted your response. I left out only the part where you were referencing attachment between mother and child.

and [instead] responded to a response to another person - which I was responding to a different statement
Because coal's inquiry and my argument are similar.

It is the fuel of that possessiveness which matters, not the possessiveness itself - though typically romantic relationships are more often possessive when compared to platonic relationships - as I elaborated in one of my responses which you hardly responded to yourself:
" You don't typically find pleasure from the other's personality, it is a type of love that is formed through connections made by experience"
The difference is the possessiveness by experience or personality - romantic love is when possessiveness is borne from the pleasure of another's personality.
So your argument is that the element which distinguishes a platonic relationship from a non-sexual romantic relationship is a possessiveness which is informed by deriving pleasure from the other's personality? That is, a platonic relationship (typically) lacks an affinity, and the pleasure associated with it, for the other's personality?

So if I like/love a friend or family member because his/her personality brings me pleasure, I can characterize our relationship as "romantic"?

Next.... I find myself disappointed in your reasoning - the fact that the author is saying such difference is controversial does not mean that they are not separate - that is a non-sequitur
No, it's how she equates them that informs their not being separate. She uses the discrete conjunction "OR" and thus, I emboldened the relevant part. That means that "pure," "platonic" and "non-sexual" romantic love are interchangeable in her argument. Had she used "and" like I did, then your point would be substantiated. But she used, "or," suggesting that only one could considered and it doesn't matter which.

"Although sexual desire and romantic love are often experienced in concert, they are fundamentally distinct subjective experiences with distinct neurobiological substrates."
Once again, the study of these neurobiological substrates were primarily conducted with non-human animals:

Lisa M. Diamond:
Because most research on the neurobiological substrates of sexual desire and affectional [pair] bonding has been conducted with animals, a key priority for future research is systematic investigation of the coordinated biological, behavioral, cognitive, and emotional processes that shape experiences of love and desire in humans.



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Solving Solipsism
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@Sum1hugme
It seems to me that a necessary precondition of thought is time within which to have that thought. It can't be the other way around.
First, "seem" is never an argument. Second, it is necessary for your argument to extend its conclusion. Hence my stating:

You haven't substantiated that time is outside of your thoughts.
You're applying circular reasoning. Your premise is the same as your conclusion.


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God cannot solve solipsism
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@Double_R
Absurd?
Yes, absurd.

All you did was reiterate the point of this thread, that God himself cannot solve this problem.
It's not a "problem." It's a contrivance.

Theists often appeal to God as the solution to this, I’m just demonstrating why that is flawed.
The only solution to an absurdity is to reconsider the premises which extended the absurd conclusion. And in order to do that, you have to remove your contrivance.


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Solving Solipsism
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@Sum1hugme
Because I'm having the thought in time. Having a thought necessitates the time within which to have it. Which means that there is an external world where time exists; at least the now moment within which I'm having this thought exists. 
Yes, because of your perception of time. You think that how experience time is not informed by your conceptions?

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Conservatives, why do you guys oppose free healthcare?
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@zedvictor4
What are FREE and NOT FREE.
At or at no direct monetary/financial expense.

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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
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@coal
Romantic - you are having sex.

Platonic - you are not having sex. 
I somewhat agree. Instead of "you're having sex," I would substitute it with "you're 'at least' sexually attracted to the other."



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@Theweakeredge
The difference is that in one instance, their is sexual desire fueling possessiveness, and the other simply desire for them - as a person in all - while the latter can also be attuned to the former, that is the basic answer. 
So how is this desire for a person, as a person, different from a platonic relationship? Is it your argument that in platonic relationships, one cannot desire a person for themselves? If the desire for a person in a non-sexual relationship is strictly asexual, then how is that any different from being (close) friends? Can one not be possessive over a friend?

You distinguished romantic relationships from platonic relationships by sex, but romantic relationships can happen even without sexual attraction, so clearly that isn't true. In other words, no, I don't quite agree with you.
You haven't necessarily demonstrated this--not with sufficient reasoning, anyway.

In other words, you can have sexual attraction towards someone you love platonically, hell, you can have sex with that person and still only be in a platonic love, so clearly the vague act of having sex never separates a romantic relationship from a platonic relationship - if we were talking about the state of correlation regarding most romantic relationships, then yes, absolutely, but I was responding to what you said differentiated romantic and platonic relationships.
Except the argument isn't that (casual) sexual relationships are necessarily romantic; the argument is that romantic relationships are necessarily sexual. And note that the same research you cite which states that there's a distinction between sexual romantic relationships and non-sexual romantic relationships also make NO distinction between romantic desire and platonic desire:

Lisa M. Diamond:
Although it may be easy to imagine sexual desire without romantic love, the notion of "pure," "PLATONIC," OR "non-sexual" romantic love is somewhat more controversial.
So I ask once again, how is non-sexual romantic relationships different from platonic relationships?

And just stress the notion, is it possible to be in a non-sexual romantic relationship with someone, who isn't having sex with you, but is having sex with others? Is it possible to be in a romantic relationship with someone's spouse?

Furthermore, when employing "evolutionary psychology" one must understand that the arguments aren't only teleological (and often circular in reasoning) but also primarily based on subconscious motivators, which is in stark contrast to your cited empirical data that suggests conscious motivators. For example, evolutionary psychology would employ arguments such as women being selective in choosing their mates because their capacity to gestate is far scarcer than a man's capacity to inseminate. A woman has up to 400 ova over her lifetime whereas her male counterpart can produce up to 525 billion sperm cells over his lifetime. So picture a scenario where there's a small village of 20 people (10 men and 10 women) and let's state for the sake of argument that this village is feuding with a neighboring village which results in martial conflict. Now if the village of 20 people decides to send out five of their men and five of their women, and they die off, that leaves the village with five prospects of reproduction (the five remaining women.) Now if that same village decides to send out nine men, no women, and the nine men die off, then that leaves the village with 10 prospects of reproduction (this time, 10 women remain.) The lone man in that village can inseminate and fertilize all 10 women.

