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@whiteflame
It's odd because political pandering doesn't modify the long term effects of the vaccine. As for speaking to those effects, as I already said, there can't have been studies going on for long enough to make that possible, but that doesn't mean that there's substantive reasons to be concerned.
That's my point, observations of the long-term effects cannot have been ascertained at this point in time, and the urgency of the vaccine's necessity is grossly exaggerated.
I don't think it has to be one or the other. You can disagree with the mandate if you wish, I'm not going to argue that, but I don't think there's substantive reasons to be concerned about the long-term effects of the vaccine, and I also don't see efforts to push people to be more hygienic as sufficient to quell the pandemic on their own.
The mandate isn't just a subject of agreement; it's a matter of morality as well. Coercing the populace into taking a vaccine they have no intention of taking out of concerns which need only be valid to them is immoral. Arbitrarily deciding on which "religious exemption" suffices is the prerogative of neither the State nor physicians' association.
I'm not sure how you derive that conclusion from my statement about fewer infections leading to fewer mutants. Again, I see supporting improved hygiene as additive to supporting more widespread vaccination.
Because good hygiene is still the primary countermeasure to the spread and contraction of infection, generally speaking.
This, as a start.
Where in this reference is it expressed that the vaccinated have a tendency to do much better than the unvaccinated?
It doesn't mention the coronavirus vaccines.
It wasn't meant to. The reference was just a general overview of adverse effects with vaccination.
I mentioned that later because I feel that if you're going to argue that there are major long-term concerns regarding adverse events, then there should rationally be some basis for that belief, as opposed to just a statement that we cannot know yet.
That is a perfectly legitimate inquiry. We cannot know yet is double edged in that it modifies arguments both in favor and against the administration of this vaccine. One cannot expect conclusions about the long-term, when the long-term has not been observed or sufficiently mirrored.
Haven't seen evidence of what you've bolded here, at least not with these vaccines. Maybe you're talking about the broader set of all vaccines, but I'd rather keep this focused on this set for now if you don't mind.
3RU7AL, some time ago, made reference to 23 patients having died short after receiving the vaccine:
3RU7AL:
Doctors in Norway have been told to conduct more thorough evaluations of very frail elderly patients in line to receive the Pfizer BioNTec vaccine against covid-19, following the deaths of 23 patients shortly after receiving the vaccine.“It may be a coincidence, but we aren’t sure,” Steinar Madsen, medical director of the Norwegian Medicines Agency (NOMA), told The BMJ. “There is no certain connection between these deaths and the vaccine.”The agency has investigated 13 of the deaths so far and concluded that common adverse reactions of mRNA vaccines, such as fever, nausea, and diarrhoea, may have contributed to fatal outcomes in some of the frail patients. [**]
This is another reference from when I was discussing the issue with DoubleR:
Of more than 18,000 people who died from COVID-19, for example, only about 150 were fully vaccinated. That's less than 1%.
Though this reference does not explicitly state this was a result of the vaccine.
If you think the data is fallacious, then I don't see us having a friendly discussion over this.
I don't think the data is fallacious. The conclusions drawn from the data are fallacious, specifically the ones I already mentioned.
You can argue that the kinds of studies that they can do are limited, which is partially true because they cannot actively challenge vaccinated and unvaccinated individuals with the virus to see what happens.
Yes, exactly.
That being said, they can actively monitor the differences between vaccinated and unvaccinated individuals in terms of antibody production, incidence of illness, severity of illness, and numerous other factors. It's never going to be perfectly controlled, but that doesn't mean that the studies are functionally worthless and in no way demonstrate any effectiveness of vaccination.
None of which has anything to do with one's own individual health. And I'm not stating that these studies are "worthless," only the arguments based on these studies which propose logically inconsistent/fallacious reasoning.
The vaccination of large populations produces some pretty impressive datasets that can be used to make the case as well. If you don't agree, I guess that's your opinion, but this is a pretty hard line of difference between us if so.
The conclusions drawn for these data sets are made post hoc because as you and I have already mentioned, the observation of "challenging vaccinated and unvaccinated individuals" has not and cannot be produced. And that is not an opinion. Though, I do not deny that the lion's share of this discussion is opinion-based, these opinions are informed, as I would presume yours are.
It strikes me that that two year timeframe was pretty arbitrary to begin with.
Yes, agreed.
You can argue that they haven't met it anyway, but I'm not clear on why that specific length of time is what makes the data sufficient, especially if you're talking about long-term data.
My reference to the two year mark is intended to pile on to the notion of how novice and limited the conclusions have been. Vaccines typically undertake 10-15 years in trials, the length of which provides at least a medically sufficient basis to make conclusions about the "long-term." The CDC "expedited" this process and set a two year mark. It's been little more than a year, and demagogues have been either pandering or outright lying about a vaccine, the long term effects for which they could not have possibly ascertained.
Well, I disagree on multiple fronts, but your suspicions aren't actually verifiable.
No, the patents are verifiable.
I'm not sure what patents you're talking about,
They're in a government directory germane to patents.
or why they're relevant here,
A patented virus which causes a global pandemic isn't relevant?
but it seems to me that when you're dealing with a pandemic, particularly one responsible for as many deaths as this one, responding with vaccination on a wide scale seems entirely appropriate.
Responding with a vaccine if one elects to take is all well and good; directly or indirectly mandating the administration of this vaccine is not.
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@whiteflame
I didn't say that it was, though to say that the long term effects of vaccines are somehow manipulated by political pandering seems a bit odd.
How is it odd? I'll ask what I asked earlier: how can one speak to "long term" when the spans of trials have been limited at best?
I have no problem with practicing good hygiene. I have a problem with the argument that vaccines should be a distant second to something that many individuals don't practice as well as they should.
Would it not then be more prudent to promote good hygiene as was done earlier during this "pandemic" (which by the way saw record lows in flu contractions) than to promote the administration of a vaccine--which will virtually be mandated--the long-term effects of which have not been ascertained?
Don't know what you mean by a "steroid-boosted vaccine", but my argument is that more infections = increased numbers of mutants. Fewer infections = fewer mutants. Vaccines reduce the number of total infections, their duration, and their spread.
By steroid boosted vaccines, I'm referring to the corticosteriod that is claimed to boost the efficacy of the mRNA vaccines. And if fewer infections lead to fewer number of mutants, then vaccines aren't necessary, correct? One could apply what has been consistently the primary counter to the spread and contraction of infection, which is good hygiene, correct?
Actual data?
What data?
I'm not sure what you're asking here, but it's a pretty easily demonstrable fact that vaccinated people are less likely to get the virus, far less likely to be hospitalized if they do get it, and far far less likely to die if they get it.
Then either demonstrate yourself, or make reference to this demonstration that the vaccinated are less likely to contract the virus, far less likely to be hospitalized if they do get it, and far less likely to die after contraction.
