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@FLRW
Christian; My child is dying from smallpox, Praise the Lord!Intelligent Man: Let's find a cure for smallpox!Christian: My child is dying from Bubonic plague, Praise the Lord!Intelligent Man: Let's find a cure for the Bubonic plague!
Christians don't seek cures? That's your argument?
Athias, I pray you find Humanism.
I have no interest in "Humanism."
The point is that God might have started everything by creating 2 dimensional strings, but after that It had no affect on the Universeexcept to give people an opiate.
Can you substantiate this?
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@HistoryBuff
That violates his oath of office. And is a hair short of treason.
And if that democracy is corrupt? Does the insurrection violate the oath of his office?
except it has been by every single court and law enforcement agency that has looked at this. And that is alot of courts and law enforcement agencies.
Which ones?
no, his supporters picked up guns, spears and pipe bombs etc. and led an armed assault on the capitol resulting in the deaths of several people.
So? How did he incite this? Did he encourage armed conflict? And if so, where in the transcript is this explicitly stated?
what? there is tons of footage of police being attacked by the insurrectionists. Once they had already breached the building the police pulled back to defend the people inside the building.
And there's footage of these "insurrectionists" being allowed in. There's actually a thread on this forum which reports on this.
he incited an insurrection against the US government. His actions as that violent insurrection were being carried out are important. He did nothing to stop it for hours. And even then egged them on by repeating the lies which triggered the attack in the 1st place.
Where does he incite insurrection? And please do not cite nebulous terms like "strength" and "fight" which are contingent on the context. Case in point: I am currently fighting against your opinion right now.
yes. there are lots of cases in india where someone claims they saw someone eat beef and that person gets lynched. The lie caused the murder. Trump lied and told his cultists that he really won the election and it was being stolen. And that they needed to use strength to prevent this. The cultists then attacked the capitol resulting in the deaths of at least 5 people. His lies and incitement caused that attack. His lies triggered a terrorist attack.
According to you and those of your ilk, he's been lying since he was elected. If lies cause attacks, and we control for this, why was this the only "attack" he incited? Why weren't all of his supporters implicated in the instigation of this "terrorist attack"?
It's nonsense like this, and the regurgitation through sheepish devotees of "the LEFT," that gives birth to contrarians like the Donald.
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@HistoryBuff
of course. he incited an insurrection against democracy.
So?
He has been feeding them a pack of lies for months about he won in a landslide but it was secretly stolen.
This has not been confirmed.
He told that crowd they had to do something about it.
So?
He told them they had to retake their country with strength.
So?
His personal attorney told them that same morning they needed a trial by combat.
Did the State choose a champion? Was the The Donald clad in armor? No? Then this is irrelevant, albeit hilarious.
And that doesn't even get into his actions during the riot. He reportedly resisted calling in the national guard and pence needed to do it.
Because they were invited and let in.
He failed to make a statement for hours while people were dying.
So?
When he finally did make a statement, he repeated all the lies that were causing them to attack the capitol in the 1st place thus egging them on even more.
Lies cause attacks?
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@FLRW
Religious people are less intelligent on average than atheists because faith is an instinct and clever people are better at rising above their instincts, researchers have claimed.The theory — called the 'Intelligence-Mismatch Association Model' — was proposed by a pair of authors who set out to explain why numerous studies over past decades have found religious people to have lower average intelligence than people who do not believe in a god.
This begs the question: what is the intelligence of one who thinks intelligence is quantifiable? What is the intelligence of one who elides the bias of research that creates these metrics?
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@FLRW
FLRW:
I don't know why religious people are so against abortion. God had no problem killing babies.1 Samuel 15:3 Now go and attack Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and do not spare them. But kill both man and woman, infant and nursing child, ox and sheep, camel and donkey.’ ”
3RU7AL:
Good point.
It's actually not a good point; if you're going to presume the intentions, motivations, and rationals of a particular "philosophical" demographic, then you must do so within the context of their beliefs. Those who believe in God (i.e. the Abrahamic Religions) believe that God's prerogative is absolute--a prerogative they themselves do not share. They believe God is the ultimate arbiter where the justification of his decrees and instructions remain solely within his discretion. Religious people oppose abortion in part by reason of man's not having authority over life and death unless instructed by God. And as I understand it, the Amalekites were wiped out in retribution to their murdering women, children, elderly, weak, and sick in the battle of Rephidim.
Perhaps a better question would be, what would someone Christian/Islamic/Judaic argue in the circumstance where a staunch Satanist (descended from a long line of Satanists) wishes to carry out an abortion?
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@oromagi
Just because I took my pitbulls to the playground and let them off the leash doesn't make me responsible for the dog bites that followed.
People are pitbulls?
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To answer your last question first, because you have no idea what your talking about.
Let's put that to a test.
Pro-choice is the take that the one impregnated has the choice of what develops in their body.. pretty straight forwards that's just the freedom of anatomy.
Yes, bodily autonomy. Let's remember that concept as we proceed forward.
Raising the age of consent is typically argued for the same reasons that raising the age for drafting or drinking is, because the brain is not fully developed. The argument typically goes along the lines that having sex with someone under the age of consent is statutory rape
"Statutory" rape is the eliding of consent during coitus or any sexual contact which violates the information of State prescriptions. It is not necessarily rape; it's not necessarily not rape.
but people object to that specific line... 18, is arbitary, thus, they want to raise the line to something which isn't arbitrary. Someone who is seeking abortion is seeking to correct something that has happened to them - whereas the age of consent is speaking of someone's physical and mental fortitude to do x or y.
No. "Abortion" is not about "correcting"; it's about "terminating." And the pro-choice position, at least in concept, doesn't necessarily endorse the exercise of abortion; it endorses a pregnant woman's choice in carrying out or terminating her pregnancy. Why then would her physical and/or mental fortitude not be subject to scrutiny in order to carry out "x" or "y"? Why is it that a 14 year old, for example, can legally carry out an abortion, but cannot legally have sex with the 22 year-old who got her pregnant?
Obviously people who aren't 18 have had sex and can handle it fine, but the problem is to protect the masses, so speaking from a policy perspective, the choice is either: Leave it at a line which was arbitrary in the first place, or raise it to somewhere that makes sense. Of course, some would argue that's lower, and some would argue that its higher. But the fundamental point is that the difference is correcting a state that they are in, and doing something with lots of potential bad consequences. the two things aren't equatable.
First, what are you protecting the masses from? And if people who aren't 18 (presumably both older and younger) can handle it fine, then what state would they be in that needs correcting? Are unwanted pregnancies, STI's, and broken hearts only consequences when those under the age of 18 are involved?
You have made a false comparison, congratulations.
No, my comparison is quite dead-on. You may want to argue that human beings are like appliances that work only once fully assembled (your inept citation of "brain development," for example) but we're not. We learn and adjust using experience. And no amount of experience can prevent someone from making a mistake or a bad decision. If your argument for setting an age of consent is that those subject to it need to be protected from decisions that they don't know are bad for them because they're "too young" to know it's bad for them, then it's hypocritical to withhold this reasoning from any policy that affect everyone else. "Everyone makes mistakes."
Um.... no, did you not understand the point? The proper point is that, there are tenents being preferred, the actual specific tenets don't actually matter - just that there are some. That was what I was talking about. You are right in a manner of speaking, theism is of "tenets", but rather than what ones, as you seem to believe, its a question of if there are any at all. This entire point was about how- as long as your believed in that god, you don't have to necessarily adopt all of the positions that, say, the bible supports.
That's not the argument. The argument was whether the belief in God made one a Christian, and that one couldn't be a Christian without following the values taught by Jesus Christ. As I already informed you, those who subscribe to the Abrahamic Religions believe in "God." I then informed you that to be a "Theist" one need only believe in just one god or more. You then stated that Theism had more tenets. And now you're stating that they have "preferred" tenets, but one doesn't necessarily need to "adopt" them to believe in that god. So what is the conclusion? Theism's only tenet is the belief in at least one god. (The "preferred" tenets are irrelevant.)
Look at the guy, misunderstanding another word! Give him a clap on the back! Yes, some principles are axioms, others are not. Some principles are axioms - and as such people can be incorrect about what axioms logically lead to, such is every logical fallacy. But still.... axioms are nuanced, things which are true still hold nuance. An axiom is a thing which is self-evidently true, established, or accepted - nothing about that is absolute, I suppose you could argue that something which is self-evidently true is absolute, but I would say that logic can be nuanced... so again, incorrect.