So what's my point? Do think a woman, or a man, would report this to the American Psychological Society? Your arguments must be consistent. Your previous citation from what I can tell from the preview and abstract is primarily based on the reports of those in so-called "romantic" relationships, yet when it comes to friendship and family you're citing subconscious motivators. Finally, the research you cited was conducted with animals.
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Conservatives, why do you guys oppose free healthcare?
I don't see how people can think that the government will screw it up, but not private industries... the guys who only care about profit - in other words - the guys who have much more motive to screw people over
Because private industries in a free-market would pay for their mistakes, as opposed to government whose mistakes are sanctioned by its capacity to tax.

"Who cares" people will dismiss, just industries being industries, but the government gets a lot more flock - an entire cabinet can be gone by next election cycle.
You think cabinet turnover is "more flock"? Private businesses can lose their businesses because of its mistakes; the government rarely loses government (i.e. revolutions) because of its mistakes.


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Conservatives, why do you guys oppose free healthcare?
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@Intelligence_06
Why does anyone oppose free healthcare? It literally saves the lives of more people. 
Who opposes free health care?

I mean, in my opinion, Universal healthcare is good, and it is probably expected that some Trump supporters would support it.

However, why do some people oppose this idea?
Because Universal Health Care is NOT free. It's a debt scheme that conscripts otherwise healthy individuals into subsidizing the promises made by politicians.

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God cannot solve solipsism
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@Double_R
While definitions of God vary, some of its central tenants are that he is all knowing, all powerful and creator of everything. Let’s imagine the following:

God creates a bubble of reality unconnected to anything else. Within this bubble he creates a being that is all powerful and all knowing with regards to anything inside of this bubble, so this being is free to create anything he wants; Universes, multiverses, heaven, hell, etc. We’ll call this being God 2. But God decides that he will conceal all knowledge of himself or anything outside of this bubble from God 2. As far as God 2 knows, this bubble is reality, nothing outside of it exists.

Question: if you pray, how does the God you pray to know that he is not God 2?
This is not a question of solipsism, but more of a re-presentation of infinite regression. It entirely depends on the assumption of your supposition--a supposition which is not informed enough to declare "God cannot solve solipsism."

Case in point: suppose God 2 is only a remnant and allows God prime to believe he created it. And it's actually God prime that's encased in a bubble created by God 2 outside the bubble?

Do you see how absurd your line of reasoning is?

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Solving Solipsism
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@Sum1hugme
If I can know for certainty that I think, then that necessarily means that I am thinking in time, since I am having the thought now. The act of thinking necessarily implies an external world where time exists within which I may have a thought.
No. You haven't substantiated that time is outside of your thoughts. How is your perception of time any less constructed than your awareness of your conception?


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Was Prince Philip Murdered?
Maybe he'll return as a deadly virus like he once stated. I usually don't keep up with the "royal family" (one might consider them usurpers) because frankly, they're no more engaging than the other of the so-called "global elite."
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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
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@Theweakeredge
A platonic relationship is different from a romantic relationship in several regards. The most easily explained would be to degree - for example - you can have physical contact with just friends, in a lot of cultures hugging, kissing, and even cuddles is considered friendship - it has to do with how much of a connection you have to a person while also having dominating feelings towards them - or feelings that have you do things without you necessarily meaning to do so. To a degree of feeling physically uncomfortable by not spending time with them. It also has to do with companionship in general - being dependent on another for steadiness and other emotional needs. Finally its a possessive emotion, even in forms of polygamy. 
And what do you believe informs the possessive emotion in non-sexual romantic relationships in contrast to the possessive emotion in sexual romantic relationships?

Familiar love is different from romantic, but not very different from strong platonic love - familiar love is essentially the strongest form of platonic love. You don't typically find pleasure from the other's personality, it is a type of love that is formed through connections made by experience - so yes - it is possible that a familiar love can become romantic - it does not usually happen because those feelings aren't usually deriving pleasure from another personality or company, if you do start to feel happiness spending time with them it is usually the difference of inherently and externally feeling that pleasure (and no I don't mean anything regarding sexual urges) - familiar and platonic relationships are fundamentally built on social and biological connections, mothers have an internal feeling (typically) towards their offspring. Friends find things in common that they can share, partners have an internal non-biological feeling for each other- usually from the subconscious - though if you consider the the effects of the brain biological and neurological that can technically be the same thing - to put it better - mothers feel an evolutionary connection to their offspring - this is not the case with romantic partners. 
What would a non-sexual romantic familiar relationship be/look like?

Also, keep in mind that you stated that a mother's attachment to her offspring is "evolutionary."

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@Theweakeredge
I'll get to the rest later, I just wanted to bring this to your attention, did you notice that one word there? In the middle of the sentence? "May"? Because I did - I ALREADY agreed that romantic and sexual love does typically align, but they do not ALWAYS align. You are seemingly deliberately misreading texts now so they agree with your conclusions, can you please take your time to analyze things? Because its apparent you don't - if this is representative of the level of thought you put into these replies I'm starting to think I should just leave you to your own head - because you clearly aren't taking this seriously enough to comprehend words correctly.
Answer me this: how is a romantic relationship distinguished from a platonic relationship? Is it possible to have a romantic relationship with a family member which isn't necessarily incestuous?

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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
Again - SEXUAL AROUSAL can be, and often IS a part of the equation, but it is simply untrue that it ALWAYS IS. Now - this IS in contrast to the  popular triangular theory of love perspective; however, I, and several other researchers, would contest the inherent connection of sexual attraction to romance - it is simple not always the case. While this is not the full study, it does provide some insight into the issue I think would be useful here:
You're beating a dead horse. Even by your description, romantic relationships are defined by sex. You left this little tidbit out:

It's about who we feel affection for and may include who we seek out to build a life or family with.
I'm not excluding any platonic elements from romantic relationships, but you're suggesting that you bear relationship(s) absent of any sexual element which contradicts romantic relationships being romantic relationships.

Do not mistake my insistence for ignorance, I have done the research here. 
It's not ignorance; it's denial. Platonic relationships suit your description far better than romantic relationships do. You're suggesting that romantic relationships can be conducted without a sexual element, and that's simply not the case.