Mind detailing those adverse effects?
This reference should suffice:
A minority of cases in which the vaccine fails to elicit strong immune responses is not demonstrative of overall vaccination failure
I'm not suggesting that this demonstrative of vaccination "failure." Only that the argument "vaccine = health/protection" has not provided sufficient controls, especially considering that there have been a number of people who have died immediately after vaccination.
Similarly, incidence of adverse effects does not "undermine the intent of one's inoculation", since in the vast majority of cases, even people who suffer from adverse effects are still protected. And I disagree wholeheartedly that "vaccination = health/protection" has not been substantiated by the data. With over a billion people vaccinated, there is more than sufficient data to make that conclusion, and I would argue that the studies undergone by the companies that produced these vaccines had sufficient controls to reach that conclusion.
No they don't. Because there's one thing that the data can never prove: vaccination works. In order for a study to prove vaccination works, it would have to control for the survival and death as a result of the COVID-19 virus within the same sample. The data that both you and I have presumably seen do nothing more than produce ecological inference and post hoc fallacy arguments. That is, it renders conclusions both after the fact, and based on observations of other people. Those fallacious arguments are not based on sufficient controls.
You are more than welcome to discuss any data you've seen that indicates that the vaccine remains in the body beyond a few days after the administration of the vaccine.
Why would I discuss an argument I did not make?
Yes, there isn't data for it because none of the vaccines have been around long enough to make those conclusions. That doesn't mean that there is good reason to suspect that such long-term effects are likely, or that they outstrip the long-term effects of the virus.
And why is there no good reason when the scope of the data doesn't capture the long-term?
I read quite a bit into the subject. I disagree that the research into it is "incredibly limited" and I disagree that there is something wrong with their methodologies. Not every study is perfect, but quite a few of them have demonstrated this very effectively from where I'm sitting.
But they are incredibly limited, and part of that is by reason of the limitation of the trials, which the CDC had set for the two years. And two years has not passed since the beginning of these trials. We just passed one year a couple of months ago.
I'm not against vaccination, believe it or not. I am however against this COVID-19 vaccination and its variants. Its spread and the promotion of its vaccination are far too suspicious especially considering that patents for the coronavirus span as far back as 1984 (and this is verifiable.)
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@cristo71
I have never seen it this blatant.I recall a very different time in the 80’s and 90’s. I remember Tom Brokaw, Peter Jennings, Ted Koppel, Diane Sawyer… one could not easily discern their political leanings because they did their jobs well. Contrast them with their current counterparts: Don Lemon, Jake Tapper, Anderson Cooper, Jim Acosta, Yamiche Alcindor— their biases are obvious. Contrast yesteryear’s Tim Russert (RIP) on Meet the Press with today’s Chuck Todd.Now, I know that journalism tends to appeal more to the left leaning, so a center-left bias has always been there. It seems that the more blatant variety I lament here started gaining momentum during Obama’s presidency. He was young, charismatic, the first black president, and he quickly became a media darling. Enter President Trump, and the script quickly flipped. Nothing he did or could do would ever solicit anything resembling a compliment from mainstream reporters. When Biden was elected, the media met him with an overwhelming sense of relief. All he needed to be and do to garner such a welcoming reaction was not to be Trump. He was treated with kid gloves. Whatever pushback he gets from the media lately is simply media not wanting to end up on the wrong side of history to an embarrassing degree considering Biden’s glaring missteps.In summary, today’s TV media and most of the major print media have lost their journalistic professionalism and are now merely the media arm of the DNC. If you disagree, why? If you agree, do you think the profession will ever get back to its previous standard? Will it produce another one of the greats?
This would presume that they had journalistic professionalism with which to begin. The purpose of the media is disinformation and manipulation. One such case would the assassination of William McKinely in September of 1901 by an "anarchist." Or JFK's assassination in 1963 and the propagation of the "Magic Bullet Theory." The (mainstream) media has never been "objective" and only promote the interests of its Nazi/Communist/Socialist/Kabbalist/Luciferian sponsors.
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@whiteflame
I agree that our "practises/habits" with respect to preventing infections matter quite a bit, but a) not everyone is consistent in those and we shouldn't expect that they will be, meaning that the bad habits of a large number of actors can continue to keep the virus active and thriving in the population, b) this means that having good habits is not a guarantee of protection,
Neither is a vaccine. The selling point of practicing, for example, good hygiene is that it's non-invasive, and its long-term effects aren't manipulated by political pandering.
I would say that it's inevitable that there will be new variants. It is not at all certain that those variants will always be "gentle to the youth" or will be consistently and effectively targeted by the immune responses generated in response to the vaccines, and the more opportunities that we give this virus to mutate, the greater the odds that a mutation may actually cause great harm to children or circumvent immune responses.
So, is it your argument that failure to receive an mRNA vaccine or some steroid-boosted vaccine is a cause of mutation? Please expand.
These patients still tend to do much better than the unvaccinated even when they are infected, but that doesn't mean that a vaccinated individual is perfectly protected, which is particularly problematic for those with weak immune responses.
And this is based on what? That is, the tendency to "do much better" than the unvaccinated?
Vaccination failing to produce strong immune responses happen.
Yes, they do. As well as produce adverse effects which undermine the intent of one's inoculation. Hence, the argument "vaccination = health/protection" is one that has not been substantiated with sufficient controls.
I disagree that there's substantial reason to be concerned over the Pfizer/Moderna mRNA vaccines and their long-term side effects. The blood clotting has not been linked to either vaccine, nor has there been any substantially dangerous vaccine side-effects linked to these vaccines. You can point to the shorter term pain and difficulties that some have experienced, but nothing deadly nor anything terribly risky aside from allergic reactions have happened. If we're concerned about longer term effects, then the long haul issues with COVID-19 are already becoming clear, whereas no such effects have been detected in patients receiving these vaccines, and there is no indication that such effects will be detected since all traces of the vaccine are gone from the bodies of people who have received the vaccinations.
And this conclusion has been rendered after how many years of trials? How can one speak to "long-term" effects when trials which barely pass for rigorous have spanned only for a year and a half?
So far, the only longer haul explanation I've seen for why people might see side effects is the potential for autoimmunity in the generated antibodies, though to my knowledge, no cases of that happening exist.
Then I suggest researching further into the subject, and to pay particular mind to their methodologies and the limitations of their experiments/trials/studies etc. Most of the studies which state that the mRNA vaccines do not "seem" to produce autoimmune diseases are incredibly limited.
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@3RU7AL
@oromagiI have recommended:
- auto-loss on first forfeit (to save voters time and effort)
- setting debates for a minimum number of votes before closing- 3 seems reasonable
- Make voting the price of initiating a debate: something like writing 3 votes earns you 1 debate
This is the first I've seen of these proposals.A resounding YES to ALL THREE.Have you seen this ^^^ ??