Provide an example of a "nuanced" axiom. Provide an example of a principle that is not axiomatic.
Your entire point is based on faulty reasoning, such as false equivalences and non-sequiturs. Again, an ideology is just a system of idea and ideals, what about that is absolute? What about that can't be misinterpreted, what about that must stay consistent? I would argue that progressives have the same core values, and whether a policy reaches that goal is what depends if something is of that ideology, just like principles can be applied differently and be correct or incorrect based on the circumstances - that seem thing applies to how ideas are under a ideology. Sometimes things can be more aligned or less aligned, that's a basic part of any "ideal" because its necessarily subjective and relative. What you stack on top of that is the objective part. Most of your ideas can be aligned with progressisvm and you can not at all be a progressive I agree, if your fundamental goal or end result you seek is not that of progressivism then you aren't one - that is true, but again, people can disagree what best gets you to those ideas, and you don't even address that point, you literally hand wave it away and try to use red herrings as if their arguments.
The reasoning that brings ideas and ideals together and keeps them within that specific system--the specificity of which provides distinction from other systems.
Someone isn't paying attention - we are talking of political ideologies no? If an idea is just a system of ideas and ideals, you argued for something to apply to a political ideology you must agree with all tenets... except... those tenets will always be up for debate, of course there may be a true set of tenets that will lead you to a goal, but there may be another way to get to that goal, to accomplish it. To get from 4 to 6 you could add two, or you could subtract negative 2, either way gets you to 6. You could multiple 4 by 1.5 and get 6. My point - is that there are multiple ways to get to a goal, therefore, each progressive might have different ideas on what is the best way to get to the goal. Thus debating between progressives is deciding which tenets, even principles are the right way to get to a goal.
Where in your citation is this stated, and thus informs my being "factually incorrect"?
Mmhm, it actually is - the preponderance of evidence or the likely hood of something can point in a direction, say to either x or y, and the other be technically true, so I am careful with my language in that regard.
Seem is not based on observational or logical information; seem is based on opinion, whether you incorporate "likely" or not.
.. and I explained it above.
No, you didn't. I'm still waiting.
Do you mean how someone can only partially adhere to a goal? Gladly - let's say the goal is to eat some cake.
Let's not; cakes aren't principles.
Technically both things would get you closer to eating a cake, but buying one premade is more aligned with eating a cake, as all you have to do is... buy then eat the cake. Whereas baking the cake makes eating it a secondary priority, otherwise x would have just bought the premade cake.
This is about pragmatism and expedience, not the ideas themselves. In other words, this doesn't change the intent on eating cake.
you can do something towards the first goal which interferes with the second, but the end result and intention still being the first goal.
Then they don't belong in the same system, understand? Ideas of the same system do not interfere because they all inform the same "goal." For example, I cannot be a pacifist who murders.
Because it doesn't and I thought that would be more apparent
That was apparent. Now I'm asking how it's supposed to inform my being "factually incorrect"?
So people who believe in christ aren't christians? Is that what you're arguing?
No. I'm arguing that those who don't following the values taught by Jesus Christ aren't Christians.
This is basing off of the holy book described, which effectively defines christianity for us.
Where in the Bible does it state that following just some of principles and values taught by Jesus would get one into heaven?
If someone were to follow all of Christ's teachings but not believe that he existed,
Then how are they following the teachings of Jesus Christ?
so in the hypothetical that the christian god exists, and follows the principles of the bible, that's how that would go down.
You haven't read the read the Bible, at least not enough of it:
In 1st Timothy 2:5
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
In Revelation 19:10
Then I fell down at his feet to worship him, but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers who hold to the testimony of Jesus. Worship God.” For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
How does one subscribe to this part of the scriptures, and not believe Jesus Christ exists?
I explained in the lines above, notice the entire thing is a paragraph? That's because each sentence leads into the next.
You explained nothing. You're just arguing in circles.
An assumption? That's most likely the case, that is if to say that whenever the cheese is on the counter, that someone left out that cheese is an assumption. And... considering that it was in exodus in a long list of rules.... that is at least a tenet of Christianity.
What you think is "likely" is not an observation; where in combing through the teachings of Jesus Christ does it state to "stone gay people"? Nowhere.
Gonna explain yourself?
Do you require explanation informing how the absence of a proposition does not equate to the endorsement of a proposition's negation? In this entire conversation, neither you nor I have spoken out against rape; I guess we both endorse rape.
Mmm. no, I don't think you're arguing in good faith, so I'm sticking to what I said before.
I have not intention of conceiving an itemized list for you to see which ones you'll tag and bag. If it is indeed your impression that I'm not arguing "in good faith," then our discussion ends here. Enjoy the rest of your night, sir.
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@EtrnlVw
Wow, that's interesting, Do you have any thoughts about that in particular?
Those who practiced Hermetic mysticism in part learned that they were conduits for "universal forces," which is just code for Astrological forces informed by Greek, Roman, and Egyptian/Kemetic polytheism. In essence, they are gods as long as they "channel" the "energies" of the Universe.
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@janesix
"As above, so below" or "Quod est superius est sicut quod inferius, et quod inferius est sicut quod est superius" is rooted in Hermeticism. Tradesecret is correct in stating that this has nothing to do with Heaven and Earth. While I agree with EtrnlVw that the phrase can be used in different contexts, it should be noted where the phrase comes from and how it's currently used. The phrase originates from (Hermetic) Mysticism. It renders that "we are the universe, and the universe is us," a concept to which witches, wizards/warlocks subscribe(d.) Currently, it's popularly associated with the Baphomet, an incarnation of Lucifer:
There was a 2014 horror film titled "As Above So Below" (I think it's still on NETFLIX) in which the main characters tunnel through the catacombs of Paris to find the Philosopher's Stone (alchemy.) They would eventually find the gates of Hell.
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@3RU7AL
Doesn't this make the State de facto OWNER?
It makes the State the de jure owner; de facto, the States engages in thievery, burglary, and robbery.
I agree.However, there is usually some individual who wields outsized control.Either a CEO or a Chairman, or a 51% stakeholder (Corporate Raider).The point here is that the workers themselves do not get a vote.
And that CEO or Chairman is held accountable by a board of directors.
So, DEFINITELY NOT "THE STATE".
If you choose to define it as such; I've chosen the other two.
Primarily I'd like people to UNDERSTAND THE PROBLEM.Putting a single organization (river-corp or river-authority) "in charge" of the river can often be WORSE than "nothing".Doing "nothing" is obviously very bad.AND policing water usage and dumping is ridiculously resource intensive.What you'd hope would be that people would "respect the river" and "play nice" and "only take what they need" and "not be idiots".But what we end up with is THE FREE-RIDER PROBLEM.More specifically, if the cost of a resource is shared, then people who don't use that resource or under-use that resource are "penalized" and those who over-use that resource are "rewarded".HOLACRACY SEEMS TO BE A "BETTER" FRAMEWORK FOR MANAGING SHARED RESOURCES.I'm curious how you, personally, might approach this "problem".
I'd privatize it. Have everyone who'd lay claim to the river (presumably because their lands are adjacent) form a contractual agreement that serves a mutual benefit.
Yes. Isn't this a marvelous feature?
It isn't far off from my argument for an individualist society. The basis is on individuals volunteering to partake. But the question remains: in a socialist or socially-holocratic society, how are wages regulated? Will they be determined by some form of collective arbitration, or will they be determine by a worker's production? And if wages are regulated, how will you off-set the regulation in prices?
It's simple, people bid for jobs. The lowest qualified bid gets the job.
"Lowest qualified"? By what measure?
I'm not sure what SPECIFIC SYSTEMS you're trying to compare and contrast.
Decentralization of management is nothing new. Holocracy's distinction is in that it offers something sentimental. That is, providing workers with more of a "personal stake," for lack of a better term, by providing certain roles and responsibilities with about being micromanaged from the top. When I watched the video on Holocracy, there wasn't much said that I, for example, didn't learn when studying "Theory of the Firm" years back. Holocracy relies on the reason and self-awareness of its participants (e.g. not feud over assuming more significant roles, etc.) I don't necessarily oppose this, by the way, but I fail to grasp a significant distinction from other forms of decentralization. And it's also important to note that decentralization could be facilitated under Capitalism. So then I must ask: what would be the difference between holocracy under Capitalism and holocracy under Socialism?