Perhaps you are confused by insistence on this matter, or find me hypocritical, but do understand that there are impacts to sex, ones which do not exist for most forms of work - social, physical, mental - while there are of regular jobs they are so too a much lesser extent. Its the same reason why some jobs are required to provide more legal protection or physical protection for workers than others - in this case - these people are getting more physical protection. You did go on about analogies and how there are exceptions to my rule - there are exceptions to every rule - the fact that you can point out a couple does not change the fact that it applies to the vast majority of the populations - and yes - by the fact that you have attempted to come to very specific conclusions with these analogies and did not take into consideration the actual portions which dictated the things you are discussing, your analogy still fails. You are trying to compare a sex-worker refusing sex to a worker refusing labor because of characteristics, but fail to realize that consenting to make someone a burger is different from agreeing to have sex due to the affects of such labour on individuals. 


I've tried to be much more level-headed here - I want to stop leading discussions into a fire, so here's my attempt - I apologize for any previous slights.
Yes your arguments are hypocritical. The reason for  my analogies is to highlight the inconsistency in those who argue that it's okay for the government to interfere when some corporate employer discriminates on the basis of so-called "race," but on the other hand argue that the government has no prerogative when a sex worker discriminates on the basis of so-called "race," or when parents refuse to hire a particular babysitter on the basis of so-called "race." And it's not because of these "essential" differences you're attempting to explain. It's contingent on the institutions you respect:

1. You respect that an escort's body is her own; you respect that she can choose whomever she decides to engage. And that the social consequences of racism do not supersede the social consequences of undermining one's bodily autonomy.

2. You respect a parent's authority over their children. You respect the parent's discretion in choosing whom he/she believes is best to surveil his/her children even if it is so-called "racist." Because the social consequences of racism do not supersede the the social consequences of undermining a parent's authority over their children.

3. You DO NOT respect an employer's discretion in selecting candidates which best suits his/her operations even if it's racist because you believe the social consequences of racism supersede an employer's prerogative to dictate with whom he/she enters a professional relationship.

It has little to do--if anything--with "mental health," "working to live," or that other rigamarole. Because this can easily be applied to the other two. And that's the thing, the reasoning which informs the third hasn't been substantiated. You're arbitrarily selecting that which falls within one's discretion and that which does not, even if the premise for all are the same.

So when I state that a person can dictate the extent of his or her participation in an association even if "racist" considerations were made, that applies just as much as to sexual interaction as it does to professional relationships (i.e. employment.) And what one party "needs" is not the responsibility of the other. This is a consistent line of reasoning. The line of reasoning which informs your argument is not.



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@Theweakeredge
Here is you - to summarize - trying to justify a broad brush by quoting outliers; furthermore - specifically - the case of escort - the DIFFERENCE is the case of the contract - which is that they have the ability to refuse anyone BECAUSE the service is talking about the agency of the women, such a thing IS NOT the case of workers - as the difference is one's autonomy and one's doing dishes, or making cakes, or selling clothes. Their is an ESSENTIAL DIFFERENCE.
What is this essential difference? Why is it "essentially" different for example for an escort to deny service to a patron of a different so-called race/ethnicity than let's say for a chef to deny baking a cake for someone who's homosexual? Or for a so-called White employer to deny employment to a prospective so-called Black candidate by reason of his/her so-called race? Remember that I asked you to remember this:

you still need to put in labor of some sort in exchange for resources - which is, practically speaking, what work is. 
Does an escort not put in some "labor" in an "exchange for resources"? Why can she deny this exchange for resources? Why can an employer not exercise his/her discretion--regardless of how sexist or racist it is---when entering an arrangement to exchange labor for compensation?

The same is the case of ROMANTIC and SEXUAL relations - I have ENTIRELY NON_SEXUAL romantic relationships. You are entirely conflating the two - but romantic feelings are feelings of pleasure from experiencing another mental company - the same is not necessarily the same for SEXUAL RELATIONSHIPs, while the two CAN intertwine, they are not ALWAYS so - see: Asexual people who have romantic relationships. 
Nope, not even in the slightest. You've described at best a "platonic" relationship, which can involve intimate connections for non-sexual reasons, but romantic relations are defined by sex--whether it be coitus or mere sexual attraction. I've conflated nothing; I've only identified.

While you are right that they do not need to be be 1 to 1 comparisons - the THING you are comparing MUST have the same consequences for both sides of the analogy.
No, that is YOUR standard. Analogies require no such thing.

Finally, the entire "majority versus all" is negligible, as the amount of people NOT in this specific majority ARE EXTREMELY SMALL.
That does not matter. It provides exceptions to your alleged rule.

Not to mention that I am giving you the benefit of the doubt, as a MAJORITY of wealthy and RICH people still do have to work in order to maintain their wealth and therefore their lives.
So one does not need to work in order to live, right?

Also... people who steal ARE working, illegally?
How so? And make sure it meets your description of work.

You've also just agreed to some points - like denying someone on the aspect of race is racist.
I've never even attempted to deny it. My point is: so what if it's racist?

And this is the point of my analogy. We can accept that an escort, for example, can deny interaction of any sort with whomever she pleases because we respect the fact her body and time is hers to behave however she wishes. So even if she is being racist, this does not disqualify her control over her labor, time, body, and resources. So why is it that an employer who has resources cannot exercise the same discretion--racist or not, sexist or not--when it concerns exchange compensation (employer's resources) for labor?

Now we can pretend and continue your pretext that there's an "essential" difference, or we can identify the purpose of this pretext, which is to justify an inconsistency.

Finally - no - it doesn't mean FIRING people - it means that whenever looking for new workers you don't have a BIAS against certain people.
And if they do have a bias, so what?

Furthermore, the case is because they were discriminated, but the difficulty of an action does not mean that it should not be done. Which matters more, the ease of doing something for companies, or the case of people unable to find work because they are being DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, for something they have NO CONTROL over. 
So, I'll ask again: what is to be done about racists parents who won't hire so-called Black babysitters?
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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
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@Greyparrot
Just to be clear, there are many more factors involved in selecting a partner than just comparing 23-and-me percentages.

Thus, I refer to it as "so-called Race."

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@Theweakeredge
You are saying: "income" and "dating" are the same
No, I am not.

when they are very clearly - not the same. Your analogy does not work
an analogy does not require a direct equivalence. It only requires an aspect of a person, action, subject etc. being compared to that of another while applying a different context. Here case in point:

Athias giving up a carton of coconut water would be like a monkey giving up a banana. In this analogy, am I stating that I'm a monkey? No. I'm comparing my unwillingness to the alleged unwillingness of a monkey's; or conversely, I'm comparing my attachment to that of a monkey's. I'm not saying that I'm a monkey.