No, I haven't. The first two are fine, though I'd disagree with "pricing" one's initiation of a debate.
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@3RU7AL
sO, basICally, god "exists" with the same validity as lochnessbigfootspacealiens.
God exists with the same (ontological) validity as anything else.
Is there no room in your ontology for a distinction between "concrete nouns" and "abstract nouns" ?
The "your" is naturally presumed without mention, isn't it? Yes, there is no room for distinction between "concrete" and "abstract." I value scientific integrity no more than I do spiritual integrity.
It's also worth considering that the QUESTION ITSELF is unlikely to be about a subject "highly disputed and controversial within the medical community" the QUESTION ITSELF is most likely something from a well respected and well referenced textbook that 999 out of 1000 doctors would generally agree upon.
Well stated. All the more reason argumentum ad populum is a fallacious mode of argument. If virtually all are just regurgitating that which they've read out of text book, then it doesn't matter whether the regurgitation comes from one or 999.
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@Double_R
I said, "enjoy your day, sir."
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@FLRW
So 999 out of 1000 mathematicians say that 2+2=4 and one says it is 5.2 is argumentum ad populum?
No. Stating that "2+2=4" is (or more likely to be) correct because 999 out of 1000 mathematicians say so is argumentum ad populum.
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@Double_R
What if it turned out that the one doctor got confused and checked the wrong box, so now it’s 1000-0? Does that change anything? Serious question.
No.
You can Google the actual statistics. On the show when the contestant asked the audience they turned out to be right 95% of the time and almost none of those examples had 99.9% agreement among actual experts, so claiming you are not more likely to be correct by going with them is just factually, objectively false.
No, it isn't. The fact that 95% of the instances in which the audience was polled, the majority happened to have coincided with the correct answer doesn't affect the probability of one's selecting the correct answer (i.e. 25% without life line, 50% when two of the choices are eliminated.) And you're confused over the focus of our dispute: no one is stating that the 9 out of 10 doctors can't be right, or aren't right; I'm stating that presuming 9 out of 10 doctors are (or likely to be) right because they're 9 out 10 doctors is logically fallacious.
You really seem obsessed with avoiding argumentum ad populum but don’t seem to understand when it is a logical fallacy vs when it’s not.
Seem is not an argument.
I have no intention of continuing this exchange. You obviously do not grasp the fallacy of argumentum ad populum. Anything I say at this point will just be redundant. So, enjoy the rest of your day, sir.
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@FLRW
I would say that the one doctor who chose B probably had a brain aneurysm seconds before he selected B.
Argumentum ad populum.
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@Double_R
You’re a contestant on ‘Who Wants to be a Millionaire?’. You are asked a question pertaining to the field of medicine. Being that you have no medical expertise and have no idea what the answer is, you use your lifeline to ask a crowd of 1,000 doctors. 999 of them tell you its choice A. 1 says it’s choice B. There are no other choices.For $1 million dollars, what is your final answer and why?
If all 1,000 doctors are "equally qualified" to provide an answer, then it doesn't matter whose counsel I take. The probability of my selecting the correct answer would be still be 50% whether I select choice A or choice B. The fact that 999 doctors chose choice A doesn't make it more reliable or "likely to be" correct as a consequence of comparing the number of doctors who chose choice A to the one doctor who chose choice B. If you are asserting that selecting choice A is correct or "more likely" to be correct because 999 is greater than one, then that is informed by your feelings; that is not medicine; that is not science; that is not statistical; that is not logical.
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@TheUnderdog
In order to have laws, you need authoritarianism.
No, you need people only to follow them. And they can do that because they respect the laws rather than fear coercion or duress.
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@Greyparrot
We’re not talking about science,Thank you for the generous concession.
Well put.
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@Double_R
The premise is that, all else being equal, it is more reasonable to believe the 9 doctors than the 1.
And this is fallacious for the reasons I and others have already mentioned.
To deny this is to take the position that it is equally as reasonable to accept the 1 over the 9.
No, to deny this is to take the position that "number" doesn't not qualify "veracity."
9 is greater than 1,
No one is disputing the basic concepts of mathematics.
so to claim that the 9 have no valid grounds to be accepted over the 1 is to claim that the 9 have no more expertise than the one,
Non sequitur. No one has stated that the prescription of nine doctors isn't based on valid grounds, only the assumption that their prescription is valid because there are nine doctors in comparison to one.
which if they’re all equally qualified is objectively false.
If they're all "equally qualified" then how do marginal increases in the number of physicians affect the "quality" of their prescriptions?
So the only way to make this position logically valid is to deny the value of expertise itself like I already explained.
This isn't like labor, where the more people you assign to the task, the more you expedite the process. If all 10 doctors are"equally qualified," then taking nine of them and grouping them together doesn't mean that their expertise creates a composite of greater quantity supplanting each individual's expertise. Given your rationale, they would all know the same thing because as you stated they're all equally qualified. Heeding counsel of one, in this case, would be no different than heeding the counsel of the other nine.
And if that’s your position I would like to know whether you believe in doctors at all?
What? Do I believe they exist? Yes, doctors exist. If you're asking whether I trust the expertise of doctors, then that depends on the individual. But I sustain a bias. I come from a family lousy with physicians. I trust their expertise and their recommendations mostly because we're related.
Or mechanics, or plumbers, or accountants, etc.
Never met a mechanic in person (I've only brought my car to the dealership once, and they handled its maintenance.) I trust plumbers who answer my questions to my satisfaction, and I do my own accounting.
If you’re asking me to pick one on these grounds alone I suppose I would go with the 30 year physician, but I would consider the alternative just about as reasonable.
I made no "grounds" explicit. I merely manipulated the doctors experience since neither you nor Reece made explicit mention of said experience. And you're making my point: mere number doesn't necessarily inform what's "reasonable."
The point of my question is to test whether you believe in expertise, your hypothetical doesn’t do that because it adds unnecessary complexity into it making it useful for little more than mental masterbation.
I have no idea how this can be better explained to you. So, I'll just repeat what I've stated:
If I am having chest pains, and 9 out of 10 doctors tell me I need surgery, but the other just prescribes medication, then the "reasonable" thing to do is to determine whose assessment is accurate. Determining accuracy based on the mere number of doctors is fallacious reasoning consistent with argumentum ad populum. It could very well be the case that the one doctor's assessment is accurate. Believing 9 out of 10 doctors, because it's 9 out 10 doctors has nothing to with Medicine.