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@3RU7AL
HOLACRACY
First, wouldn't this necessitate that everyone who participates in this system to (willingly) subscribe to some code or principles? Second, how is compensation determined in Holocracy? Is pay equally distributed? Is pay subject to referendums? If there are no "managers," with whom do workers negotiate? Third, how is this different from other theories of the firm where management is simply decentralized?
Most corporations are controlled by a 51% stakeholder.
The stakeholder doesn't have to be an individual. It can be a company, foundation, hedge funds, etc.
You can get arrested for sleeping in a "public" park.
Wouldn't the absence of "state regulation" also create a "tragedy of commons" as it concerns use of the park? How does it get managed?
Who does the State rent from?
No one.
Who does the State rent to?
Everyone else.
Please present your personally preferred definition of "public".
2a : of, relating to, or affecting all the people or the whole area of a nation or state public lawb : of or relating to a governmentc : of, relating to, or being in the service of the community or nation
River water is a good example.Do upstream farmers "own" the river?If upstream farmers divert the flow of the river to irrigate their crops and thus deprive downstream farmers of adequate water for their crops, is it "stealing"?If upstream factories dump chemical waste into the water making it dangerous to plants and animals downstream, is that "vandalism"?Who is the "owner"?
What would be your proposed solution or mechanism which regulates the use of river water so no farmer in proximity will be deprived of adequate water?
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@3RU7AL
@3RU7AL:
They did seem to suggest that perhaps the numbers are coded letters.Perhaps it's not a "sequence of numbers" but rather a "sequence of letters represented with numbers".
@zedvictor:
Even Mr A our resident philosophical scholar and wordsmith is baffled by something so simple.
"Mr. A" isn't "baffled." "Mr. A" refused to guess. 3RU7AL was right. The numbers were coded letters.
A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F (6) G (7) H (8) I (9) J (10) K (11) L (12) M (13) N (14) O (15) P (16) Q (17) R (18) S (19) T (20) U (21) V (22) W (23) X (24) Y (25) Z (26.)
The fact that you insist each numbers' value Is necessarily less than "27" is tacit admission that you're referring to a series of possible solutions between 0 and 26, despite the fact that 0 doesn't correspond with any letter of the alphabet. (It's also important to note that by just looking at the numbers as you presented them, they are all necessarily less than "∞". So, there's no reason one would be prone to identifying that the parameter is "less than 27" (and greater than or equal to "1".) One would still have to guess. So on to your "puzzle":
1, 2, 5, 20, 1, 4, 5, 20, ?
If each number corresponds with a letter of the English Alphabet, then this series of numbers would be:
"ABETADET?"
This is an anagram for:
"DEBATEA?T"
The mystery letter is "R":
"DEBATEART"
and "R" corresponds with the number "18." (It's just a coincidence that 18 is the sum total of the series of numbers excluding the 20's.)
So the series of numbers should've really looked like this:
"4, 5, 2, 1, 20, 5, 1, 18, 20."
Anyway, zedvictor, this is still a guessing game. Identifying that these random set of numbers were less than "27" would've been no less a shot in the dark than identifying that these random set of numbers were less than "24" (Greek Alphabet) or "71" (Japanese Hiragana.) And the fact that it has to be greater than or equal to "1" escaped your mention. Once again, the parameters were known to just you--making it a guessing game.
@3RU7AL:
And yet, it was shockingly popular.
Yeah, this received more attention than it should have.
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@Theweakeredge
What is the basis of your contention against the existence of god(s)? How are you capable of observing the nonexistence of god(s) to the extent where you can formulate an argument that is informed by said nonexistence?
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@Danielle
Why is that?
Because one's person falls within the domain of the self. If we are to maintain the rights are moral concepts which establish a condition in which we ought to live, then self-interest--interest in the self--must serve as the precursor since any cooperation will necessarily be informed by a composite of individual actors.
So semantics. I got ya.
Yes, semantics.
What if myself (and everyone else in society) disputes your analyses of rights? Whose alleged "rights" do we honor then?
You are free to conceive a set of rules to which you and any other willing party is willing to participate; but this doesn't necessarily dispute my "analyses." I don't claim to have the only analysis. Only that the analysis to which I subscribe is the most consistent.
I can appreciate that. You remind me of myself in my early 20s. I read every publication by Mises, Hayek, Friedman, Engels and Rothbard I could get my hands on. I even read some anarcho-syndicalists and communists for funsies. I was very libertarian (practically an-cap) for a good portion of my life, and of course when I was in college got very into philosophy. Who doesn't get a lil boner by Ayn Rand when they're 19, amirite? I thought abiding by the laws of logic were paramount and got annoyingly anal about axiomatic truths so I get where you're coming from. I even had Huey as my debate icon for the longest time lol. So I actually find this conversation very endearing and was only curious where you were at in your thought processes, that's all.
I'm neither a nihilist nor a contrarian. I, too, had an "early 20's." I'm not easily swayed by the rationalizations of philosophers whether they be economic, political, religious, etc. I've reached these conclusions the same way I've always done: relying on my own capacity to rationalize. Sure, I've read Aristotle, Aquinas, Aurelius, Descartes, Godwin, Hayek, Hobbes, Kant etc. (you get the point) but I don't parrot, nor do I appeal to the authority of someone else. Some find it particularly difficult to argue against the consistency of my arguments because I truly understand my position. And to truly understand my position, I have to understand the premises, the inferences, the non sequiturs, the inductions, the deductions, the inverse, converse, and contrapositives; the negations, the rebuttals, the counterarguments, contradictions--all of it. But more importantly, I understand the reasoning. I understand how they connect; I understand how it works. So you'll find similarities between my arguments and the utterances of Mises, Hayek, and Rothbard for example, but you'll never see me regurgitate their statements. If I quote them, I'll always explain the reason that quote applies.
So as I said, I will not assume responsibility for that which others state. I'm capable of offering my own rationalizations because I understand my position.
This is what I was getting at. The TLDR is that any idea on rights (as it pertains to government, property or commerce) essentially boils down to might makes right. If you're the only one who believes X then your views don't really matter insofar as being applicable. It comes down to what ideas you can defend and enforce among people. When you ask "how meaningful is enforcement when the enforcement itself undermines the right(s) it is intended to protect" I completely understand that paradox and question that many philosophers have tried to resolve.
Might does not make right. Might is more "persuasive" to those who are not willing to risk death.
But here we are, and I expect if we go down a Socratic rabbit hole you'll come to similar conclusions most have had regarding the "necessary evil" of government and overriding of strict individualism for a functioning society.
No, I wouldn't. "Necessary" evil is a pretext which undermines individuality; "necessary evil" is still evil. It's not that individualism CAN'T inform a functioning society; it just DOESN'T.
But one is compelled. Ignoring arguments for determinism and against free will (i.e. predisposition through genetics or environment compelling choices), what about babies? Would it be immoral or against what one ought to do or has a right to do if they give an infant medicine or life saving treatment? I think if we acknowledge any rights concerning infants regards the discretion of their parents or the state, we recognize how arbitrary our conditions for the existence of rights are - that's why I was asking about other species and non humans.
They're not arbitrary; babies aren't moral agents. Neither are other species of animals, nor robots. And much like robots and other species of animals, they are subject to the discretion of those who have possession of them.
We just make up the criteria as we go along, and because there is no moral absolute or moral imperative it's not necessarily immoral to do certain things in the name of government just like we "allow" certain things to be done for babies in the name of good parenting.
Individualism doesn't just make up criteria as we go along.
I'm probs not explaining this properly in between work calls. I almost forgot about this thread. I'm confident if you think about your "ideal government" or rather ideal society without government though, certain circumstances or conditions would arise where you wouldn't be able to apply some sort of straight edged logic as easily as you think. I suspect you'll figure that out in due time and probs not in this thread. I'm enjoying the conversation though.
How old do you assume I am? And why do you presume that I need time to reconsider?
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@Theweakeredge
I'm not sure actually... I'd have to really think about that one. I've already made the point that I think as long as your general goal aligns with the philosophy of the political ideology, you are said ideology. Now, if you disagree, that's fine, that's just what I'm talking about when I say progressivism. How about this, just give me what you think some core tenants are, and then I'll respond ya or nay and why. That sound fair?
Take the example of one's being "pro-choice" and supporting "age of consent" laws. Presumably one is pro-choice because they support the principle that a person's body falls within that person's domain; thus how one behaves one's body is at one's discretion. Why then would this not be the case as it applies to sex? And progressives are notorious for lobbying to raise the age of consent. Why then is it a goal to preserve one's bodily integrity as it applies to exercising an abortion, but not a goal to preserve it when it concerns the act of which an abortion is a consequence? How does the inconsistency not undermine the ideology?