Your only "defence" is that there is one section in where sex and income come into correlation; however, SEX and DATING are not necessarily the same thing. 
Dating: "to regularly spend time with someone you have a romantic relationship with:
No, they are not necessarily the same thing. But they aren't necessarily all that different given that "romantic relationships" are define by sexual attraction.

As for your question: If your decision regarding a baby-sitter is RACE, then that person is being racist.
Yes, it's racist.

To actually regulate would require a massive ramp up of babysitting websites- it would have to include professionalizing recruiting for, and dispensing of babysitters - it would probably have to do-away with citizens individually choosing baby-sitters.
Yes, it would be difficult--almost as difficult, or comparably difficult, to revamping one's entire workforce to accommodate quotas.

The best idea I have is for some kind of group for people to order the service of another, without any picture or such. Kinda like how ordering food is, you don't get to choose who does and who doesn't order your food - but that is based on the promise that each driver who comes is trained to bring you your food, so would the baby-sitters all have to be trained to take care of children.
And if the babysitter is refused at the door? What if the couple calls the service again and request a so-called White babysitter?

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Is it Racist to Not Date a Particular Race?
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@Theweakeredge
In order to eat in this society - yes - you do need to work, you could argue that one could be a child or an elderly person, perhaps as someone who is incapable of working in general.
No, you don't. One could be a thief; one could be homeless living in a shelter; one could be an heir or heiress to a large fortune; one could fish or hunt for food, etc. I could be generous and state that I know that which you're attempting to argue, but when you flesh it out, it's a conclusion that cannot be extended with consistency.

Those are the obvious outliers,
No, they're really not. If one looks at the labor force participation rate, which I believe is around 60% (correct me if I'm wrong) then that would suggest that around 40% are not working. If we assume that half of those people are participating in some of illegal work (not necessarily criminal, but outside of state prescription) then that would leave at least 20% of people who are eating without working.

you still need to put in labor of some sort in exchange for resources - which is, practically speaking, what work is. 
Let's remember this.

My point is, for a majority of people, working is necessary to live.
No, your point was that working is necessary to live. If you want to change your position, that fine. But your point is somewhat diminished now that you've qualified it with "majority."

Perhaps you could argue that what YOUR talking about is only defined as far as interaction; however, your discussion regarding the laws of work would clearly use the LEGAL definition of work which is: "the performance of services for which remuneration is payable." - you could argue about the interpretation of performance of service, and what payable is, but these are ESSENTIAL bits to the meaning BEHIND work.
Okay, let's operate on your definition of work. Suppose I run an escort service (a.k.a. "compensated dating") and my clientele consist exclusively of so-called white men. My patrons prefer so-called white women exclusively, and the women in my service prefer so-called white men exclusively. Now the state interferes and decrees that I must employ so-called Black, Hispanic, and Asian women. Not only that, but I as well as those under my employ also cannot refuse service on the basis of so-called race.

Let's say that a so-called Black would-be patron calls my service and requests a woman, but all I have available are three so-called White women who refuse to date or have sex with anyone other than so-called White men. Upon learning of this, the so-called Black would-be patron threatens to sue my service for discrimination. Does he have a case? Should he have a case? Should I attempt to compel them by threatening to fire them? After all, "they need to eat, too." Do I pay off the would-be so-called Black patron as recompense for discrimination? What was wrong with my operation scheme before government interference?




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@zedvictor4
Just pointing out you debating style......
Why is it necessary to point out my debating style? Does it somehow qualify my argument?

Case in point, suppose:

zedvictor: it's better to take the vaccine than to risk succumbing to COVID-19.
Athias: Oh, it's just like you to argue that way.

What does the Athias in that scenario accomplish as far as the subject is concerned?

Which is obviously reflective of your intellect....
Yes, I have an intellect as do many others.

But  might or might not be reflective of your character.
Perhaps, but why is my character the subject of analysis? What point were you attempting to demonstrate by speculating I had trypanophobia?

And I find that people shut you down, either, when they run out of logical argument, or if their argument is based upon illogic in the first place.
Let me fix that for you:

And I find that people shut [me] down, either, when [I] run out of logical argument, or if [my] argument is based upon illogic in the first place.





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@zedvictor4
Mr A is probably Trypanophobic.

So as long as they can slip a strawman or non-sequitur into there argument, it will temporarily  assuage their fears.


Though, good debating isn't necessarily about being honest..........It's about effectivity.


Covid, blood clot, cancer, heart failure.....You gotta go some time.

Choices, choices.
I was going to say that you could do "better," but I haven't seen anything in our numerous exchanges that would inform that suggestion. And like clockwork, you attempt to go after my character rather than the argument. Not to mention, you put forward contrived "meta"-analyses about "the art of debating." If you have a point about what's being argued, then just make it. Oh, you did, and it was promptly shut down by myself, Greyparrot, and 3RU7AL.
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@n8nrgmi

it looks like i'm not the only one who had trouble communicating with athias, here is something he said that makes it look like was saying vaccines are pointless... 

"One's injecting oneself with a vaccine provides little more than a placebo effect, except unlike a placebo, vaccines can harm." 

but i think if you look at the context, he was saying that, only if the person's immune system didn't work properly. he seemed to make it sound like we might as well assume we are all immuno compromised. 

And what of your complicity in this miscommunication?


I don't feel particularly invulnerable. I just know the risks of the pharmacological effects of these vaccines, not to mention that I believe in the resiliency of the immune system. One of the first books I read as a child was my mother's book on Pathology. So as a kid I developed the habit of practicing good hygiene especially with the knowledge of how infections transmit. I'm not stating one shouldn't take the vaccine if that is what one has decided, though personally I would not. But to claim one is a "stupid GOP'er" for neither wanting nor intending to take the vaccine is another thing.

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@Unpopular
Straw man. I never said they were the same.
You attributed an argument to me which is informed by "risk-reduction." If you are conceding that they are not the same, then why are you scrutinizing the statement: "The vaccine prevents neither the contraction nor the spread of the virus"?

(And that's not a straw-man, by the way.)