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@3RU7AL
[God "exists" as a matter of definition] may or may not be a logically coherent claim
A definition of the term, "exist," incorporates spiritual being. God is a spiritual being; therefore God "exists." Lexically speaking, the dispute is resolved rather simply. If however we intend to have more fun with with the notion and explore the scope of existence and define logical parameters, I suppose we could. But as you'd recall, I'm a proponent of, how did you put it, ontological bedrock. I'd simply repeat what I've consistently stated: everything exists, and nonexistence is irrational, much more, value statements which seek to give it information.
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@FLRW
Yes, see Kant's refutation of the ontological argument.
I don't employ what is typically known as the "ontological argument" to demonstrate God's existence. (I believe I once contended against its logical consistency in a discussion with PressF4Respect.)
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@3RU7AL
It's a purely conditional statement.(IFF) causing pain and or discomfort to animals is "morally wrong" (THEN) slaughtering animals must also be at least equally "morally wrong"(IFF) causing pain and or discomfort to animals is "morally neutral" (THEN) slaughtering animals must also be at least equally "morally neutral"(IFF) bestiality is prohibited because of deuteronomy 27 (THEN) parental contempt must also be at equally prohibited because of deuteronomy 27
Well stated. I agree. It would be inconsistent to suggest for example harming animals is morally wrong, while also endorsing their slaughter for human consumption.
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@FLRW
That God really exists.
That's correct. The number of believers in God does not qualify God's existence.
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@3RU7AL
I'm merely trying to point out that nobody is shocking potatoes with cattle prods in order to get them to move from one cage to another.
Does it matter whether one marks up the tree trunk before throwing it into the chipper?
If this is reflecting a stance which suggests (non-human) animals should be protected from slaughter, especially when said slaughter is done in service for human consumption, when plant-based alternatives are available, I can show deference to that stance so long as the reasoning is consistent.
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@FLRW
Yes, If a majority of people believe in God it doesn’t make it true.
Doesn't make what true? That they believe in God? The existence of God is not contingent on how many people believe it. God exists as a matter of definition and a matter of logical consequence.
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@3RU7AL
How much and what type of meat is required for a human to maintain health ?
I'm not suggesting eating meat is required. But there's more to eating meat than, as you put it, gastronomical gratification. For example, there are substantial health benefits in eating salmon (meat) and health risks in eating chips (plant-based) [e.g. "junk food" vegetarians.] And one could argue that even plant-based foods can serve the purpose of gastronomical gratification.
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@3RU7AL
OPERATION PAPERCLIP
I wonder how many will do their due diligence and look into the subject and its relation to modern politics.
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@3RU7AL
You don’t need gastronomical gratification, people do need to eat (plants).
Surely there's more to eating meats than just gastronomical gratification; there are health benefits to eating meat, but I suppose that's contingent on which meat we're examining. One can survive as a vegetarian or vegan, but just as with meats, there are risks in exclusivity.
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@Greyparrot
I really don't understand how people don't get that if 1 out of 10 EQUALLY qualified doctors disagrees, then whatever the the issue is, it ISNT SCIENCE...You don't see 1 out of 10 doctors debating Einstein's laws...."Finally, I would remind you to notice where the claim of consensus is invoked. Consensus is invoked only in situations where the science is not solid enough. Nobody says the consensus of scientists agrees that E=mc2. Nobody says the consensus is that the sun is 93 million miles away. It would never occur to anyone to speak that way.""The notion of a monolithic “science,” meaning what scientists say, is pernicious and the notion of “scientific consensus” actively so. The route to knowledge is transparency in disagreement and openness in debate. The route to truth is the pluralist expression of conflicting views in which, often not as quickly as we might like, good ideas drive out bad. There is no room in this process for any notion of “scientific consensus.”"It's not the 9 qualified doctors we need to rapidly bobble our heads at, it's the 1 EQUALLY qualified doctor that insists we hold up a minute that deserves our utmost attention and consideration.
If a majority of people believe something it doesn’t make it true.
Well stated.
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@thett3
I am convinced that a great many of the people I know would be substantially better off if they had even a rudimentary education on finance. It's absolutely criminal that our society allows 18 year olds with no assets or income sign up for non dischargeable debt that can reach to the six figures without providing them in their TWELVE years of education the information necessary to understand that decision. These kids are the future, if you cripple them at the beginning of their adult lives, the next generation isn't going to materialize at all.
This is the intention after all--the creation of debt slaves.
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@Double_R
No, it’s not. First of all, you are confusing inductive reasoning with deductive reasoning. We’re not talking about the latter. I’m not saying the 9 doctors are right because they overwhelmingly outnumber the 1, I’m saying the 9 doctors are more likely right because they overwhelmingly outnumber the 1. And if we accept that they are more likely to be right then we are acting reasonable to follow their guidance, while doing the opposite would be unreasonable.
This is perhaps one of the most nonsensical arguments I've read. "It's not fallacious because I'm not actually stating that they're right, but that they're 'more likely' to be right as a result of the nine to one comparison"? Furthermore, the distinction between deductive and inductive reasoning is irrelevant. Your premise is fallacious.
What you are missing in your fallacious equivocation is this concept we call expertise.
How is this at all qualified by the number of those who bear this expertise? Expertise is expertise. Perhaps you can address the point Reece attempted to obfuscate. If there are nine third year residents and one attending physician who's practiced for over 30 years, whose prescription do you take? The one attending physician? Or the nine third year residents?
You claim listening to the 9 instead of the 1 is a logical fallacy.
No. You claimed that it was more reasonable to assume the prescription of the nine doctors to be more accurate because nine doctors by their mere number are "more likely" to be right when compared with the remaining one doctor. And this is logically fallacious because it imputes the consensus fallacy, i.e. argumentum ad populum, the description of which I previously provided.
If relying on the expertise of others is a logical fallacy
No one here has argued this.
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@Mesmer
1) You've conceded that: "None of this matters because the only considerations--"capable" or not--that should be made as it concerns one's own body is by the very person him or herself," is a wild claim that leads to wickedly dark conclusions.
I made no such concession; and I'd request that you quote me, but you've demonstrated no capacity to do this.
(2) You've failed to demonstrate that my original argument is irrelevant Should the age of consent be lowered? (debateart.com) because you've failed to substantiate the idea that children are capable of consent.
Your shallow argument is demonstrably irrelevant on its own; it needs no assistance from me. Note the statement which immediately followed my assessment: "because the only considerations--"capable" or not--that should be made
as it concerns one's own body is by the very person him or herself. Your reference to diminished reasoning as a result of an underdeveloped prefrontal cortex does not in any way inform or explain the disqualification of a minor in behaving his or her body as he/she sees fit. Because in order to do this, you would have to quantify and arbitrarily select "how much" reasoning is necessary to have authority over one's own body. Do any of your references speak to this? No? Then it's irrelevant.
I've substantiated the idea that children are unable to consent through reference to brain development.