Eh, that's more along the lines of Deism, to be a theist, you have to assign attributes to said god, and which attributes are the tenets I'm referring to. As most theists say they should strive to be like god, or that they're made in god's image. This implies that these characteristics are preferable. A couple extrapolations and bada beem bada boom.
This is contradicting your previous argument. You stated that you can still believe in a god, be a theist, and not subscribe to the particular tenets associated with that brand of theism. And with this argument, you're stating that theism is defined by its tenets; even if you were arguing that these tenets are subject to debate (and they're really not) that would make the tenets irrelevant given that their being moot would dissolve any distinctions between religions. Thus, theism would necessitate believing in at least one god, regardless of the tenets.
Using context it was fairly easy to tell what I was referring to, so yes, that was a nitpick.
No, it wasn't. But we not debate over this, anymore.
See, now you're being arbitrary, assigning a dichotomy along which an idea can lay, why? Can things not be nuanced?
I'm not being arbitrary at all. The opposite, actually: I'm consistent. And yes, they cannot be nuanced. Feelings can be nuanced. The environment can be nuanced. Situations can be nuanced. Principles cannot. Because principles act as axioms which serve an absolute condition.
What I was saying there is that how I determine how progressivist I am by identifying the center or main goal of progressivism and seeing if my goals align. If yes, I am, if no, then I'm not. People can think there goals align with progressism the center idea and be right or wrong, therefore they may appear and label themselves progressive and not actually be progressive, but no one would be able to tell until they're thoughts and ideas were weighted for valid or consistency. I am not deeming it inconsistent with my goals, but the goals of progressivism essentially. That is what I meant people can disagree.
No, this is just a pretext used to inform the hypocrisy of your position. Case in point: I support a pro-choice position. Does this endorsement make me a Democrat or a progressive? No. It doesn't even make me slightly "progressive." Even if I were to agree with most "progressive" principles, I still wouldn't be a "progressive." Because "most" and not "all" just means that I have not reconciled the reasoning that informs my supporting most, but not the rest--of course presuming progressivism is a set of consistent principles. (I would argue that it's not--one of those reasons mentioned above.)
Ideology - "A system of ideas and ideals, especially one which forms the basis of economic or political theory and policy."Here you are simply factually incorrect.
How am I "factually incorrect"? How does this either refute or exclude my description?
Naive - "showing a lack of experience, wisdom, or judgement."Here we see a lack of judgement, at least on this subject, it arbitrarily limits what an ideology is, even though the dictionary specifically disagrees with you. Why do you limit like so? Ideology does not mean what you seem to think it does.
First, "seem" is not an argument; second, where does "the dictionary specifically disagree with [me]"?
Once again, locking it in a binary, while it is true that you either believe a proposition to be true, or you don't the same can not be said for systems of thought or ideas. Certain ideas can be less or more aligned with an ideology, people may believe it to be a goal, but not the most important, there are lots of ways of measuring this. Again, arbitrary.
Describe how one functionally adheres and does not adhere to a goal. And we're not talking about subjective gauges of significance. We're talking about the constitution of adherence.
But.... you literally did, I already provided a definition that specifically doesn't back your approach.
You've done no such thing. You provided a definition which you have yet to delineate its exclusion of my description.
That's also wrong... because it doesn't fit the people who would still make it to christian and don't apply those principals. Are these people not "Christians"?
No, they are not Christians.
Even though they get to make it to heaven and forever are rewarded?
How do you know this?
Is a person who is sent to hell because they did not believe in christ, yet follow his teachings closely a christian?
How does one who follows the teaching of Jesus Christ get sent to Hell? How do we know they were sent to Hell?
Is the murderer who only converted in his last moments (truly repented) and never followed christ except for those last moments a chrsitian?
Yes. There are no temporal or chronological restrictions on following the teachings of Jesus Christ.
No. You're rebuttal falls short.
How?
Though if we assume that the bible is informing the government which they governed over, and people are commanded to kill a man who sleepeth with another man, its not far to say stoning.
But that is no less an assumption. You're ascribing it Christianity as one of its principles.
And the bible explicitly says you shouldn't steal, yet it doesn't say the same of slavery? Just tell them to stop slavery, that was never commanded therefore, an endorsment.
No.
Throw out some principals and I'll tell you if I agree or disagree. Then you decided if I am a progressive or not.
You know the ones you follow, and presumably, you know the ones you don't follow. Which are the ones you don't follow? Which are the ones you associate with progressivism, but with which you don't align your goals?
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@3RU7AL
There are no "worker unions" in EMPLOYEE-OWNED companies.The workers are the management.There is absolutely no reason to form a completely new organization to "negotiate with management".
And the concept of hierarchy wouldn't apply to "worker management"?
Corporations cooperate all the time.They can make and break these non-contractual alliances at will.
Yes, they do. But Corporations aren't necessarily "private" or "individual."
Almost everything about the STATE is functionally PRIVATE.
How so?
The STATE owns property that is not available to all people.The STATE controls resources that are not available to all people.The STATE controls services that are not available to all people.The absolute best possible STATE acts like a "benevolent" corporation that is funded by "subscriber fees" (taxes).
The State "owns" nothing; the State in effect assumes control through, as you correctly surmised, the monopolization of (deadly) force. But even by the State's inconsistent legal rubric, the State doesn't exercise abusus (alienation) of its property. It in effect "rents" in all cases.
You've just managed to prove that STATE run libraries are NOT PUBLIC.
How? Why does "public" necessarily mean "freely available to everyone"?
I don't quite understand the application of this citation. Are you citing it to convey that there will always be a threat of overuse and "selfish" interests countermanding the "common good"? Are you suggesting that examples of commons in the article serve as an example of regulated public goods? What is the "common good"?
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@3RU7AL
Fellow conspirators in a syndicate do not share ownership.
"Conspirators"? If their perpetuated cooperation regulates the management, acquisition, as well as the alienation of their respective properties, then they either "share" ownership (which undermines the principles of ownership) or they "own" nothing. Properties not subject to this cooperation is irrelevant.
No. It most certainly is NOT.
How would you then characterize the State? How are its functions certainly NOT public?
The State is a public enemy.That's better.
Haha.
Workers negotiating wages and individual internal company policy is no more "anti-free-market" than Private-Individual-Owners setting wages and individual company policy.Internal corporate policies are NOT "REGULATIONS".
Worker unions will manifest in order to sustain "employee-ownership." Wages will be dictated by either an abitrary standard of equity or contribution to the company's production, both standards which are dictated by the worker union. That is not negotiable. Even if the standards are reworked and subject to a periodical referendum, the worker union will dictate how the standards are reworked. Prices will be regulated in order to reflect the regulation of wages.
STATE = MONOPOLY ON FORCE
True. How does the State's monopoly on force exclude it from being a public entity?
PUBLIC = FREELY AVAILABLE TO EVERYONE
Not true. Case in point: public libraries. You can take a book out which typically necessitates a library card. In the event that one returns a book late, or doesn't return the book at all, one is charged. The manner in one may access a public good may be easier, but not necessarily "free."
PUBLIC = NOT OWNED OR OWNABLE
So then who effectively controls public goods?
PRIVATE = REQUIRES EXPRESS PERMISSION FROM OWNER TO ACCESS
I suppose that's a part of it in that it extends the proprietary claim of an owner.
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@3RU7AL
When you have a command structure where each level ONLY listens to those ABOVE THEM, there are some systemic problems that tend to crop up.For example, since nobody listens to the lower levels, many problems (and potential problems) go unreported.This leads to executive overconfidence.Also, good ideas are rarely acknowledged, except when they are stolen by a superior.AND since executives are guaranteed "golden parachutes", they tend towards reckless pursuit of short-term gains.
What does this have to do with Capitalism? How is any of this speculation as to what "could" happen an inherent flaw of Capitalism? Wouldn't that be like my saying, "people tend to rob liquor stores when they have ease of access to firearms; therefore, guns are inherently flawed"?
I guess some individuals are more sovereign than others.
Perhaps (depending on the context,) but sovereign nonetheless.
Individual-Owners are prone to syndicalist cooperation and regulations, which mimics the State.
In which case, they cease to be "Individual" owners.