Not a non sequitur. Throughout this thread you have been saying that covid vaccines were futile and getting them wouldn't help old people or immunocompromised people because they don't affect spread, so there was no point in most people getting the covid vax.
Quote me verbatim.

Now you want to make it sound as if
"Wanting to make it sound as if" is not the same as what I stated. "What it sounds like" is your impression, not my argument.

the only thing you claimed is "the vaccine prevents neither the contraction or spread of the virus"  which is fine because you haven't offered any proof that's true anyway. 
That is not the only thing I've "claimed," but then again, you did enter this discussion late. Perhaps you'll read from the very beginning and see all the arguments made by myself and others to understand what is being "claimed."

And proof? Once again, read what is being stated. Don't just react.

So the CDC is only reporting data on people they've actually studied.
I'd presume so.

Funny
Funny is irrelevant.

that you think
You don't know what I "think."

the CDC is such a shoddy source
Quote me verbatim.

that it's the one you chose when I asked you for a source.
All the more reason it'd be counterintuitive that I'd call it a "shoddy source." And guess what? I didn't. Perhaps, it would be more prudent that you look up ecological inference than to project your impressions.

I said  vaccines help the body recognize spike proteins and create antibodies. 

You stated and I quote:

Also, if people are fighting off covid because they have antibodies already introduced from the vaccine

You said a more practical response instead of vaccination is "to just simply practice good hygiene (and nutrition.)" And I said washing your hands doesn't help create antibodies. So no you did not say that washing hands creates antibodies, but you're saying washing hands is "a more practical response" which is not true for many people.
Practicing good hygiene is the primary way to prevent the contraction and spread of infection. Did you not know that?

But yes I did engage you, and you did not even answer the first question I asked you when you said most people in "hotbeds" have already had covid. I asked you how you came to that conclusion and you chose to ignore that question. 
It was an inductive argument. That is, supposing certain conditions were true, the logical extension of the premise would be so, and so. Here look:

If we are to take the epidemicity of this virus seriously, then that would suggest that most who live in the "hotbeds" have been exposed.
I don't take the epidemicity seriously. And "hotbed" by definition is directly related to exposure.

No, the CDC does not support your argument. I asked if you can show me the data you have where it says vaccines have no impact on contracting or spreading the virus.
That's not my argument. My argument is once again:

The vaccine prevents neither the contraction nor the spread of the virus. 
And the CDC report does support it. I won't defend an argument I didn't make.

You did not explicitly use the word "useless."
So case closed.



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@Unpopular
Your CDC source says the vaccine reduces the risk of viral spread,  so explain how that proves your point that the vaccine does not prevent spread given the reduced risk.
Because "risk-reduction" is not the same as "prevention."

Why would the risk be reduced if there is no impact on transmission. 
Non sequitur. Once again, you're alluding to "impact" despite my repeating my argument.

The CDC also said one dose of the Moderna or Pfizer-BioNTech vaccine was 80 percent effective at preventing infection,
This figure isn't based on one's immune response. Again, it's an ecological inference--and a fallacious one. It is based on the sample number in their trials. There's a difference between saying that Joe Shmoe has an 80% chance of not contracting the virus, and 80% of the participants in our trials didn't contract the virus during our experiments. The CDC is using the reasoning of the latter to propose the former.

Also, if people are fighting off covid because they have antibodies already introduced from the vaccine
The vaccine doesn't introduce antibodies.

that is not something that can  be accomplished just by washing your hands.
Never said that it could.

You are free to keep preaching your anti vax fear mongering,
It is unnecessary to delineate that which I am "free" to do. If I intend to continue "preaching [my] anti vax fear mongering," I will. But just remember, you engaged me.

but expecting the CDC to support that makes no sense
But the CDC does support it--at least, the argument for which you wanted data.

At this time they are still researching the effectiveness but have not determined there is no impact
You're extending your arguments based on the same non sequitur.

so you are just drawing that conclusion that vaccines are useless while simultaneously saying the trials are not substantive or long enough.
Quote me verbatim.

If they are not long enough then how can you be certain they are useless. 
Quote me verbatim.


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@FLRW
A new CDC study provides strong evidence that mRNA COVID-19 vaccines are highly effective in preventing SARS-CoV-2 infections in real-world conditions among health care personnel, first responders, and other essential workers.
And how long were these trials? Seven months? Eight?

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@n8nrgmi
you should just admit that your position is incoherent.
It isn't incoherent. Your incapacity to understand does not make a position incoherent.

"my immune system might not work properly therefore i'm not getting the vaccine" is one of the self evidently stupidest things i've heard lately. 
I did not make that argument. That's just your projection.


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@Unpopular
Why didn't you highlight the part of your source that says "A growing body of evidence suggests that fully vaccinated people are less likely to have asymptomatic infection and potentially less likely to transmit SARS-CoV-2 to others." Is it because it goes against your claim that vaccines have NO IMPACT on transmission?  Very dishonest. 

The same source also says "While some prevention measures will continue to be necessary regardless of vaccination status, fully vaccinated persons may be able to engage in some activities with low or reduced risk of acquiring or transmitting COVID-19." 

Nothing you put in bold from the second source proves in any way that vaccines have no effect on transmission. It says vaccinated people still have to follow social distancing protocols, wear masks, and follow other guidelines which is obviously to slow the spread among UNVACCINATED PEOPLE. But even if you could transmit covid with the vaccine doesn't mean vaccines have NO IMPACT. 
There is no "dishonesty" on my part. If there's any attempt to deceive, it would be present in your argument--particularly the manner in which you attempt to rebut my point by questioning my position on its "IMPACT" rather than the vaccine's capacity to prevent. So let's once again look at my argument:

The vaccine prevents neither the contraction nor the spread of the virus. 
Does the vaccine prevent the contraction of the virus? According to the CDC references, NO. Does the vaccine prevent the spread of the virus? According, once again, to the the CDC references, NO.