No you haven't. You've only asserted. You would have first had to have defined consent, and control for its legal definition. Then you would have to demonstrate how your reference informs the incapacity to consent as it met the description you've defined. You have done no such thing, because you exhibited the proclivity to submit shallow arguments.
Moreover, children are unable to comprehend the implications, emotional aspects and risks involved in sex (much like how you wouldn't expect children to pay for a house, manage taxes, work a proper job etc.).
Another shallow argument; no so such implications are required to be considered before having sex. Moreover, one is not criminally penalized for having sex for "less informed" or even stupid reasons. So this begs the question: why are any of these alleged implications even considered as a benchmark for minors, when adult are by no means compelled to follow suit? Your reasoning, once again, is asinine.
You affording the same "bodily autonomy" to children as adults is a bad idea because they are not the same and these differences matter.
It's either the minor has authority over his or her body, or the State does. And subjecting the authority of one's body to the authority of the State is the worst idea.
Calling this "fluff" isn't a sufficient counter-argument
This presupposes that you provided an argument; I calls them like I sees them.
You are a pedophile because you believe there is no difference children and adults having sex
Physically, there isn't much difference. Emotionally, it's contingent on the individual, their being adults or minors not particularly withstanding.
you have the capacity to be attracted to children.
Don't forget "my capacity" to be attracted to other men, as well as non-human animals.
That is not the same as claiming you're a convicted pedophile, you have committed pedophilic acts or that you are planning to (hence, my reasoning is not "asinine"). Again, people are pedophiles due to your capacity to be attracted to children (which you are). Whether you are an anarchist or not has no bearing on this conclusion
Sorry, I have no intention of pretending your dime-store asinine psychoanalysis is consistent with any substantiated descriptions of pedophilia, nor do I have any intention of pretending that you're not just gaslighting and arguing ad hominem.
But really, this is you larping as a cringelord anarchist and accidentally revealing that you're a pedophile, Athias.
But of course. I mean, who knows me better than you do? Obviously I'm disqualified on speaking and informing on my own state of mind, and my own attractions, but some letters on a screen in just 20 minutes was able to reveal a cringe-worthy predilection using asinine reasoning. I suppose you could propose that I'm ashamed of what you're alleging, but as a rule, I never exhibit shame over anything I state or argue on this forum. Because I sincerely don't care enough about anyone else's opinion to modify my stances. You're not the first member who has attempted to troll me; and if you're going to attempt to troll, you might want to adjust your tactics. You were no more successful than when you once accused me of being autistic (yes, I know who you are, Mesmer.)
Well, I will engage this regress no more. You can respond if you want, but I won't respond back. Enjoy the rest of your evening, sir.
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@Reece101
Enjoy the rest of your day, sir.
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@Reece101
It’s not based on a lot of things. So what? It’s not based on chocolate cake, it’s not based on dolphins, it’s not based on verifiability. I didn’t allude to any of them.
You cannot get me to agree with a proposition that I can't verify; that is "so what?"
There goes the strawmen again.
Define strawmen. I don't think you know what it means.
sigh* I’ll ignore how petty you’re being. They wouldn’t qualify to be considered doctors and practice.
I'm not being petty. You do know that when I refer to "residents" I'm not speaking of particular individuals who live somewhere, right? I'm speaking of medical "residency" which all licensed physicians must do. And "residents" most certainly qualify as doctors.
For many medical diagnoses I wouldn’t know fact from opinion.
Hold that thought.
What does it have to do with?
If you can't tell fact from opinion many a time with respect to medical diagnoses, then how do nine "opinions" become more "reasonable" than one?
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@Polytheist-Witch
Well considering the same people that are arguing for there be no age of consent are the same one saying it's okay to have sex with a cow.
And since I participated in that very discussion, according to Mesmer's rationale, I must fuck animals as well.
[Note: I know you were making reference to Underdog's statement; I'm using your statement as basis to further ridicule Mesmer's point.]
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@Reece101
All I said is we’ll have to agree that they do. Presumption is built in. Stop trying to make strawmen, seriously.
And this agreement would be based on nothing verifiable. Hence, I did not. That is not an attempt to make "straw men."
There’s the steelman.
That presumption is made by virtue of the standards which informs their license, not that they "know what they're talking about" at any given moment or situation.
Here’s the ‘what if’ game again. Are you actually going to argue against the original argument or what?
It's not a what-if game. You never specified the experience of the doctors. So if your rationale is to hold, the prescription of nine third year residents would be more "reasonable" than a single attending physician who has been practicing for 30 years merely by virtue of there being nine third year residents. It's your fallacious reasoning, not mine.
Because the person qualifying it is too ignorant to know the difference. What don’t you understand?
You're qualifying it as an opinion. Are you too ignorant to know the difference? You're backpedaling and purposefully obfuscating the point. In your original argument you claimed nine doctors deemed it necessary (i.e. "need") for one with chest pains to undergo surgery. You then suggested that "quantity in professional opinion is quality." If surgery needs to be done, then how is that an opinion? (Note that the proverbial patient's being too ignorant to understand the difference has nothing to do with your qualifying a doctor's prescription of necessary surgery as "opinion.")
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@Reece101
First we’ll have to agree that most doctors will somewhat know what they’re talking about. Do you agree? If not, then this is a lost cause.
I cannot agree to something which I can't verify. I don't know what most doctors know, which would be necessary for me to determine that they know that about which they're talking. Wasn't that one of your points?
If you however ask me to presume that doctors have accumulated a sufficient amount medical expertise which is consistent with standards of licensed practicing physicians, then yes I can make that presumption, but nothing more.
But something just occurred to me which I think may qualify this debate. Let me ask you: would you take the recommendation of nine third year residents, or a single attending physician who has been practicing medicine for 30 years?
I wasn’t referring to you specifically.My original statement: “In general, quantity of professional opinion is quality.”Do you know the old saying, if in doubt, get a second opinion? It’s a saying for those too ignorant to know otherwise.I’m not using ignorant as an adjective.
You still haven't answered the question. If surgery is necessary, why is it being qualified as "opinion"?
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@Reece101
Hence quantity of professional medical counsel, is quality.
Explain to me the reason quantity of professional medical counsel is quality. Make sure to also explain how each marginal increase in medical counsel informs the quality.
Due to your ignorance.
We're not talking about "my ignorance." You qualified the doctors' prescription as "opinion." Why?
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@3RU7AL
So, what anyone happens to do with their own property is of no concern to the state.
I must confess, I almost teared-up. Wonderfully stated.
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@Reece101
Which you’ll be able to know how to fully interpret and understand, or will you still need doctors counsel?
And how does the number of doctors qualify this interpretation?
Well it’s up to you if you want to go through with it.
That does not answer the question. If one needed surgery, why would that be an opinion? By what metric was it determined that one needs surgery, and why would this metric allow for opinion?
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@Double_R
DuhThe question being asked here is… how do you go about determining who to believe is right?