In-fact, the State has become a naked puppet of these syndicates of Individual-Owners.
Syndicates of individuals which do not operate on the autonomy of each individual owner is not "Individual."
Nope.
Define "State"; define "public"; define "private."
By what definition?
With respect to the description of Communism where the means of production and the dissemination of goods and services are subject to public control/regulation. The State is a public entity.
Employee-Ownership is more like a private-club.
Or a microcosm of the "public."
There is no aspect of socialism (EMPLOYEE OWNERSHIP) that makes socialism incompatible with a FREE-MARKET.
Employee-Ownership-->Worker Unions-->Wage Regulations-->Price Regulations-->Non/UN-Free market.
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@3RU7AL
The same faults as FEUDAL HIERARCHY.CAPITALISM = FEUDAL HIERARCHYOWNER = GOD-KINGSOCIALISM = DEMOCRACYSOCIALISM = EMPLOYEE OWNERSHIP
What are the faults with a "feudal hiearchy"? How do you equate Capitalism and feudal hierarchy? If you're equating socialism with democracy, would the faults of democracy extend to socialism?
You'd first have to understand Capitalism and Socialism. Capitalism is the production and dissemination of goods and services by private [INDIVIDUAL GOD-KINGS] entities.
More like sovereign individuals.
Socialism is the regulation of production and dissemination of the aforementioned by a collective [EMPLOYEE OWNERS] (typically a State
Employee-owners are prone to syndicalist cooperation and regulations, which mimics the State.
[REGULATION BY THE STATE IS CALLED "STATE CAPITALISM" WHICH IS WHAT CHINA CURRENTLY HAS].)
"State Capitalism" is akin to an oxymoron because the State by definition is a public entity. Once the State enters and "regulates," then production and dissemination of goods and services cannot be regulated by private entities. Hence, it's not Capitalism. And China is very much communist. China as an EME may gradually become more lax in its micromanaging, but loosening the leash does not get rid of the leash.
As it happens, Capitalism and Socialism are [NOT] diametrically opposed.
Yes, they are. "Employee-ownership" is very much the same as "public" ownership, unless we're talking about a single employer having a single employee (not unheard of I guess.)
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@3RU7AL
@Benjamin
@Benjamin:
"Truth and logic exists, untrue and illogical things cannot exist"
You can reduce this further. Of course, reduction is ultimately an exercise in futility. But at least at this stage, it still can be reduced. Why must truth and logic exist, and why must illogical (and presumably "untruthful" ) things not exist? What do you mean by "exist"?
@3RU7AL:
OR, you could just call it an AXIOM.
Haha. Suppose he could.
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@Theweakeredge
Not only after but during the election there were cries everywhere of "Hilary would have been a worse president!" and "She is actually evil!" People essentially saying that the country would have gone down an even worse path if Hilary was elected in 2016, do people think this is true?
She is evil. The body count amassed by her family; the operations of the Clinton Foundation in Haiti; her association with Pizzagate (resulting in the displacement of thousands of emails...) Yes, I think it's true. Would the country have gone down a "worse" path? No. Presidents are merely managers. They do what they're told.
How would you have reacted to Hilary Clinton winning?
Indifferent.
How do you think general America would react?
Some would naturally be upset as others would naturally be elated.
Would she be a good or a bad president, why?
All presidents are the same in their function. Like I stated above, they do what they're told. (The metric of good or bad would be irrelevant.) I suppose if there were presidents I could select as standing out from the rest of the litter, it would be Andrew Jackson and William McKinley.
How would her presidency affect America?
She may have advanced further the stranglehold of social welfare programs, but it would be hard-pressed to pin that on just her since that's been the case as far back as the turn of the last century.
How would her presidency affect the world?
I guess the women of the world would've rejoiced at the inauguration of the first female president, finally putting an end to the unilateral sex-based oppression they've been coaxed into accepting, despite a rich history of female monarchs and leaders. I mean after Obama was elected, we finally accepted that racism was over, right?
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@zedvictor4
Perhaps puzzles aren't an American thing.
Perhaps, because we all know that mental acuity and geographic location are biconditionally related.
The second puzzle, tells you the answer...All that is required is a bit of General Knowledge.
Once again, I have no intent on attempting to throw guesses at these alleged "puzzles." I thought since you relented the answer for the first, you might do the same for the second. My mistake.
As for your puzzle......Applying basic puzzle formats, one initially doesn't need to come up with anything other than 6.....
So your answer is "6"? There's no need to separate yourself from your answer by stating, "one initially doesn't need to come up with anything other than 6..." And no, the answer is not "6." (You were close, though.) You see, I can't expect you to figure it out just from its mere presentation--not even for a "keen" puzzler like yourself. Of course, you're going to state that it's "6" based on the only reasoning you can grasp from its presentation, and that is its order. But if I keep the rules to myself, how can the answer be determined by you or anyone other than guessing at the rules? Presenting a series of numbers and making one of them a mystery doesn't necessarily make it a (number) puzzle. Now I can drag this out like you did and pretend that I'm testing your "mental acuity," but I won't. The answer is 23/4 (or 5 and 3/4.) And the rules are rather simple: the mystery number is based on applying an order of operations incorporating each of the previous five numbers. Also the mystery number is necessarily greater than five, but less than six.
(1^2 x 3)/4 +5
I couldn't expect anyone to discern this merely from looking at the series of numbers as I presented them. One would literally have to guess. And that's the folly with your number puzzle: once you declared that your series of numbers was not a sequence, you declared it to be absent of a consistent rule. Thus, it became a guessing game, whether you acknowledge it or not.
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The subject of men hitting women will always be a, for lack of a better term, "touchy" matter, much in the same way as it concerns adults and children. I've been in altercations involving female parties and my first response in the advent of physical initiation is to restrain, not to hit back. (Though, I take no issue with a male fighting back if aggression was initiated against him, the sex of the initiator notwithstanding.) With that said, I for the most part agree with MisterChris.
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@zedvictor4
As I've stated previously, it's a standard puzzle. It just requires a little bit of thought, and any keen puzzler would work it out in seconds.
No, it's a guessing game for which its "rhyme or reason" was known to just you (like I stated earlier.) You may think it's a "puzzle" because you understand its reasoning; and you understood its reasoning for a time because, as FLRW pointed out, you made it up. There's nothing in your "puzzle" that would make one "keen" to excluding the 20's and taking the sum of the remaining numbers until you said the mystery number was 18. Had you said the number was 48, it would've meant excluding the 5's and taking the sum; if you said the number was 56, it would've meant excluding 1's and taking the sum. If you said the number was 200, it would've meant excluding the 20's and taking the product. By presenting the series of numbers as you did without providing much information, any of the aforementioned rationalizations could have been true, as well as a virtually infinite number of other rationalizations. It wasn't until you and you alone provided some context that was known just to you that it was worked out.
Case in point, solve this "puzzle" zedvictor:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ?
What's the mystery number? I'm sure a keen puzzler who's familiar with the workings of common puzzles will be able to work it out in seconds. And while we're on the subject, care to shed light on your second "puzzle"?
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@ludofl3x
Even in instances where there is no privilege at all?
The statement I made is by no means qualified by legal privilege. So, yes.
For example, if your friends tell you they robbed a bank and someone died, but they're pretty sure they got away with it, you don't think it's right that you're under legal obligation to report it, or be considered an accessory of some sort?
Yes. The law is supposed to reflect a moral economy, not extend the privileges doled out by the State. And if the State's priority in addressing tort takes precedence, then "privilege" should be irrelevant. Hence, law is just a mechanism reflecting the arbitrary interests of the State.
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@zedvictor4
Obviously.....That's the whole Idea of a puzzle....You're supposed to work it out.So do you actually possess the where with all, to be able tell me why the answer is 18?.......I somehow think not.One is only as clever as what one knows, and how one is able to manipulate that knowledge......I.Q.......Currently, yours isn't looking very formidable.So ditch the excuses and prove me wrong.
FLRW:
THE 18 COMES FROM ADDING UP 1,2,5,1,4,5=18, LIKE I SAID, YOU MADE IT UP.
So it was a guessing game. Zedvictor, you do realize that merely from the numbers you provided, the answer you provided, and the method in which it was obtained, "figuring it out" could've employed a virtually infinite number of rationalizations (e.g. excluding the "1's" or "5's" instead of the 20's)? If this is a "puzzle," it's a bad attempt at one.