You're attempting to engage me in an argument about the marginal reductions in risks--which isn't determined by an individual's immune response, but ecological inferences based on trials. I'm not being "dishonest" by emboldening specific lines. I'm just not "wasting time" by highlighting the information relevant to my argument. Welcome to the forums, sir.
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@Unpopular
Can you show me the data you have where it says vaccines have no impact on contracting or spreading the virus?
Key Points
  • COVID-19 vaccines currently authorized in the United States are effective against COVID-19, including severe disease.
  • Preliminary evidence suggests that the currently authorized COVID-19 vaccines may provide some protection against a variety of strains, including B.1.1.7 (originally identified in the United Kingdom). However, reduced antibody neutralization and efficacy have been observed for the B.1.351 strain (originally identified in South Africa).
  • A growing body of evidence suggests that fully vaccinated people are less likely to have asymptomatic infection and potentially less likely to transmit SARS-CoV-2 to others. However, further investigation is ongoing.
  • Modeling studies suggest that preventive measures such as mask use and social distancing will continue to be important during vaccine implementation. However, there are ways to take a balanced approach by allowing vaccinated people to resume some lower-risk activities.
  • Taking steps towards relaxing certain measures for vaccinated persons may help improve COVID-19 vaccine acceptance and uptake.
  • The risks of SARS-CoV-2 infection in fully vaccinated people cannot be completely eliminated as long as there is continued community transmission of the virus. Vaccinated people could potentially still get COVID-19 and spread it to others. However, the benefits of relaxing some measures such as quarantine requirements and reducing social isolation may outweigh the residual risk of fully vaccinated people becoming ill with COVID-19 or transmitting the virus to others.
  • Guidance for fully vaccinated people is available and will continue to be updated as more information becomes available.


Fully vaccinated people can:
  • Visit with other fully vaccinated people indoors without wearing masks or physical distancing
  • Visit with unvaccinated people from a single household who are at low risk for severe COVID-19 disease indoors without wearing masks or physical distancing
  • Refrain from quarantine and testing following a known exposure if asymptomatic
For now, fully vaccinated people should continue to:
  • Take precautions in public like wearing a well-fitted mask and physical distancing
  • Wear masks, practice physical distancing, and adhere to other prevention measures when visiting with unvaccinated people who are at increased risk for severe COVID-19 disease or who have an unvaccinated household member who is at increased risk for severe COVID-19 disease
  • Wear masks, maintain physical distance, and practice other prevention measures when visiting with unvaccinated people from multiple households
  • Avoid medium- and large-sized in-person gatherings
  • Get tested if experiencing COVID-19 symptoms
  • Follow guidance issued by individual employers
  • Follow CDC and health department travel requirements and recommendations

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@Theweakeredge
Even if you could compare dating and employment
One could.

(you can't...)
I just did.

you need one to live - you need the other to thrive
One needs neither to live or thrive. One doesn't have to work to live; this is a complete falsehood.

a fundamental difference there
The only difference here is context. You are arguing on the context of necessity; I'm arguing on the context of interaction and choice. You're operating on a non-sequitur, suggesting that I'm comparing the "necessity" of the two. I am not. So your contention is invalid.

There is a difference between sex and race in obvious ways - you even dropped this point in your response
No, I did not. I approached an angle that did not directly involve sex and race; I never dropped it.

the two involve interaction - if that were the case then conversation is analogous to work, and a hand shake is analogous to work
Yes, in the context of mere interaction, they're all analogous. Stating them as though they imply absurdity doesn't demonstrate absurdity.

the fact that two people are interacting does not logically lead to the conclusion that the two things are therefore comparable
Yes, they are given the context. You invoked the concept of necessity; I did not.

Furthermore - that is.... racist - simple as that. Now - the actual ability to make a "protocol" out of a thing that is intrinsically hard to regulate is a non-starter in the first place
How would/should one regulate parents choosing temporary guardians for their children, difficulty notwithstanding? That is, how would/should one regulate the aforementioned parent from making racist decisions as it concerns the supervision of their children?


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@zedvictor4
I made a generalization regarding increased life expectancy in recent times, relative to medical intervention, including vaccines.
Yes, you did.

You seemed to avoid this with the obscure reply: "How have you determined death".....Perhaps you could clarify.
I didn't avoid. I made a mistake. I intended to ask:

How have you determined this? That is, how have you determined that it is riskier to fight off the virus naturally as opposed to being vaccinated? Do vaccines not come with risks--some of which I've already listed?


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@Greyparrot
There used to be a time when we could trust each other to make our own personal risk assessments. Today, it's just an exercise in obedience.
Well put.
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@Greyparrot
At least the government isn't mandating inoculations.
They can try their luck.

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@FLRW
We do not vaccinate to prevent a minor case of the sniffles. 
That's not really the point.

The reason we have vaccines is to prevent severe disease and death caused by infections. The polio vaccine prevents paralysis. The measles vaccine prevents pneumonia, brain infections and blindness.
This is a lie. I know someone intimately who had been vaccinated for the measles and acquired pneumonia, which nearly killed him.

 Annual influenza vaccines prevent pneumonia, sepsis and heart attacks.
No, they do not. Pneumonia is characterized by a pulmonary infection. While influenza can cause pneumonia, most cases don't--vaccine notwithstanding.

All seven COVID-19 vaccines that have completed large efficacy trials — Pfizer, Moderna, Johnson & Johnson, Novavax, AstraZeneca, Sputnik V and Sinovac — appear to be 100% effective for serious complications. Not one vaccinated person has gotten sick enough to require hospitalization. Not a single vaccinated person has died of COVID-19.
First, "appear to be" is not an argument or an observation. It's an impression. Second, while the chart does boast 100% efficacy, it does not include its controls for the placebo, it does not inform on the contraction and transmission after taking the vaccine. Third, those who have contracted the virus who have not died from COVID-19 has not died from COVID-19.


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@Theweakeredge
Its a false equivalence in the sense that you implied such a connection - for example: "Why would one's practice of discrimination as it concerned sex be any less reprehensible than one who employs?"

Thats you comparing sex and race (also not the same) in regards to work-place discrimination - and applying it to dating - I bring it up because they can't be compared - they don't correlate. So no - my example doesn't exactly correlate with your argument; however, it does refute the comparison you attempt to make
No, I "implied" no such thing. And yes, I did make a comparison using sex (not gender) because both dating and employment involve two or more parties interacting. Not to mention, I also made sure to make reference to prostitution which combines both sex and transactional interactions (e.g. employment.) Your assertion that the two cannot be compared is categorically false especially in light of escort services and pimps and ho's. But even if were to ignore those, we still could consider dating sites which involves two people employing the services of an intermediary. "Blackpeoplemeet.com" is "racist" in that their protocol involves exclusion on the basis of so-called "race."But so what?