"Believe is right?" What you think the field of medicine is?
Do you self diagnose and then conclude that you know better that the overwhelming majority of doctors who told you the opposite?Do you default to the idea that the majority of doctors must be trying to deceive you for nefarious purposes?Do you assume that the one doctor must be more qualified than everyone else because he told you what you wanted to hear?
What? How you came to these conclusions/inquiries is unknown to me. Let me explain to you the fallacy of argumentum ad populum.
(Reece if you're viewing this post, pay attention as well.)
Argumentum ad populum, which can also be described as argumentum ad numerum, or "consensus fallacy" is a fallacious mode of reasoning in which it is proposed that an argument's veracity is informed by the number of people who extend it. It proposes that mere number qualifies the truth of a conclusion. For example: 8 out 10 people maintain that Athias has never had sex. Because 8 out 10 people maintain this notion, argumentum ad populum would propose that it must therefore be true. Despite the two outliers, which coincidentally are myself and my sexual partner, maintaining otherwise, our testament, albeit true, would be diminished by the mere number of our opponents.
I have not argued in favor of self-diagnosis; I have not accused any doctor of anything nefarious; nor have I sought any doctor's prescription to "confirm my bias." If I am having chest pains, and 9 out of 10 doctors tell me I need surgery, but the other just prescribes medication, then the "reasonable" thing to do is to determine whose assessment is accurate. Determining accuracy based on the mere number of doctors is fallacious reasoning consistent with argumentum ad populum. It could very well be the case that the one doctor's assessment is accurate. Believing 9 out of 10 doctors, because it's 9 out 10 doctors has nothing to with Medicine.
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@Reece101
Okay Dunning Kruger, what does?
Evidentiary rigor.
What would be the chances though? If we’re talking about in general, I would say very slim.
"Chances"? This is not a game of craps. It meets this standard of evidentiary rigor, or it doesn't.
Read what I said to Athias. In general, quantity of professional opinion is quality.
If one needs surgery, why would that be an opinion?
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@Mesmer
You've failed to prove this.
Your statement itself is proof enough of its irrelevance.
Your want is completely relevant to this because we legally mandate what is consider "consent" through what we want,
I'm fairly aware of how you and those of your ilk operate; but within the moral framework that is present within every argument I submit with respect to subjects like these, my "want" is irrelevant.
and yes I'm arguing that we should legally mandate the notion of consent in regardless to sexual intercourse.
Don't know what this means.
When society doesn't want 9 year olds having sex, that's because there are grave implications that result from it (children, costs, power imbalances etc.) You failing to not want that is completely relevant to the grave implications that result from that.
Implications you've yet to define, and consequences of "power imbalances" you have yet to mention and/or substantiate. Furthermore, you've imputed a non sequitur. Once again, my "want" is irrelevant.
Also, the fact that you think 9 year olds should be having sex makes you a pedophile.
No. What would make one a pedophile is one's attraction and/or one's engagement in sexual contact with a minor 10 years old and younger. Suffices to state, that I do not meet this description; hence, I'm no pedophile. But your characterization isn't based on any evidentiary rigor or logical extension of the arguments' premises. That would actually require you to stop emoting.
You are incorrect because you write words which reflect what registers in your brain. Therefore, I do have an idea.
No, you don't. You have impressions which reflect what's in your brain, not mine.
Power imbalances in consent are the problem, pedophile.
Power imbalances you have yet to substantiate.
For example, if a custodial guardian says to his 10 year old child 'have sex with me or you don't get fed', that is clearly an exploitation of the power imbalance rendering the child unable to give true consent.
And if a 25 year-old tells a 23 year-old vagrant to "have sex with me or you don't get fed," would that not be consistent with the very rationale your argument exhibits above? What if I went into a poor district in my city and offered sandwiches to the homeless and starving in exchange for fellatio, would that not be exploiting their dependence? Your rationale is ridiculously inconsistent.
But there is *always* a problem in regards to underaged sex because the children involved are unable to comprehend the implications, are at serious risk of being exploited, and are unable to deal with the real world implications of sex. That's the point.
All this mention of "real world" implications and little substantiation. It's all just fluff.
I'm arguing that we shouldn't have this result in the first place, so I'm not going to open this can of worms because society should be looking to avoid this at a lot of cost.
But this result is not in your control.
Having general intelligence/being famous is different to having the emotional understanding of the implications involving sex.
The criterion for which you've neither explained nor substantiated. More fluff.
Even with your extreme examples, children aren't emotionally equipped to deal with the blow out involved with having sex.
The blow out involved with having sex? Such as...
Zygotes and fetuses can't have sex, you stupid pedophile.
Oh, so you do know that? It's a relief to see your arbitrary divisions stop somewhere.
You're treating 3 year olds as if they're adults with the "individual's bodily autonomy". I've got no problem if you want to talk about adults like that, but you think there is no difference between 3 year olds and adults having sex.
Who cares about that with which"you" have a problem? We're not discussing your emotions. I view minors as individuals because that's what they are. And as such, they are afforded the same discretion as any other individual.
Three year olds don't understand the implications of sex, let alone anything in the adult world. All they know is that they want to play and learn about things they see in their lives.
More fluff.
I haven't argued any of this.
You didn't have to; your line of reasoning did. You see: arguments have premises which are extended either to a logical or illogical conclusion. Arguments also operate on a line of reasoning, or rationale. So while you did not state any of the aforementioned, your line of reasoning when sustained would extend the aforementioned premises to the same conclusions. And I made mention of homosexuality, tattoos, drug-use, and alcoholism to "analogize" the extension of this reasoning, and demonstrate how asinine it is.
I have argued that you are a pedophile
With asinine reasoning...
and your illogical reasoning is harmful to society
Why would I take cues on "logic" from someone whose arguments have yet to demonstrate any?
and when you say things like "The age of consent should be eliminated entirely"
Yes...
and that you're okay with 3 year olds having sex,
I've never stated this. Quote me verbatim.
you do a better job at proving both those things than I do.
None of this is proof. Just the projection of asinine reasoning.
I don't think you realize how unacceptable what you are saying is.
Obviously, I don't.
You are fully advocating pedophilia.
No, I'm not.
There are strict, unforgiving laws against it all throughout the world that should be enough to prevent you from engaging in pedophilia, not to mention the extremely damaging abuse children suffer at the hands of pedophiles.
Except laws don't prevent anyone from engaging in pedophilia; child sex rings in some part are perpetrated by the very members of government who you claim attempt to prevent this. The Clinton Foundation in Haiti would be one glaring example.
This is nothing to be owning or embracing
I agree because I neither embraced nor owned it.
you are as bad for society as terrorists and serial killers.
Naturally.
You need to be rectified before you cause serious harm to a child, if you haven't already.