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@Benjamin
If the claim "truth does not exist" is correct, it is a truth that exists
The substance of which is tautological, not ontological. The truth is an abstract informed by subjective experience.
Thus "Truth does not exist" contradicts its own statement
Not necessarily; it depends on the context on which the term "exist" is being applied.
If the statement "I exist" is objectively a truth I could not claim that
Objectivity is irrational. "I exist" is the basis of subjective experience.
A logical argument against logic is contradictory
Yes.
An illogical argument against logic would be subjective
No. First, all arguments are logical. The only matter is whether the argument is sound or unsound, or consistent or inconsistent.
This is a forum, logic must be present
No.
2. No process can exist that is not logical in nature, being either a single logical statement or a structure of multiple logical statementsThis one is interesting. I first want to explain what that statement means. Logic takes at least two truths/bits/numbers and "creates" a new truth/bit/number. The nature of logic is that it is 100% reliable and predictable. So far, science has proven that anything we thought of as "not logical", are just emerging features of logical systems. Randomness is just a product of complex physical laws that are nearly impossible to predict. Some mathematical functions and irrational numbers are used in order to "calculate" randomness inside our computers. We also know that chemistry is purely logical, there is no randomness or free will involved. Our brains, however, have properties of both randomness and free will, emerging features of a super complex chemical system. True randomness has never been confirmed, neither has true free will as a spirit or supernatural soul. One could believe in illogical decision-making systems like these as part of one's own faith.Let me use God as an example, defined by having the ultimate free will.How does God make decisions, logically, random or using free will? Someone has yet to explain what free will is, if not for emerging features of randomness emerging from logic. God would be the ultimate reality, and must thus be made of ultimate truths. As shown above, only logic can satisfactory explain how truths create other truths.
This is circular reasoning. You haven't substantiated this premise. The only evidence or proof of this premise is the premise itself.
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@Danielle
For instance, if I said I shouldn't have to report child molestation that I know is occurring because of my devout Pastafarianism and belief in the Flying Spaghetti Monster, would that be acceptable? And if you don't agree, explain why you think the 1st amendment does not apply to rape or child abuse.
Speech should not be coerced. Even if one were told of a crime, one is not obligated, least of all to the State, to divulge such information. One's reasons for withholding information are irrelevant.
As for the institutionalized pederasty (note that I did not state, "paedophilia") that takes place chiefly among the Roman Catholic elite, they do not venerate "God" but "Pan," the Greek incarnation of Lucifer who was both a Satyr and a notorious pederast. This sexual abuse is not an aberration; it's a ritual. And since the predominant "religion" on Earth is Luciferianism, led by none other than the Pope himself, the institution known as Roman Catholic "Church" has been insulated from effective legal response despite years of public scrutiny and hundreds of thousands of accusations and substantiated accounts.
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@Intelligence_06
Santa Claus is St. Nicholas. Osiris doesn’t look anything like Santa.
No. Santa Claus is Osiris. Santa Claus's appearance is based on an amalgamation of the Nordic gods Thor and Odin. (Thor and Odin are the Nordic incarnations of the Egyptian/Kemetic gods Horus and Osiris.) Thor was said to have ridden the skies in his golden chariot in red clad being pulled by his goats "Cracker" and "Gnasher." Santa Claus's great white beard was inspired by Odin. All polytheistic/pagan gods have the same origin. Their stories are just transmuted throughout different regions. Whether it be P'tah, Sekhmet, and Nefertum, or Asar, Aset, and Heru, or Nimrod, Semiramis (his mother) and Tammuz, or Kush, Semiramis, and Nimrod, or Tammuz, Inanna/Ishtar, and Shara, or Cronus, Rhea, and Zeus, or Zeus, Hera/Alcmene, and Hercules, or Jupiter, Juno, and Apollo, or Shiva, Pavarti, and Ganesha, or Odin, Jörd, and Thor, or Osiris, Isis, and Horus, they all have the same origin in ancient Sumerian mythology. And Sumerian mythology is based on the Luciferian trinity: Father God, Mother Goddess, and the Hermaphrodite offspring (Baphomet.)
Either way, this representation is mistaken even if it is correct back then.
It's still correct now. The predominant religion on Earth is Luciferianism.
We define what festivals are and I doubt your telling can define such a commercialized festival.
But it just did. And it's not "my" telling. Feel free to confirm/verify anything I state or have stated. According to scripture, Jesus wasn't born on December 25. Palestinian winters are notoriously cold, meaning shepherds and farmers would not have been out in the fields on the evening of Jesus's birth, much less Three wise men travelling. Furthermore, according to the information on the Course of Abia, Jesus would've been born at the end of September (after the virgo equinox.) Elizabeth was into her sixth month of pregnancy (the then future "John the Baptist") when Jesus was conceived. Furthermore, Zacharias-who was inducted in the course of Abia--received word of John's conception near the end of June (after the summer solstice) which would put Jesus's conception at the end of December. Standard gestation period would result in Jesus's being born at the end of September.
Christmas festivities are more consistent with Osiris's death and the veneration of his reincarnation, not Jesus's birth. Luciferianism seeks to pervert Christianity by having the masses accept and perform Luciferian rituals under the guise of Christianity.
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@Dr.Franklin
interesting theory
It's the telling which dates back the furthest. The Nordic, Siberian, Roman, Greek, Turkish and German (and subsequently the United States) regions have their own telling of the origin of "Christ"mas and Santa-Claus, but the tradition of placing gifts at the base of a tree on the 25th of December was an Ancient Kemetic/Egyptian tradition in veneration of Osiris.
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Here's a cool Christmas fact: Christmas isn't an accurate representation of the birth of Jesus. It's actually the birth date and date of resurrection of the Kemetic/Egyptian god, Osiris. You see, Osiris died four weeks before his birthday. He was later resurrected as his son, Horus, on December 25--Osiris's birthday. His Egyptian goddess and virgin wife, Isis (mother of Horus) claimed that after her husband's death, a full-grown evergreen/cedar tree sprung forth from a tree stump, where at its base, Osiris (spirit) would leave gifts for her. He would do this every December 25th.
Santa Claus is Osiris. Santa's sleigh is actually Osiris's solar barque. Christmas festivities are a pagan celebration.
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@zedvictor4
"Nothing" is variously defined.
It's being "variously defined" is insignificant. The descriptions we both sustain in the context of our exchange is. And "nothing" as I've argued it, as you've argued it, is irrational. Only "something" is rational. Conundrum abated.
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@zedvictor4
Nothing has been substantiated...That is the ongoing issue....And if you want to be picky...Nothing has not been substantiated either....That is the ongoing conundrum.
"Nothing" is irrational. It isn't a conundrum.
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@TXHG
The profit motive for Capitalists causing a number of harmful (minimising worker salary) or inefficient behaviours (Massive amounts on marketing to buy a drug X that is fundamentally no different from drug Y),
First, how are you measuring the minimization of worker salary? Comparatively or Absolutely? Second, how is spending "massive" amounts on marketing a drug that is fundamentally no different from drug Y harmful?
the alientation of workers from their labour,
How is this harmful if a worker chooses to alienate his labor?
the concentration of wealth also being a de facto concentration of political power which runs counter to democratic tendencies, etc.
What does this have to do with Capitalism as an "inherent flaw"?
What are you referring to? I'd guess the USSR if I had to hazard a guess just because that's the usual go-to example, but that doesn't really fit.
No, not the U.S.S.R. The syndicalist movements started earlier (notably in France, Spain, and Italy) and failed spectacularly during early-to-mid 20th century.
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@TXHG
Few people actually argue for pure socialism or pure capitalism, though I'm one of the former and believe Capitalism has inherent flaws that cannot be constrained and must be checked with socialism giving superior outcomes though I don't advocate state control as the best method for governing the means of production and prefer worker co-operatives.
What are the inherent flaws of Capitalism? And did a worker co-operative system not fail as far as macroeconomic implementation?
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@zedvictor4
Just being realistic...
Realistic? No, you're being materialistic.
The limits of human perception are such that one cannot truly say otherwise.
I've "truly" said otherwise. What am I doing if not perceiving?
That is not to say, that what cannot be perceived is not of the same stuff as you and I.
You don't know this. And you'll never be able to rationalize it.
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@zedvictor4
Evolution has taken billions of years to create what a designer should be able to do in a day, or two.
How do you know this? Did you read a "book"?
And evolution is still ongoing and there is still no perceivable designer.
If you subscribe to Evolutionary theory, I suppose you can render that conclusion. But "randomness" hasn't been substantiated, much less "no" designer.