What if a so-called "white" parent, for example, doesn't want to hire a so-called "black" babysitter? What would/should be the protocol there?

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@3RU7AL
Once you give up your WEAPONS, you are at the MERCY of the side with an ARMY.
And if they don't have an army?

THE QUESTION IS, "WHAT RESPONSIBILITY DO GRANDCHILDREN HAVE FOR THE CRIMES (think "deathcamps" & "slaughter") OF THEIR GRANDPARENTS?"

(A) 0%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
A.


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@Theweakeredge
Mostly because unlike gender, race is only tangible in the aspect of culture, furthermore - unlike gender - there is no psychological study demonstrating that everybody has a racialsexuality or racialromanticism - perhaps you have a type, but to not want to date someone specifically because of their race is not equivalent to not wanting to date someone because of their gender- it is a fundamental false equivalence you've made
It's not a false equivalence because I did not make the equivalence you suggested. I did not make mention of gender at all. And note that I also did not mention "attraction" at all.

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@zedvictor4
You're clever enough to understand the principle of vaccination.
I would argue that many are.

So irrespective of methodology the body produces antibodies.

The obvious difference between vaccination over nature in respect of Covid-19, is that the latter is potentially far riskier.
How have you determined death.

And I certainly agree that lifestyle influences health
But...

"And death is inevitable"....Yep an inevitable side effect/consequence of life.
I won't harp on this much longer.

And vaccination is a factor of medical intervention in general......Which all in all, has led to a significantly increased human life expectancy.....There's no denying the fact.
Yes, but you're using my scrutiny of vaccines as basis to a non sequitur. I'm not arguing that medical intervention hasn't significantly increased human life expectancy. I'm challenging you to substantiate how vaccines, and vaccines in particular, have increased life expectancy from 30 to 75, the very numbers you mentioned yourself.
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@3RU7AL
Also, does it seem strange that they recommend the "vaccine", even for people who have ALREADY HAD A CONFIRMED INFECTION OF COVID19?

Why would you need a jab to stimulate the production of antibodies for a disease you've already recovered from?
That's one of the arguments I've persisted to make. If we are to take the epidemicity of this virus seriously, then that would suggest that most who live in the "hotbeds" have been exposed. If one has been exposed, then what is the point of risking taking these vaccines if one's immune system has already developed a response? And, if the vaccine prevents neither its contraction nor its spread, why is it being recommended even to those who are at low risk of dying from it?

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@Theweakeredge
Furthermore, perhaps these will be interesting to you: 

First, a list of the clinical trials and the rigor of what is allowed as a trial:

And some studies with the efficacy demonstrating some things;


"TRIAL OBJECTIVES, PARTICIPANTS AND OVERSIGHT
We assessed the safety and efficacy of two 30-μg doses of BNT162b2, administered intramuscularly 21 days apart, as compared with placebo. Adults 16 years of age or older who were healthy or had stable chronic medical conditions, including but not limited to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus, or hepatitis C virus infection, were eligible for participation in the trial. Key exclusion criteria included a medical history of Covid-19, treatment with immunosuppressive therapy, or diagnosis with an immunocompromising condition.

Pfizer was responsible for the design and conduct of the trial, data collection, data analysis, data interpretation, and the writing of the manuscript. BioNTech was the sponsor of the trial, manufactured the BNT162b2 clinical trial material, and contributed to the interpretation of the data and the writing of the manuscript. All the trial data were available to all the authors, who vouch for its accuracy and completeness and for adherence of the trial to the protocol, which is available with the full text of this article at NEJM.org. An independent data and safety monitoring board reviewed efficacy and unblinded safety data."

"EFFICACY
The first primary end point was the efficacy of BNT162b2 against confirmed Covid-19 with onset at least 7 days after the second dose in participants who had been without serologic or virologic evidence of SARS-CoV-2 infection up to 7 days after the second dose; the second primary end point was efficacy in participants with and participants without evidence of prior infection. Confirmed Covid-19 was defined according to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) criteria as the presence of at least one of the following symptoms: fever, new or increased cough, new or increased shortness of breath, chills, new or increased muscle pain, new loss of taste or smell, sore throat, diarrhea, or vomiting, combined with a respiratory specimen obtained during the symptomatic period or within 4 days before or after it that was positive for SARS-CoV-2 by nucleic acid amplification–based testing, either at the central laboratory or at a local testing facility (using a protocol-defined acceptable test).

Major secondary end points included the efficacy of BNT162b2 against severe Covid-19. Severe Covid-19 is defined by the FDA as confirmed Covid-19 with one of the following additional features: clinical signs at rest that are indicative of severe systemic illness; respiratory failure; evidence of shock; significant acute renal, hepatic, or neurologic dysfunction; admission to an intensive care unit; or death. Details are provided in the protocol.

An explanation of the various denominator values for use in assessing the results of the trial is provided in Table S1 in the Supplementary Appendix, available at NEJM.org. In brief, the safety population includes persons 16 years of age or older; a total of 43,448 participants constituted the population of enrolled persons injected with the vaccine or placebo. The main safety subset as defined by the FDA, with a median of 2 months of follow-up as of October 9, 2020, consisted of 37,706 persons, and the reactogenicity subset consisted of 8183 persons. The modified intention-to-treat (mITT) efficacy population includes all age groups 12 years of age or older (43,355 persons; 100 participants who were 12 to 15 years of age contributed to person-time years but included no cases). The number of persons who could be evaluated for efficacy 7 days after the second dose and who had no evidence of prior infection was 36,523, and the number of persons who could be evaluated 7 days after the second dose with or without evidence of prior infection was 40,137."


"METHODS
This phase 3 randomized, observer-blinded, placebo-controlled trial was conducted at 99 centers across the United States. Persons at high risk for SARS-CoV-2 infection or its complications were randomly assigned in a 1:1 ratio to receive two intramuscular injections of mRNA-1273 (100 μg) or placebo 28 days apart. The primary end point was prevention of Covid-19 illness with onset at least 14 days after the second injection in participants who had not previously been infected with SARS-CoV-2."