But of course. I mean, what have I argued if not in favor of my alleged attraction to minors?
No.I never called you a convicted pedophile.I called you a pedophile.
Operating on asinine reasoning...
I hope that if you ever get convicted of pedophilia, you are killed for your inhuman crime.
Yay?
Everything you write points in this direction.
That is your impression; that's not an observation.
The most damning quote is this: "The age of consent should be eliminated entirely".You are a pedophile, Athias.
No, I'm an anarchist, but I can see how easy it is to get us confused.
That isn't how I came to the conclusion that you're a pedophile.
That's exactly how you came to the conclusion.
I've argued that because you don't see anything wrong with 3 year olds or 9 year olds having sex
Quote me verbatim.
To you, there is no difference between an adult and a 3 year old having sex. That is an essential belief of a pedophile, one of which you hold.
There's no difference in discretion between a man having sex with a man, or a woman having sex with a woman, and a man having sex with a woman, which is a belief I hold. I must be gay. (Once again, your reasoning is asinine.)
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Provide a more substantial argument in your response, or have a nice day. I won't indulge regress any further.
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@Reece101
How is 9 doctors telling you that you need surgery indistinguishable from 9 friends telling you that you won’t be harmed if you stab yourself in the eye?Are you saying its better to self-diagnose when it comes to serious health problems? Let’s run your logic to its conclusion.
No. I'm stating that the number of doctors does not at all qualify the veracity of their prescriptions. The one doctor could be correct, and the other nine, wrong. The consensus of nine doctors doesn't qualify the prescription of the one doctor.
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@Double_R
Hypothetical scenario; You are having serious chest pains. You go to 10 doctors to get looked at. 9 of them tell you that you need surgery. 1 of them tells you it’s not serious and prescribes you medication.Question: What do you think is most reasonable to believe?
Whoever is right. Nine out of 10 doctors telling you, "you need surgery," informs veracity no more than nine out 10 friends telling you, "you'd be unharmed if you stabbed yourself in the eye." Argumentum ad populum is fallacious.
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@Mesmer
That's a wild claim that's going to lead to some wickedly dark conclusions.
It doesn't change that your entire statement is irrelevant.
So if a 9 year old (entered puberty early) is "capable" of having sex, they should be able to have it?
Yes.
You want 9 year olds and 30 year olds having sex?
No.
You want two 9 year olds having sex?
No.
My "want" however is irrelevant.
How does it not register in your brain that this is an appalling standard to have
You have no idea what "registers" in my brain.
with all the power imbalances involved with children and adults having sex
"Power imbalances" are present in everything children and adults do. If "power balance" informed "predation" then no parent in the age of majority would be a fit custodian.
the issue with 9 year olds giving birth to children,
All of which could be regulated by the child's custodian.
the cognitive inability to understand the consequences of sex,
If a nine year-old can attend a university, then I'm fairly willing to bet that he or she can appreciate the consequences of sex; a minor who knows to avoid touching fire can appreciate the consequences of sex.
how two 9 year olds are going to pay for a child etc.
Or would you wind it back even further and say that people *before* puberty are "capable" of having sex, therefore that's fine? Nothing wrong with 3 year olds having sex?
Why create the division just there? What about zygotes? Fetuses? Obviously you can't see past your own prejudice to appreciate the argument I've made in favor of an individual's bodily autonomy, but instead attempt to pigeonhole said argument to sex with infants. So I'll simply respond with this: parents/custodians can regulate their infants sexual prospects without coercing it.
That's actually thoroughly disgusting, dangerously wrong and you're a pedophile.
Naturally. I mean, I must be, right? I must also be gay when I argue that homosexuals bear discretion over whom they choose to engage coitus. I must also be covered with tattoos, despite my utter disgust of them, because I wouldn't stand behind any statutory penalty for marking up one's skin. I'm also a pot-smoking alcoholic, as well, despite my not having a single alcoholic drink or a smoke in almost 15 years.
I don't agree with blocking people like that, but good grief is he a danger to society.
You only compliment me when you describe me as a danger to your conception of society. I welcome it.
Convicted pedophiles need the death penalty.
I'm a convicted pedophile now? Well, better start informing my neighbors as Megan's Law requires. Oooh, Megan? I wonder if she's young enough.
This Athias guy is implicitly arguing there is nothing wrong with pedophilia.
Is that what I argued? Quote me verbatim.
This guy has to be a pedophile.
We've already acknowledge your indisputable logic: arguing in favor of removing criminal penalty = engaging the act that's criminalized.
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@Greyparrot
Well stated--all of it.
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@Mesmer
None of this matters because the only considerations--"capable" or not--that should be made as it concerns one's own body is by the very person him or herself.The human brain hasn't fully developed until roughly the age of 25. What this means is that until the age of 25, humans are less capable of making big, life-changing decisions due to the underdevelopment of the prefrontal cortex At What Age Is The Brain Fully Developed? - Mental Health Daily. Ideally, if that was the only factor involved, humans should not be able to get married, have sex, drink alcohol, have political opinions, choose to go to college, enlist in the military etc. before that age. Also, the extra 7-12 years worth of life experience will further help make these decisions. I wrote an OP detailing how bad teenaged parents are for children (looking purely at outcomes): Children should be born into wedlock with their biological, adult parents (debateart.com) .However, we also need to factor in the fact that young bodies have an advantage over their 25 year old counterparts. For giving birth to children, as women age they become more likely to have genetically unhealthy children https://youtu.be/4kfcsOhgzRA?t=550 . For men, they have the highest (natural) testosterone levels around the ages of 17-20 -- this is roughly where they are most virile testosterone levels in men by age - Bing images . So, purely for breeding purposes, it would be best if men and women of ages 17-20 could produce their children then.Therefore, we have these opposing forces for age of consent: (1) societal factors wanting you to be far older to produce children (25+), and (2) the human body reaching breeding potential around the ages of 17-20 (probably lower for girls and higher for boys). Thus, the game here is to balance this out. If you set the age of consent too low, you'll have people having sex who don't understand the implications of it at all. If you set the age of consent too high, you'll miss out on the years the human body is at its reproductive best.Nowhere in this calculation can it be concluded that 13 years old is a good idea for the age of consent -- the lack of physical maturation and mental maturation means you're getting the worst of both worlds. If you take it up to 16 (which is the case for some countries), you're basically at the physical maturation for girls (almost for boys), but the mental side will be horribly lacking (read my teenage parents OP). If you take it up to 20 years, you're on the back-end of the physical maturation and you're capturing more of the mental maturity -- this is where I'd like to see age of consent at.If we set the age of consent to 20, we also lower the amount of useless sex before people can get married and have children (sex lowers people's ability to pairbond, and pairbonding is essential for a stable child-rearing unit) stable marriage rate as per teachman - Bing images . This will also mean that people will, on average, be having more responsible sex, thus lowering the chances of STDs spreading. We also help to avoid of the exploitative setups wherein older people have relationships with teenagers (think 30 year old dating 16 year olds).Not only should we reject the age of consent being lowered (especially to 13), but I think it should be raised to 20.