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@Jarrett_Ludolph
There are two ideas I want to discuss in this forum, the idea of a fallen world, and a finely tuned Universe.The idea of a fallen world is a defense against the Problem of Evil, saying that evil entered the world when people sinned. thus, the Problem of Evil does not bring into question God's goodness and power, because it's man's fault. This "fallen world" idea is strictly contradicted by the Teleological ArgumentThe Teleological Argument (or the fine tuning argument) says that the world is so perfect, that a God must have created it.So what is the problem with these two mindsets?The fallen world describes an imperfect world around us, and the fine tuned world (from the Teleological Argument) describes a prefect world around us. These two ideas contradict each other, so the Christian must either drop the teleological argument (one of the best arguments for God), or drop the idea of a fallen world (the best response to the Problem of Evil)if you think the world is so fallen and bad because of sin, stop trying to find design in everything!
They do not contradict. You're misrepresenting the teleological argument. The teleological argument suggests that the complex phenomena of the Universe necessarily indicate an intelligent design, and thereby a "designer" (i.e. God.) A christian can sustain both the "fallen world" position and the teleological position without contradicting either because "perfect" is irrelevant--at least as far as Christian morality is concerned. Of course, there are logical issues with the teleological argument (i.e. bald assertion) given that conclusions (e.g. "there is a designer") are rendered without first substantiating the premise ("there is a design.")
Your contention is a straw-man.
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@Conway
I say virtually as I'm generally aware of some European conversations on a purely trivial note.
"Trivial"? You do know that "Das Kapital" was written in German (Europe)? And before Marx, Capitalism was written on by once again, Louis Blanc and Pierre Joseph Proudhon.
You don't seem
Seem is not an observation; seem is an impression.
to understand the distinction between a word and a term.
I'm well aware of the distinction between words and terms. And "Capitalism" is a term that isn't used much outside the context of Economics. So whether it's referring to "capitalists" or "laissez-faire" "Capitalism" is a term either way.
How do you know you aren't making the same mistake of applying the term to people who simply meant, having ownership of capital (to the exclusion of others)?
That is the exact context in which Marx refers to Capitalism, not "laissez-faire." Marx believed that Capitalism was a state sanctioned system of wealthy property owners (employers of capital) who exploited the surplus value of commodities produced by laborers. The colloquial application of Capitalism today is a product of Physiocracy and loosely Adam Smith and David Riccardo, despite their not using the term, "Capitalism," directly.
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@Conway
As you can see, the word (not just the term) was virtually unheard of until the late-1800's, around the time Das Kapital was publicized. The implications seem fairly obvious.
But not unheard of. Even if we were to restrict our tracing back its origins to just the word, "Capitalism," it still wouldn't have been coined by Karl Marx. French socialists Louis Blanc and Pierre Jospeh Prodhoun used the term before Marx did. And its alleged first English use was by William Thackery in 1854 (before Das Kapital, which was published in 1867.) If you research the etymology of the word, it originated in France (i.e. Capitalisme.)
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@Theweakeredge
Because healthcare is the system that allows modernization. Without ways to prevent illness, fix injury, or treat afflictions; not only would productivity plummet, but the age of living would also be reduced. Not only that but in order to have any morality at all, the state of other's beings is implicitly needed. Therefore, in order to declare anything "wrong", you must have an assumption that human regard matters, and would thus be morally inclined to take care of such things. The marketization and order for product only hinder that goal, the exploitive cost, the idea that there should be profit in the organization at all, all of that, hinders that goal.
How would "treating it as a business" or "marketization" diminish and/or hinder ways to prevent illness, treatment of afflictions, productivity, and the age of living? How does the exploitative costs and the idea of profit in an organization, as you particularly put it, diminish/hinder the aforementioned goal? How does state-ownership provide a remedy?
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@Theweakeredge
Except... you can be partially free... You can be regulated to the laws of physics and technically not be "free". You can have the right to do as is with the law and technically be "free". Clearly, there is more nuance to freedom that you do not include, to look at it binarily is like to look at lots of things through a binary, that simply isn't. It is simplistic and not the case. I could be a criminal that is allowed out of prison, but with an ankle monitor, I am "more" free than I was before unless you're saying there is no difference? Clearly, freedom is relative to your experience.
The "freedom" to which I refer is philosophical not "physical." And no, one cannot be "partially" free. When one's autonomy is subject to the decisions of someone else, regardless of scope, it renders one "un-free." For example, if I were to legally possess a slave and permit him/her to carry out the functions of an ordinary person, i.e. go to school, go to work, meet someone, marry, start a family, etc. but he/she is to report to me every night at 9 p.m., would that person be "mostly" free? Are the functions he/she carries out manifestations of his/her autonomy, or merely extensions of the privileges I've offered? How would my seeming "benevolence" make him/her any less my slave?
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@Theweakeredge
Honestly, I could try to rebut you, but I definitely feel ill-prepared to speak purely economics, lol, so I took a step back and saw what other people thought. From my perspective, its as simple as making some systems or markets owned by the state and others not. I don't know if there something beyond the obvious, "how would we pay for that" that makes that some kind of problem. Some things shouldn't be treated as a business, certainly not healthcare, insurance, or education. That's my views though.
What are the reasons you believe that healthcare, insurance, or education shouldn't be treated as a business?
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@Sum1hugme
Well pure socialism and pure capitalism are poles on the left to right aspect of the political spectrum. So an economy can have socialist aspects, but remain mostly capitalist. So it's not completely accurate to say that an economy is socialist because it entails some regulations. That really just means that it is pulled a little left.
Everything is regulated, not just some. Any one's property or resource can be subjected to seizure, not just some. Saying mostly Capitalist is like stating "mostly free." It either is, or it isn't.
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@Conway
If you were so interested you can look up definitions for socialism and communism, but you won't find capitalism in an American dictionary prior to the Civil War.
How does this pertain to Karl Marx's allegedly coining the term, "Capitalism"? Karl Marx did not coin the term. Confirm it for yourself.
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@Sum1hugme
The systems of market regulators determine socialist and capitalist policies in different markets. So as pure extremes they are juxtaposed, but in practice systems display aspects of each idea. Pretty much everything is a mixed economy in practice
I somewhat agree with you. My only contention would be that a "mixed" economy is essentially socialism. In practice, there aren't any "true" private entities. Citizens and their properties and resources are subject to regulations of the State.
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@Theweakeredge
As for socialism? I think people are much more familar with it's failings, I'll go with one of the most apparent: Its lack of incentives.
Socialism's primary fault is in the elimination of a free-flowing price system. Unregulated prices are the best index of value. If I'm willing to sell you something, and you're willing to buy it, what is a better indicator of value than our mutually agreed transaction? When this is regulated by a State or a collective, it injects the values of the State in place of the involved parties and coerces their transaction. This of course, like your reference mentions, can create a lack of incentives.
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@Theweakeredge
Except I didn't assume that was the only solution, I said it is a possible solution.
You presented a dichotomy for which you claimed either in its purest form is inescapably at fault, and questioned the overwhelming support for one or the other in contrast to middle ground. Where were you suggesting that middle ground was just a "possible" solution?
I also suggested mixing and coming up with something new
I know.
awfully selective reading you have there.
I read what's in front of me.
If I were to say: "Because it is not either of them the answer must lay in the middle" You would be justified in saying that,
That is essentially the nature of your argument. Here let's reexamine:
Why do people continuously insist: "Either Capitalism or Socialism", clearly both economic systems have their faults. Why is it that in other regards can we see that there are middle grounds, third options, etcetera, but in this specific field I've overwhelmingly seen support in one or the other way. I think that the faults of either are inescapable in their purest forms.
There are no third options, or etcetera. Capitalism is diametrically opposed to socialism. And your suggestion of "purest form" would indicate their functions at their extremities. Even if you were to suggest mixing both, that is middle ground because you're negating their extremities and functions for a compromise. This is not like, for example, political ideologies where one can claim a third option to being either Democrat or Republican in the form of Libertarian. Either the economic system facilitates the production and dissemination of goods services being regulated by private individuals or entities or not. If it's the former, it's Capitalism; if it's the latter, it's Socialism.
A) The fact that we already kind of do that,
Yes, we do. Except this middle ground is a farce. It's socialism--or to be more technical, it's communism.
B) That isn't what I said, your fallacy is an example of the fallacy fallacy.
Then what did you state? Or what did you intend to state?