"RESULTS
The trial enrolled 30,420 volunteers who were randomly assigned in a 1:1 ratio to receive either vaccine or placebo (15,210 participants in each group). More than 96% of participants received both injections, and 2.2% had evidence (serologic, virologic, or both) of SARS-CoV-2 infection at baseline. Symptomatic Covid-19 illness was confirmed in 185 participants in the placebo group (56.5 per 1000 person-years; 95% confidence interval [CI], 48.7 to 65.3) and in 11 participants in the mRNA-1273 group (3.3 per 1000 person-years; 95% CI, 1.7 to 6.0); vaccine efficacy was 94.1% (95% CI, 89.3 to 96.8%; P<0.001). Efficacy was similar across key secondary analyses, including assessment 14 days after the first dose, analyses that included participants who had evidence of SARS-CoV-2 infection at baseline, and analyses in participants 65 years of age or older. Severe Covid-19 occurred in 30 participants, with one fatality; all 30 were in the placebo group. Moderate, transient reactogenicity after vaccination occurred more frequently in the mRNA-1273 group. Serious adverse events were rare, and the incidence was similar in the two groups."

Thank you, theweakeredge, for the scope and rigor for at least one of these trials. I do have a question about this trial however. If those with the Human Immunodefficiency Virus, Hepatitis B and C viruses weren't excluded from participating in these trials, and the third phase was randomized, where was the control for those with co-morbidities? The data presents that 2.2% had evidence of serologic, virologic or both of SARS CoV-2, not to mention that they were assigned at random a placebo or an mRNA, yet states that 185 participants from the placebo group as opposed to just the 11 in the mRNA group to determine its efficacy.

Furthermore, isn't this trial less than a year-old and still being conducted? How can any of the conclusions cited by FLRW be substantiated at the early stages of these trials?


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@Greyparrot


Well, at least it's nice to see the CDC admits nothing is foolproof.
I would assume that is more of a customary response rather than one that appreciates the danger in propagating the complete safety of the vaccine.

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@Theweakeredge
Specifically this bit - 

"mRNA from the vaccine never enters the nucleus of the cell and does not affect or interact with a person’s DNA."
It merely acts as DNA does and manipulates the cell into developing COVID spike proteins despite not interacting directly with one's DNA.

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@FLRW
That is not the scope and rigors of vaccine trials. I believe your reference mentions the term "trial" just three times, and only in a general sense.


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@FLRW
mRNA vaccines have strands of genetic material called mRNA inside a special coating. That coating protects the mRNA from enzymes in the body that would otherwise break it down. It also helps the mRNA enter the dendritic cells and macrophages in the lymph node near the vaccination site.
mRNA can most easily be described as instructions for the cell on how to make a piece of the “spike protein” that is unique to SARS-CoV-2. Since only part of the protein is made, it does not do any harm to the person vaccinated but it is antigenic.
After the piece of the spike protein is made, the cell breaks down the mRNA strand and disposes of them using enzymes in the cell. It is important to note that the mRNA strand never enters the cell’s nucleus or affects genetic material. This information helps counter misinformation about how mRNA vaccines alter or modify someone’s genetic makeup.
Once displayed on the cell surface, the protein or antigen causes the immune system to begin producing antibodies and activating T-cells to fight off what it thinks is an infection. These antibodies are specific to the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which means the immune system is primed to protect against future infection.
And what was the scope and rigor of these mRNA vaccine trials that led to these conclusions?


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@FLRW
This is not true for the Covid-19 vaccine, mRNA vaccines are a new type of vaccine to protect against infectious diseases. To trigger an immune response, many vaccines put a weakened or inactivated germ into our bodies. Not mRNA vaccines. Instead, they teach our cells how to make a protein—or even just a piece of a protein—that triggers an immune response inside our bodies. That immune response, which produces antibodies, is what protects us from getting infected if the real virus enters our bodies.
And this is not concerning? Tell me: how does an mRNA vaccine "teach" a cell?
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@zedvictor4
All helps.
Really? How have vaccinations especially for the viruses that are addressed with vaccinations help increase life expectancy from 30 to 75?

But if someone offered you antibiotics for a tooth abscess or medication for hypertension etc etc....Would you refuse?
Yes. There are alternatives to pharmacological antibiotics, which I'm presuming you were referencing, that don't involve damaging internal organs, and hypertension can be addressed by refining one's diet and exercise habits.

Why the downer on a vaccination to protect against a possibly fatal viral infection.
Because it isn't the vaccine that protects against a possibly fatal viral infection. It's one's immune system that protects. The vaccine isn't an antiviral or antibiotic. It's a solution containing a weakened virus and a steroid. This "intends" to boost one's antibody count in response to the virus. The risks with this though is that it--the vaccine--can cause medical problems like heart disease, stroke, and bone damage (potentially osteoporosis) just to name a few. If one were already exposed to the virus, which the epidemicity of the virus would suggest, then one's immune system should've already developed a response--heart disease, stroke, and osteoporosis free--should one not have succumbed to it.  And if one is immunodeficient, then fighting off the virus is going to be difficult, vaccinated or not. (The same is true for those with co-morbidities.)

And death is the side effect of life.

If you weren't alive you wouldn't die....Simple.
Still makes no sense.

And life is what we strive to prolong, and death is what we strive to put off.
Death is inevitable; we can add more years, but nothing ever prevents it. Not even increasing life expectancy.

And statistics prove that medical intervention increases life expectancy.
Non sequitur. I'm not scrutinizing medical intervention in general.
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@n8nrgmi
your point is that a person's immune system might not work properly to stop the disease. but the thing is, unless a person has reason to think otherwise, they should act as if their immune system works properly. that's the reasonable thing to do.
and does a vaccine save lives? yes, they do. the very large majority of folks who take a vaccine won't die which can't be said if they dont take the vaccines. 
My point is that vaccination is futile if one's immune system cannot fight off the virus. One's injecting oneself with a vaccine provides little more than a placebo effect, except unlike a placebo, vaccines can harm. The reasonable thing to do is to exhaust every measure at one's disposal to keep oneself healthy before ever considering risking vaccination.

And the majority of those who haven't been vaccinated aren't dead, so your reasoning needs reconsideration.
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@FLRW
Suppose we operate on your description of "eradication," how has the smallpox vaccine as an example informed the change in life-expectancy of which zedvictor spoke/stated?
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