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@dfss9788
There is less opportunity to take advantage of someone who is fully mentally equipped.
Why does this happen at 18? Why in some states, 17? Or the majority of states, 16? Is there something regional that effects how "mentally equip" one is? Or perhaps, these statutory divisions are arbitrary and reflect nothing more than the prejudices of the State and the electorate who sanctions it?
14 year olds... their brains aren't finished cooking yet, at least not until they're 18 AFAIK.
The brain doesn't fully develop until one is 25/26 years-old. Why is the age of consent not 25 or 26? Would you endorse an age-based restriction at the age of 25/26? Why or why not?
Retarded people and the elderly having cognitive decline come to mind. On the other end of the age spectrum we have stupid old farts who have zero sexual capital but tons of money. Scamming old people is a cottage industry these days, and we have plenty of elder abuse laws on the books to protect them from that.
So I ask: why is consent qualified by age--particularly between the age of majority and the age of minority?
Well, a 14 year old usually is dependent on his parents and subject to their oversight. He can be controlled by them. A 25 year old usually is independent and is not subject to parental oversight.
So the age of consent allows the State and/or parent to exploit the minor's dependence in order to control them and their sexual prospects? And this is "protecting" them? At what point are the interests of the minor over his or her body considered?
Well, you seemed to ask why data and studies would be relevant IIRC. Yes, that question did go unanswered. Suffice to say there exists relevant evidence. Data and studies are usually the type of evidence that I find to be most compelling for policy making issues. Getting in to a discussion over which sort of evidence is relevant isn't really necessary we haven't really looked at any.
What can the evidence reveal or inform that supersedes the interests of the minor over his or her own body, particularly in how he or she behaves it? If a study suggested that those who were 40 and under didn't bear the mental capacity to have sex, you're willing to sanction policy that would prohibit those 40 and under from having sex?
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@Polytheist-Witch
We should totally let 14-year-olds be considered legal adults and have their own jobs and apartments screw school learning anything just let him go get their own place and have sex all they want to that's a perfect idea because they're totally prepared for everything that life has to throw at them at 14.
A 14 year-old may be considered as an "adult" through legal emancipation. I don't know what school/learning has to do with anything, and they can already have all the sex they want with those who are their own age. So what is your point?
At least the girls cuz that's who everybody keeps talking about how the girls should be able to decide to f*** a 30 year old man if they want to.
You're the one who focused on "girls"; hence, I made sure to quote "she" in my previous response.
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@dfss9788
Can't speak for all the legislatures, but one issue is that a 25 year old is usually an independent person while a 14 year old probably is dependent on and accountable to his parents. I mean, I don't see any mechanism outside the law for controlling what a 25 year old does. That, and I'm imagining that there's simply less opportunity for 14 year olds to be abusive with each other because they're more on a level playing field mentally. (not that it doesn't happen) There's also less knowledge of the world and laws and what have you.
Being on a level playing field mentally creates less opportunity for abuse? So couldn't one infer that abusive relationships among those within the age of majority by its nature is minimized? Do you view this as an accurate gauge? Furthermore, what role does "knowledge of the world" play in having sex? Having sex is not all that complicated.
Teenagers are going to want to have sex with each other and they see each other all the time from schools. I don't see any purpose in having a punitive statutory regime for regulating it when it can already be regulated through parental oversight.
So why can't the interactions between a teenager and an adult also be regulated by parental oversight? Why does it require a punitive statutory regime?
It is the parents' role to look out for their children.
That doesn't answer the question. For example, my parents may have looked out for me during my formative years, but that doesn't mean that they knew me better than I did. Why would their looking out for me be more of a testament to my interests than my own word?
RN it's a TLDR. Maybe later.
Understandable. There are no time restrictions, so read it at your leisure.
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@Polytheist-Witch
Being pro rape and child molesting is not a good look.
I am neither. And this point is diminished by the fact that in the advent of age of consent restrictions, rape and child-molestation still persists--ironically some of which is perpetrated by individuals who are members of the very government which (allegedly) seeks to prevent it.
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@3RU7AL
What makes you think it's reasonable to use "convince a lion not to initiate any form aggression" as a standard for "moral-agency" ?It seems to fail as even a purely hypothetical standard.
That was the entire point. My use of "convince" was intended to demonstrate its irrationality. If a lion could be "convinced" in the first place, it wouldn't matter what else followed. All this serves my point: non-human animals aren't moral agents.
You already declared that some humans are moral-agents and some are not moral-agents.
Yes.
Would you suggest that humans who are not moral-agents are equal to animals ?
In the context of their capacity to function within a moral framework, yes. I provide one caveat: for a human non-moral-agent, this is typically temporal.
ANd, furthermore, can we tell if someone is a moral-agent simply by looking at them ?
No, one's capacity to reason and function within a moral framework is not visible.
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@Vader
13 is too young. Some guys and girl haven't even hit puberty or have had the talk yet with their parents. They simply don't know what consent is at the time and can not properly function at all.
First, what is "consent"? Second, what do you mean by "properly function"?
There's also relative studies to confirm my point as well about maturing and adolescences and puberty. Hell I don't think I hit puberty at 13.
Why would any of these studies matter?
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@Polytheist-Witch
Age of consent is about protecting those who are mentally vulnerable to those who are more mentally savvy.
Not it's not; age of consent is about sustaining the State's and to some extent parents' priority over the minor's sexual prospects. It's not about "protecting them" at all.
To state that a 30-year-old having sex with a 14-year-old is appropriate is not appropriate.
I agree that it's inappropriate; however, impropriety is not the same as "criminal."
Taking advantage of a 14-year-old are convincing her that she wants to have sex is exactly the kind of thing people have been talking about when it comes to rape or lack of consent.
What constitutes "taking advantage"? Is "she" in any way coerced into having sex? In the absence of duress, does "she" bear the incapacity to consent to sex?
I'm for protecting children, and not penalizing people who are close in age from having sex.
So "she" can consent to sexual interaction with another 14 year-old, but she can't consent to sexual interaction with a 30 year-old? Ceteris paribus, how are the implications and mechanics different from the former when compared with the latter?
Cases should be done on an individual basis to determine whether or not some sort of consent violation occurred.
So why does age qualify consent?
But there's no reason people under the age of 18 should be having sex with someone that's more than 5 years older than them there is a huge difference between the mental and physical body of a 14-year-old and a 19 year old.
What relevance does being five years older, the mental and physical differences bear in establishing whether "she"--a 14 year-old that is--has been raped?
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