CapitalismI could list them out, but I think this source does it much better than I could explain it currently: (GEH)
Okay, let's go these supposed faults:
1. InequalityThe benefits of capitalism are rarely equitably distributed. Wealth tends to accrue to a small % of the population. This means that demand for luxury goods is often limited to a small % of the workforce. The nature of capitalism can cause this inequality to keep increasing. This occurs for a few reasons
- Inherited wealth. Capitalists can pass on their assets to their children. Therefore, capitalism doesn’t cause equality of opportunity, but those born in privilege are much more likely to do well because of better education, upbringing and inherited wealth.
- Interest from assets. If capitalists are able to purchase assets – bonds, house prices, shares, they gain interest, rent and dividends. They can use these proceeds to buy more assets and wealth – creating a wealth multiplier effect. Those without wealth get left behind and may see house prices rise faster than inflation.
- The economist Thomas Piketty wrote an influential book Capital in the Twenty-First Century, which emphasised this element of capitalism to increase inequality. As a general rule, Picketty argues wealth grows faster than economic output. He uses expression r > g (where r is the rate of return to wealth and g is the economic growth rate.)
First, "inequality" is not a fault. Inequality is inevitable among a population of varying skills and talents, let alone subjective values. If I did not make as much as a currency trader for example, the system would not have faulted me. Rich and poor are relative concepts; therefore, in order to be "rich" there would necessarily need to be one who's "poor" or at the very least, "poorer." The premise of this argument is that it's "faulty" to not have wealth.
Capitalism relies on financial markets – shares, bonds and money markets but financial markets have a tendency to cause booms and busts. In a boom period, lending and confidence rise, but frequently markets get carried away by ‘irrational exuberance‘ causing assets to the spike in value. But, this boom can quickly turn to a crash when market sentiment changes. These market crashes can cause economic downturns, recession and unemployment. At various times, capitalism has suffered prolonged recessions (the 1930s), periods of mass unemployment and a decline in living standards.
Capitalism does not "rely" on financial markets. It relies on commerce generated by private entities. The booms and busts of the securities market, which is referenced in this quotation, is a consequence of the credit cycle regulated and sanctioned by the government and its affiliates. That has nothing to do with Capitalism in and of itself.
In a free market, successful firms can gain monopoly power. This enables them to charge higher prices to consumers. Supporters of capitalism argue only capitalism enables economic freedom. But, the freedom of a monopoly can be abused and consumers lose out because they have no choice. For example, in industries like tap water or electricity supply, which are a natural monopoly, consumers have no alternative but to pay the prices charged by consumers. In the Nineteenth Century, monopolies like Standard Oil bought our rivals (often with unfair competitive practices) and then became very profitable.
No, firms don't gain monopoly power in Capitalism. Even the case against Standard Oil was a farce. Standard Oil before its dissolution had over 150 competitors. How was it a monopoly? The only monopolies are state-sanctioned monopolies which take form in patents, copyrights, and trademarks--and lythoronine tablets, the subject of this reference's case for "monopoly" has a U.S. patent.
Monopsony is market power in employing factors of production. For example, firms can have monopsony power in employing workers and paying lower wages. This enables firms to be more profitable but can mean workers don’t share from the same level of proceeds as the owners of capital. It explains why with increasing monopsony power we have seen periods of stagnant real wage growth while firms profitability has increased (2007-17 in UK and US)
No it's not. Whoever wrote this knows little about the subject. A monopsony is a single buyer controlling a market, very much in the same way that a "monopoly" is a single seller doing the same. Even when applying the concept of monopsony to the labor market, his description would be inept.
In a free market, factors of production are supposed to be able to easily move from an unprofitable sector to a new profitable industry. However, in practice, this is much more difficult. E.g. a farmworker who is made unemployed cannot just fly off to a big city and find a new job. He has geographical ties to his birthplace; he may not have the right skills for the job. Therefore, in capitalist societies, we often see long periods of structural unemployment.
Once again, not a fault of capitalism in and of itself. Structural unemployment usually occurs in often revolutionary shifts in the focus of generated commerce, i.e. primary sector (raw materials,) secondary sector (manufacturing,) and tertiary sector (intangible goods.) This is in fact necessary. The computer from which you type and likely generate some income is a result from monumental shifts in skills.
In capitalist economies, there is limited government intervention and reliance on free markets. However, market forces ignore external costs and external benefits. Therefore, we may get over-production and over-consumption of goods that cause harmful effects to third parties. This can lead to serious economic costs – pollution, global warming, acid rain, loss of rare species; external costs that damage future generations.
Where's the substantiation of this argument?
The nature of capitalism is to reward profit. The capitalist system can create incentives for managers to pursue profit over decisions which would maximise social welfare. For example, firms are using theories of price discrimination to charge higher prices to consumers who want to jump the queue. This makes sense from the perspective of maximising profit. However, if we have a society, where the rich can pay to jump a queue at a Fairground – or pay to see Congressman quicker – it erodes social norms and a sense of ‘fair-play’The pursuit of the profit motive has encouraged some law firms to aggressively pursue litigation claims. This has created a society where we devote resources to protecting ourselves from being sued. Further reading – “Moral Limits of Markets” by Michael Sanders
Once again, none of these arguments are substantiated in the slightest. It merely presumes that Capitalism is detrimental to "social welfare" and "fair-play."
Theweakeredge, you can provide better arguments for the alleged faults of Capitalism. This itemized list is thoughtless and lacks an appreciation for economic analysis.
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@Conway
David Riccardo is associated with capitalism today, and certainly capitalists have been referred to since the 1700's in the original context of investment, but I haven't come across evidence pointing to a Marxist conception of laissez-faire from him.
"Laissez-faire" comes from Physiocracy; hence, the term is French (as Physiocracy was a school of thought originated in France.) It would be peculiar to associate "laissez-faire" with Marx given that he was German, and moved to Britain ironically under the auspices of his wealthy Capitalist friends to write about political economy. Marx in no way or form "coined" the term "Capitalism." Marx did however make reference to State Capitalism.
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@aletheakatharos
I grew up in an ultra conservative bubble where I believed women should not vote, work outside the home, or go to college. I wore skirts down to my ankles and my social life was exclusively church or people who believed just like me.
Preach, sister!
I had no access to the internet until I was 17 years old, and so I had zero exposure to pop culture or basic children's movies.
Praise, Jesus!
Joining DDO in like 2014 was a crash course in the world for me. I left it about four years ago because it was dying and I recently found this site hoping that reading other people's opinions will help me grow further.
In all seriousness, if I'm simply offering my personal opinion, something I don't do often, I believe your parents/family did you a favor. American/Western pop culture and children's movies aren't as they appear. (Fun Fact: Did you know the CIA colluded--and still colludes--with Disney to disseminate propaganda to children?) They usually promote idolatry, promiscuity, family dysfunction, conditioning through violence, and a sense of entitlement. Your parents/family presumably in earnest, and to the best of their capacity, tried to shield you from all this. And why wouldn't they? Think seriously on the returns you'd receive on investing in pop culture. Is your life that much richer for knowing who Elvis Presley was? Now of course, I won't completely bash pop culture as there have been great contributions in the forms of entertainment like music, art, and movies/television. But now that you're an adult, and forgive me for being presumptuous, the values instilled in you in your formative years will help you provide context to everything that you see. Unfortunately, some who receive this culture shock act out in rebellion and in some sort revisionist fashion attempt to undermine the values taught to them by their parents rather than appreciate their parents efforts in protecting them against a global current.
I too grew up in a religious home. Though, my parents were "loose" Christians. After years of angst, contrarianism, and even nihilism, I painstakingly came to appreciate the religious aspects of my upbringing. Now, I'm by no means "religious," though I do remain "theistic." And most likely I'm projecting my own navigation of relentless experiences as "sage wisdom." I suspect it will take a lot of introspection for you to come to terms--your own terms--with how you were raised, if you haven't already (again, forgive me for being presumptuous.) And I don't think that perusing the internet, or even listening to certain genres of music can give you a crammed course of the world. "The world" in my opinion is your family and intimate friends--certainly, mine are. And I didn't come to this realization, even after being exposed to children's movies, sexually provocative media (which doesn't necessarily exclude the previous,) the pageantry of politics, etc, until far into my adulthood. With that said, I don't know very much about you, nor do I know the intimate details of your upbringing. But I'm sure that the manner in which you currently live your life is best suited for you because you chose it.
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